Psychology and Law
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Psychology and Law explores the intersection of psychological principles and legal processes, examining how human behavior, cognition, and emotion influence the justice system. The course delves into topics such as eyewitness testimony, jury decision-making, false confessions, competency assessments, and the psychological evaluation of offenders. Students will analyze the role of psychological research in shaping legal policies and practices, as well as ethical considerations for psychologists working in forensic settings. By integrating case studies and current research, the course equips students with a comprehensive understanding of how psychological insights can inform and improve law enforcement, courtroom procedures, and the broader legal system.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic and Legal Psychology Psychological
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Science Applied to Law 2nd Edition by Mark Costanzo
Chapter 1: Section 1: Psychology and Law: a Cautious
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Q1) Discuss why it might be difficult for a psychologist to maintain her impartiality as a scientist and still successfully fulfill her role as an expert testifying in court.
Answer: Main points:
The U.S. legal system is adversarial.
Often, experts are hired by either defense or prosecution, with the expectation of helping one side of the trial.
Lawyers tend to "shop around" for an expert who would testify the way the lawyer needs.
Expert herself may have ideals or convictions she wants to advocate for.
Being effective as an expert in court requires presenting a clear-cut, easy-to-understand picture.
At the same time, science is rarely clear-cut or simple, it requires objectivity and skepticism about your own findings; conflicting explanations for the same facts are not uncommon.
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Chapter 1: Section 2: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) The Daubert trilogy of cases impacts trial courts by:
A) putting the burden of decisions about allowing expert testimony on trial judges.
B) demonstrating that judges understand social science research and methods.
C) making judges take statistics courses and regular refresher training.
D) proving scientific research is well understood by all key actors in the legal system.
Answer: A
Q2) Legal realists:
A) thought judicial decisions reflected principles found in nature.
B) felt judges used careful logic to arrive at a single correct decision in a particular case.
C) believed judges constructed the law through their interpretations of evidence and precedent.
D) showed little interest in applying social science research to the legal system.
Answer: C
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Chapter 1: Section 3: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) The style of inquiry in the U.S. legal system is _____, whereas in psychology it is
A) advocacy; objectivity
B) objectivity; empiricism
C) empiricism; authority
D) authority; objectivity
Answer: A
Q2) After Daubert, judges are more likely to:
A) permit expert testimony in federal cases.
B) exclude expert testimony even if it's based on valid science.
C) allow expert testimony, but only with regard to competency to stand trial.
D) be required to obtain education in social scientific research methods.
Answer: B
Q3) Judges _____ the use of brain scans in the courtroom claiming that the scientific value of this evidence _____.
A) gladly accept; is exceptional
B) routinely deny; is not established
C) never accept; only applies in brain injury cases
D) often allow; can be correctly interpreted during expert testimony
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Section 1: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) Describe some common types of false confessions, reasons behind them, and police tactics that lead to a higher incidence of false confessions.
Q2) What are some possible reforms that can be implemented in police interrogation procedures to reduce the risk of false confessions?
Q3) What has been the U.S. Supreme Court's position on the use of deception by police during interrogations? How does the use of this technique compare with the use of deception during interrogations in other countries, such as England and Wales? What are some worrisome moral implications of the use of deception by police during interrogations?
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Chapter 2: Section 2: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) As a result of a long, drawn out interrogation process, Kathryn confessed to a crime knowing that she did not commit it. This type of confession is called an:
A) authentic-voluntary confession.
B) instrumental-coerced confession.
C) authentic-coerced confession.
D) instrumental-voluntary confession.
Q2) All of the following are possible explanations for waiving the Miranda rights, EXCEPT:
A) the suspect may not understand his or her rights clearly.
B) people are used to signing waivers or various kinds.
C) police are very careful in explaining to suspects their rights.
D) people do not want to create an impression they are guilty.
Q3) Even though a _____ may rule that a confession is inadmissible because it was coerced, such rulings are _____.
A) jury; common
B) judge; common
C) jury; rare
D) judge; rare
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Chapter 2: Section 3: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) The fundamental attribution error, or the tendency to attribute other people's behavior to dispositional forces rather than situational pressures, is evident in the following scenario:
A) Colin often lies and so it is surprising that he told the truth about stealing the bicycle.
