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Psychology 101 is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts, theories, and methods in the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. Students will examine key topics such as perception, learning, memory, cognition, emotion, personality, development, psychological disorders, and approaches to treatment. The course emphasizes both biological and social factors that influence human thought and behavior, and introduces students to the empirical research methods used in psychology. Through lectures, discussions, and practical examples, students gain a foundational understanding of how psychological principles apply to everyday life and set the stage for advanced study in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Mastering the World of Psychology 5th Edition by Samuel E. Wood
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Q1) Today, minorities in America are _____ among professional psychologists.
A)underrepresented
B)overrepresented
C)equal in number
D)the majority
Answer: A
Q2) When we examine how factors like poverty, peers, and parents interact to produce antisocial behavior in teens, we are using the _____
A)systems perspective.
B)multifactor design model.
C)information processing theory
D)humanistic approach.
Answer: A
Q3) A prediction about a cause and effect relationship between two or more variables is a _____
A)theory.
B)experiment.
C)causal hypothesis.
D)correlational hypothesis.
Answer: C
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Q1) Nodes of _____ are gaps in the _____ that coat some axons.
A)myelin; glia
B)Ranvier; myelin
C)membrane; sheath
D)axons; synaptic fluid
Answer: B
Q2) Neurotransmitters have the ability to bind with receptors located on _____ and _____.
Answer: dendrites; cell bodies or somas
Q3) Sex-linked inheritance means which of the following?
A)The gene is on an X or a Y chromosome.
B)The gene is dormant until after puberty.
C)The gene is only inherited by females.
D)The gene is only active in males.
Answer: A
Q4) It is not the strength of the neural message that determines how strongly we experience something, but rather the _____ and the _____.
Answer: speed/rate; number/how many impulses or action potentials
Q5) The peripheral nervous system includes all of the nerves not in _____.
Answer: bone or the skull or backbone/spine
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Q1) Mirabella was eating a delicious scone. In order for her to have perceived the taste of it, the food stimulus had to meet or exceed her _____ threshold.
Answer: absolute
Q2) Compared with people trained to associate words with colors, people with _____ show different brain areas are active when hearing words and seeing colors with them.
A)brain tumors
B)good imaginations
C)synesthesia
D)extrasensory perception
Answer: C
Q3) When Jen looked at the picture, her perception of it kept changing from an Eskimo to a polar bear and back again. It must have been a(n)_____ figure.
A)impossible
B)Ponzo
C)ambiguous
D)reverse
Answer: C
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Q1) Angela has been off cocaine for 6 months. She goes for a salon appointment in the part of town where she used to meet her dealer and suddenly has a strong craving to use again. This is due to the important role _____ plays in addiction.
A)learning
B)access
C)stress
D)emotion
Q2) Why do some individuals claim that people only dream in the REM stage of sleep?
Q3) What two categories of dream content did Sigmund Freud describe?
A)poetic and realistic
B)literal and symbolic
C)latent and manifest
D)delusional and hallucinatory
Q4) Which of the following is classified as a depressant?
A)heroin
B)cocaine
C)alcohol
D)marijuana
Q5) How would an injury to the hypothalamus affect the circadian rhythm?
Q6) Discuss the difference between substance use, abuse and dependence.
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Q1) In a classic experiment, Tolman exposed a group of rats to a maze for 11 days before he introduced a food reward. These rats outperformed rats that had been given daily food rewards. This demonstrates _____
A)latent learning.
B)classical conditioning.
C)operant conditioning.
D)observational learning.
Q2) Would negative reinforcement be a good choice to use when you see your toddler hitting your beloved family pet? Why or why not?
Q3) _____ states that the consequence, or effect, of a response will determine whether the tendency to respond in the same way in the future will be strengthened or weakened.
A)Classical conditioning
B)The effect and reliability hypothesis
C)Insight learning
D)The law of effect
Q4) _____ came up with the law of effect after studying hungry cats in his puzzle box.
Q5) _____ studied insight learning, whereas _____ studied latent learning.
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