B) The weather was terrible and so the burglar decided not to use the fire escape.
C) Matthias was very tired and that is why he has quit the competition mid-way through.
D) The robber stumbled because he was clumsy and not because the road was slippery.
Q2) In the case of Colorado v. Connelly (1986), Supreme Court Justice Brennan considered _____ to be the strongest piece of evidence in a trial.
A) eyewitness testimony
B) scientific evidence
C) a confession
D) the defendant's prior record
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Chapter 3: Section 1: Lie Detection
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Q1) Discuss the scientific validity of the polygraph.
Q2) Discuss the limitations of fMRI studies in the detection of deception.
Q3) Compare and contrast the relevant-irrelevant test (RIT), the comparison question test (CQT), and the guilty knowledge test (GKT).
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Chapter 3: Section 2: Lie Detection
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Q1) _____ measures almost imperceptible changes in the heat of the human face.
A) Criteria-based content analysis
B) High-definition infrared thermal imaging
C) The electroencephlogram (EEG)
D) Laser doppler vibrometry (LDV)
Q2) Techniques such as biting the tongue, pressing the toes to the floor, or counting backwards are all examples of:
A) aiding in polygraph testing.
B) countermeasures to polygraph testing.
C) aversion to polygraph testing.
D) liar's stereotype.
Q3) The rates of accuracy of the polygraph have been calculated using controlled lab studies and mock crimes. These rates are likely to be somewhat inflated for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A) subjects in these studies do not have much to lose.
B) lies that subjects in these studies have to tell are very simple.
C) the polygraph machines used in these studies are outdated.
D) subjects in these studies were not trained in countermeasures.
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Chapter 3: Section 3: Lie Detection
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Q1) The method of guilty knowledge test (GKT) was developed by David Lykken to remedy some of the problems with the earlier methods of polygraph examination. Which of the following is NOT one of these problems?
A) Some people are emotionally nonreactive.
B) Innocent people may react strongly to crime-related questions.
C) People who do not have faith in the validity of the polygraph may not respond in the way examiners think they would.
D) Different makes and models of the polygraph machine may produce different results.
Q2) In the comparison question test (formerly, control question test) of polygraph examination, comparison questions are designed to be _____ and compel people to _____ when answering them.
A) directly related to crime in question; tell the truth
B) uncomfortable but unrelated to crime in question; lie
C) outrageous and insulting; lose their temper
D) innocent-sounding but highly coercive; admit to committing the crime
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Q1) How does reliability differ from validity? Use examples to illustrate both.
Q2) What type of influence do the CSI TV dramas have on jurors?
Q3) How can error rate be reduced in forensic investigations?
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Chapter 4: Section 2: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace
Evidence
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Q1) A qualitative statement made by an expert when presenting evidence is:
A) a subjective statement corroborated by statistics.
B) a non-statistical statement about the strength of a match.
C) dependent on simple match standards of inquiry.
D) supported by extensive research with peer review.
Q2) Shelly testifies in court that the DNA recovered at the crime scene is likely to come from the suspect because less than 0.0001% of population have this specific genetic marker. This type of identification is called:
A) simple match.
B) match plus statistics.
C) qualitative statement.
D) inconclusive.
Q3) The main similarity between Bertillon's anthropometry and modern biometrics is that both _____.
A) use iris color and other facial features to identify individuals.
B) are established fields of science that are widely used in the courts.
C) give rise to doubts about the relationship between skull shape and personality.
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D) aim to identify an individual based on measurable anatomical trace.
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Chapter 4: Section 3: The Psychology of Forensic
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Q1) In which of the following conditions would an analyst not know he or she is being tested?
A) Single blind.
B) Double blind.
C) Triple blind.
D) Experimental.
Q2) Who pioneered the use of fingerprints in establishing identity?
A) Alphonse Bertillon
B) Francis Galton
C) James Watson
D) Charles Darwin
Q3) The degree to which two or more observers or analysts independently arrive at the same measurement result is called:
A) inter-rater validity.
B) match reliability.
C) test-retest reliability.
D) inter-rater reliability.
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Chapter 5: Section 1: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) Compare and contrast criminal profiling, geographic profiling, and behavioral investigative advice (BIA).
Q2) What is the purpose of a psychological autopsy and when would it be used?
Q3) How is profiling used in criminal investigations? Is it effective?
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Chapter 5: Section 2: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) According to the text, the courts have been reluctant to allow expert testimony based on psychological autopsies. However, that is NOT the case in:
A) Jackson v. State of Florida (1989).
B) Sysyn v. State (2000).
C) Brown v. Board of Education (1954).
D) Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals (1993).
Q2) Psychological profiling mostly relies on _____ of a particular profiler.
A) psychological education
B) clinical experience
C) intuition
D) psychic abilities
Q3) One of the characteristics thought to be indicative of childhood maladjustment has been identified among quite a few serial killers. It is:
A) cruelty to animals.
B) mental illness.
C) extroversion.
D) temper tantrums.
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Chapter 5: Section 3: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of an organized murderer as hypothesized by the organized/disorganized distinction?
A) Average or above average intelligence.
B) Sexually incompetent.
C) Controlled mood during crime.
D) Geographic mobility.
Q2) Most serial murder cases _____ solved by diligent police work _____ profiles.
A) are not; but rather by B) are not; nor by C) are; with a huge help from D) are; and not by
Q3) The hypothesized differences between organized and disorganized killers: A) can lead to easy identification of a suspect. B) were not confirmed in empirical studies.
C) earned the Nobel prize for the authors of the typology. D) were extensively tested in field experiments.
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Chapter 6: Section 1: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Explain the voir dire process.
Q2) Explain how the role of money in trial consulting may affect trial outcomes. Are there any possible solutions to the problems you have identified?
Q3) How effective is scientific jury selection?
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) John was summoned for jury duty. He came to court and asked to be excused because he had to take care of his elderly and frail mother living with him and requiring near-constant supervision. According to the text, he used the ____ plea.
A) "elderly caregiver exclusion"
B) "exoneration cause"
C) "undue hardship or extreme inconvenience"
D) automatic exemption
Q2) Law does not set a limit to the number of _____ though they have to be approved by the judge, and judges _____.
A) peremptory challenges; do not have unlimited patience
B) peremptory challenges; have unlimited patience
C) challenges for cause; have limited patience
D) challenges for cause; have unlimited patience
Q3) According to the text, when an attorney takes the opportunity to remove a potential juror, it is referred to as:
A) a challenge.
B) venire.
C) an obstacle to equality.
D) recross.
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) The last opportunity for questioning a witness occurs during _______ examination.
A) cross
B) direct
C) redirect
D) recross
Q2) In Batson v. Kentucky (1986) and J. E. B. v. Ala. Ex rel (1994), the Supreme Court ruled that potential jurors cannot be excluded because of their:
A) race and gender.
B) race and ethnicity.
C) religion and beliefs.
D) ethnicity and persuasion.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the broad personality tendencies associated with jury verdicts, mentioned in Chapter 6?
A) locus of control
B) extraversion
C) authoritarianism
D) belief in a just world
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Chapter 7: Section 1: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Describe three research findings regarding improving eyewitness accuracy.
Q2) How does human memory operate? How is it different from a video recording? If people are sure they remember the situation well, does it mean their memories are more accurate than memories of those who are not as sure?
Q3) Describe the post-identification feedback effect and give an example. What is the role of cognitive dissonance in this process?
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) When describing memory, _____ is the first component required in the process necessary for retention.
A) storage
B) retrieval
C) top-down processing
D) encoding
Q2) Individuals often _____ the duration of a brief event, especially if it is a(n) _____ event.
A) underestimate; stressful
B) overestimate; stressful
C) underestimate; interesting
D) overestimate; interesting
Q3) When doing research, social scientists often look at many factors. Factors that are outside the control of the legal system are referred to as:
A) system variables.
B) dependent variables.
C) independent variables.
D) estimator variables.
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) An eyewitness identifies John as the perpetrator of a crime that he did not commit. The eyewitness saw John's picture in a local advertisement and has mistakenly replaced the face of the actual perpetrator with John's face when recalling the crime. This demonstrates:
A) unconscious transference.
B) retrieval inhibition.
C) cognitive dissonance.
D) the filler effect.
Q2) Which one of the following Manson criteria CONTRADICTS research findings?
A) The witness's level of attention.
B) The amount of time between witnessing the crime and making the identification.
C) The degree of certainty asserted by the witness.
D) The witness's opportunity to view the perpetrator.
Q3) To improve eyewitness accuracy, social scientists can assist the legal system in improving _____ variables.
A) dependent
B) system
C) predictor
D) estimator
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Chapter 8: Section 1: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Explain what is malingering and why some defendants might be compelled to resort to it. Would it be in their best interests? Why or why not?
Q2) What does research show about the competencies of children and adolescents? Should there be specific requirements for competency to stand trial for juveniles as different from the ones for adults?
Q3) Explain why competency to stand trial (CST) is a legal and not a psychological term. What are the key elements of CST?
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) When performing competency evaluations within an institution, collateral sources of information can be gathered regarding the defendant's behavior. Some of the individuals that might be able to provide this additional information include:
A) prison guards, nurses, and mental health professionals.
B) prison guards, sisters, and the minister.
C) nurses, ministers, and siblings.
D) mental health professionals, prison guards, and family members.
Q2) Phillip is standing trial for robbery. His overall ability to adequately take care of himself and his ability to understand what is going on at trial has come into question. Before he goes to trial, it is important to assess whether he is:
A) mentally unstable.
B) too poor to pay for an attorney.
C) competent to stand trial.
D) has realistic chances for an acquittal.
Q3) Bona fide doubt may also be referred to as _____ doubt.
A) substantial
B) reasonable
C) voluntary
D) collateral
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) According to the information presented in Chapter 8, which of the following is FALSE regarding competency to stand trial?
A) A majority of incompetent defendants are eventually restored to competency.
B) Judges agree with the decisions of competence evaluators most of the time.
C) A majority of individuals referred for a competence evaluation are found incompetent.
D) Defendants can be medicated against their will in order to restore competence.
Q2) Unlike what most people think, malingering means that all of the following is likely to happen to the criminal defendant who is faking incompetency EXCEPT:
A) being set free.
B) getting hospitalized in a secure facility.
C) his or her competency attempted to be restored.
D) if serious, charges can be refiled later, when competency is regained.
Q3) Competency to stand trial refers to the psychological state of the defendant:
A) at the time of the crime.
B) during pre-trial proceedings.
C) at the time of sentencing.
D) at the time of trial.
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Chapter 9: Section 1: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) What major changes were instituted to the insanity defense after the trial of John Hinckley?
Q2) How do jurors view the insanity defense?
Q3) Why is it difficult to evaluate insanity? What factors make it different from the evaluation of competency to stand trial?
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) According to the text, insanity:
A) refers to the defendant's state of mind at the time of the trial.
B) affirms the psychiatric diagnosis according to the legal standards.
C) refers to the criminal's state of mind at the time the crime was committed.
D) confirms the defendant's moral responsibility.
Q2) The Durham standard took into consideration:
A) mental disease or mental defect in a person.
B) the presumption that defendants are sane at the time of their alleged crime.
C) whether the defendant knew the nature and quality of their actions.
D) the defendant's criminal history.
Q3) The idea of the insanity defense is based on the principle that:
A) people are not quite normal.
B) people should not be punished if they are not responsible for their behavior.
C) behavior of mentally ill people is irrational.
D) behavior is only criminal if the person had the intention to harm another human being.
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) What definition of insanity is used in most states currently?
A) the Durham test.
B) the ALI standard.
C) the M'Naghten rule.
D) the "wild beast" test.
Q2) Andrea Yates was diagnosed with:
A) schizophrenia.
B) dissociative identity disorder.
C) postpartum mental illness.
D) bipolar disorder.
Q3) Which famous case prompted shifting the burden of proof of insanity from prosecution to defense?
A) Durham
B) Hinckley
C) M'Naghten
D) Smith
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Chapter 10: Section 1: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) What are the disadvantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q2) What are the advantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q3) What are rape shield laws and when do they not apply in court? Can expert testimony be problematic in this regard?
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Chapter 10: Section 2: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) Marissa has been beaten by her husband on multiple occasions. She has learned to anticipate her husband's impending violence by carefully observing minute signs of his moods and behaviors. Which of the following terms is used to describe this type of heightened attentiveness in battered women?
A) Cycle of abuse.
B) Acute battering.
C) Learned helplessness.
D) Hypervigilance.
Q2) Which of the following statements correctly describes the current state of BWS validity?
A) BWS is accepted by many practitioners and criticized by many researchers.
B) Both practitioners and researchers uniformly reject this diagnosis.
C) Both practitioners and researchers have been more accepting of BWS recently.
D) There is a great deal of research supporting the validity of BWS.
Q3) Hypervigilance can best be described as:
A) heightened attentiveness to the abuser's subtle behaviors.
B) lessened attentiveness to the victim's needs.
C) heightened sense of urgency to take action against the abuser.
D) lessened sense of self-worth.
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Chapter 10: Section 3: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) According to the text, serious violence is much more likely to occur when:
A) males assault their female partners.
B) females assault their male partners.
C) females assault their female rivals.
D) males assault their male intimate partners.
Q2) According to the text, the original study of battered women by Dr. Walker was criticized for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:
A) not all women in her sample experienced all the hypothesized stages of the cycle of abuse.
B) a comparison group of non-battered women was absent from her study.
C) the experimenters who collected the data knew about the study hypotheses and could inadvertently influence the results.
D) the sample in her study was too small.
Q3) According to the text, nearly _____ of women who are raped will exhibit all of the clinical signs of PTSD.
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 90%
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Page 32
Chapter 11: Section 1: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Should anatomically detailed dolls be admissible in court? Why or why not?
Q2) How are child witnesses perceived by jurors? What kind of measures do the courts take to protect child witnesses?
Q3) Which allegations of recovered memories should be suspect?
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Another way that children are able to testify in a case is through the use of a closed-circuit television (CCTV). Its use allows the judge and jury to see the child without exposing the alleged victim to the emotional trauma that may present itself while in the presence of the defendant. In the case of Maryland v. Craig, the Court decided that the _____ the child _____ the defendant's right to confront his or her accuser.
A) need to gather the truth from; is as important as
B) need to protect; outweighs
C) rights of; are as important as
D) potential emotional trauma to; is not as salient as
Q2) Research has shown that children _____ sometimes have difficulty distinguishing between imagined and real events.
A) under 3
B) under 5
C) over 5
D) over 7
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Loftus (1997) was able to "implant" memories of being "lost in the mall" in what percentage of participants?
A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 25%
D) 15%
Q2) One should be especially skeptical about claims of recovered memories in all of the following cases EXCEPT:
A) abuse involving satanic rituals.
B) abuse that occurred before the age of 3.
C) memories of abuse that began as vague impressions.
D) abuse that began in adolescence.
Q3) The notion that traumatic memories can be pushed out of conscious awareness is called:
A) oppression.
B) regression.
C) repression.
D) confabulation.
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Q1) What are the advantages of mediation over litigation? Who is more likely to seek litigation?
Q2) How does legal custody differ from physical custody? Which custody arrangement are common and which are not?
Q3) How do the best interest of the child standard (BICS) and the tender years doctrine differ?
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Juries and Judges As Decision
Makers
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Q1) Kathryn's parents recently divorced. During the hearing for custody, it was determined that her mother would have legal and physical custody. This type of custody is known as:
A) sole custody.
B) joint legal custody.
C) shared custody.
D) physical custody.
Q2) One criticism of the majority of currently used projective tests is that they:
A) have high reliability.
B) have low validity.
C) have high validity.
D) are not criterion referenced.
Q3) One criticism of projective tests, particularly the Rorschach Inkblot Test, is that: A) no one understands them.
B) the responses are often interpreted differently from clinician to clinician.
C) the responses correlate well for personality traits, but not for specific mental disorders.
D) the responses correlate well for specific mental illnesses, but not as well for personality traits.
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Chapter 12: Section 3 Juries and Judges As Decision Makers
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Q1) To circumvent the vagueness of the best interest of the child standard, many states have adopted:
A) the joint legal custody standard.
B) the primary caretaker rule.
C) preferred custody arrangements.
D) the approximation rule.
Q2) One commonly used test in custody evaluations is the Rorschach Inkblot Test. The reason why it is not advisable to use this test is that it:
A) lacks validity and reliability in forensic evaluations.
B) has the potential to cause psychological distress to the subject.
C) is extremely complex to interpret and requires years of practice on the part of the evaluator.
D) is intimate in nature, which puts the subject in an uncomfortable position.
Q3) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that "custody decisions cannot turn on racial considerations?"
A) Painter v. Bannister
B) Palmore v. Sidoti
C) Myers v. Otto
D) Boswell v. Boswell
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Page 38
Chapter 13: Section 1: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) How does inadmissible evidence influence juror decision making?
Q2) What kind of reforms would you suggest to improve the jury trial process?
Q3) How does the mathematical model of jury decision making differ from the story model of jury decision making?
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) In a post verdict survey, it was discovered that _____ of jurors stated that they had adequate opportunities to express their views.
A) about a quarter
B) a half
C) about 75%
D) over 95%
Q2) The lack of clear evidence often results in jurors considering other factors such as pretrial publicity and prior beliefs. This phenomenon is known as the _____ hypothesis.
A) guilty through association
B) public court accusation
C) liberation
D) presumption
Q3) According to extensive research, the best predictor of what the verdict will be is the _____ of relevant evidence.
A) strength
B) description
C) review
D) discussion
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Chapter 13: Section 3: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a stage in the deliberation process?
A) Closed conflict.
B) Orientation.
C) Reconciliation.
D) Open conflict.
Q2) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding research on inadmissible evidence?
A) Jurors disregard inadmissible evidence when they consider it irrelevant or unfair.
B) If the judge does not explain clearly why the evidence should be disregarded, jurors are less likely to ignore the evidence.
C) Jurors are reluctant to disregard inadmissible evidence when they consider it useful.
D) Judges' instructions to disregard inadmissible evidence have no effect on jurors' decisions.
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Chapter 14: Section 1: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?
Q2) What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment?
Q3) How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment?
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) To hospitalize someone against his or her will, most states now require that certain conditions be met. Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions?
A) Presence of a severe mental disorder.
B) A severe mental disorder affects the person's functioning.
C) Substantial possibility of causing significant harm to self or others.
D) A documented history of recent dangerous behaviors.
Q2) The length of civil confinement is:
A) specified.
B) determined by the legal system alone.
C) determined by psychiatrists alone.
D) not specified.
Q3) Community notification requiring states to make personal and private information about known sex offenders available to the public is a result of the enactment of:
A) Megan's Law.
B) the Violence Risk Appraisal Guide (VRAG).
C) duty to protect laws.
D) sexually violent predator (SVP) civil commitment laws.
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Page 43
Chapter 14: Section 3: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) Beliefs that other people or forces are controlling one's thoughts or implanting thoughts in one's mind are referred to as:
A) threat/control-override symptoms.
B) diathesis/stress symptoms.
C) anger/impulse symptoms.
D) anosognosia.
Q2) What three states have been responsible for over half the total executions in the United States since 1976?
A) Florida, Georgia, and Alabama
B) California, Mississippi, and Nevada
C) South Carolina, Arkansas, and Florida
D) Texas, Oklahoma, and Virginia
Q3) The movement to release mentally ill patients from hospitals is called:
A) humanitarian advocacy.
B) dehospitalization.
C) deinstitutionalization.
D) legislative reforms.
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Page 44
Chapter 15: Section 1: Predicting Violent Behavior: the
Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) What steps can be taken to reduce prejudice?
Q2) What is psychological injury as it applies to sexual harassment? Which standards of injury are currently applied in sexual harassment cases?
Q3) What do studies show about racism in the United States? How does the modern-era racism differ from the older forms of racism?
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Chapter 15: Section 2: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) Studies found that several conditions are crucial for reducing stereotyping and prejudice. All of the following conditions reduce stereotypes EXCEPT:
A) One-on-one interactions between members of different groups.
B) Increased competition between members of different groups.
C) Cooperation between members of different groups in reaching superordinate goals.
D) Local social norms must encourage inter-group contact and equal treatment.
Q2) A study of hiring found _____. However, when two candidates had similar qualifications, _____.
A) no overt prejudice against black candidates; hiring managers deferred their decisions to their superiors to avoid being accused of racism
B) overt prejudice against black candidates; hiring managers deferred their decisions to their superiors to avoid being accused of racism
C) overt prejudice against black candidates; hiring managers couldn't help but hire the black candidate
D) no overt prejudice against black candidates; hiring managers gave preference to the white candidate
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Chapter 15: Section 3: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) The reasonable woman standard was first proposed in:
A) Harris v. Forklift Systems (1993).
B) Ellison v. Brady (1991).
C) Oncale v. Sundowner Offshore Services, Inc. (1998).
D) Burlington Industries, Inc. v. Ellerth (1998).
Q2) Studies show that females experience workplace harassment _____ often than males, and harassment rates are _____ in the military.
A) more; higher for males than females
B) more; higher for both males and females
C) less; higher for males than females
D) less; higher for females than males
Q3) Studies show that the jurors focus on a few key factors when they decide on an outcome of a sexual harassment case. The factors include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) the victim's character.
B) the consequences suffered by the victim.
C) whether the head of the company is a man or a woman.
D) how the company responded to the situation.
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Page 47
Chapter 16: Section 1: Corrections: Sentencing,
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Q1) Describe the four goals of imprisonment.
Q2) What was the goal of determinate sentencing and how does it work? What are the main problems with mandatory sentencing in general and with one of its versionsthree-strikes laws - in particular?
Q3) Discuss three alternatives to prison.
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Chapter 16: Section 2: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) Several U.S. states have very high incarceration rates. Which one is not among them?
A) Mississippi
B) Louisiana
C) New Jersey
D) Texas
Q2) Three-strikes laws have been criticized for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) three-strikes laws increase gender disparity in sentencing for violent crimes.
B) there are much cheaper and equally effective alternatives to imprisonment.
C) three-strikes laws are often imposed for relatively minor, nonviolent offenses.
D) longer prison sentences are handed down to offenders who are "aging out of" crime.
Q3) Some studies have found that judges were susceptible to different sentencing based on the convicted person's _____ and _____.
A) race; gender
B) race; age
C) age; gender
D) gender; socioeconomic status
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Chapter 16: Section 3: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) Studies find that there are several factors that lead to disparities in sentencing decisions. Which of the following is NOT one of these findings?
A) Male judges give significantly lighter sentences to women than to men.
B) For violent crimes, women receive shorter sentences than men.
C) African American male juveniles receive harsher sentences in politically conservative jurisdictions.
D) Young Hispanic men are least likely to be incarcerated for their crimes.
Q2) Crime rates have been _____ for the last 15 to 20 years. However, the rate of incarceration in the United States is _____ that of other industrialized democracies.
A) falling; getting close to B) rising; getting close to C) rising; much lower than
D) falling; still several times higher than
Q3) The Supreme Court abandoned the rigidity of mandatory sentencing in the case of:
A) United States v. Booker.
B) United States v. Ruback.
C) United States v. McCarthy.
D) United States v. Wroblewksi.
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Chapter 17: Section 1: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Discuss the racial disparities in administering the death penalty.
Q2) Is the death penalty an effective deterrent to murder?
Q3) What are Americans' views on the death penalty? Why is it important to consider public opinion on this issue?
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Chapter 17: Section 2: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Excluding federal crimes, the only crime punishable by death is:
A) incest.
B) manslaughter.
C) aggravated murder.
D) aggravated rape.
Q2) In the reforms set forth in Gregg v. Georgia, defendants on trial for capital murder ought to be tried by juries in:
A) one phase.
B) two phases.
C) three phases.
D) some of the cases.
Q3) The death-qualification process inquires about a jury member's willingness to consider execution in a trial. According to the text, the actual death-qualification process is often:
A) confusing.
B) inclusive.
C) consensus-building.
D) biasing.
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Chapter 17: Section 3: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Potential jurors excluded during the process of death qualification because of their opposition to the death penalty are more likely to be:
A) female, African American, and politically liberal.
B) female, Hispanic, and politically moderate.
C) politically liberal males.
D) male, Hispanic, and politically conservative.
Q2) The most widely used forms of execution in parts of the world where the death penalty is still used are:
A) lethal injection and the gas chamber.
B) lethal injection and the electric chair.
C) the gas chamber and the electric chair.
D) hanging and shooting.
Q3) The brutalization effect refers to the:
A) tendency of juries to give more weight to aggravating factors in capital cases.
B) conclusion that executions increase murder rates.
C) suggestion that brutal methods of execution like the electric chair decrease murder rates.
D) likelihood that repeat offenders are more likely to be sentenced to death.
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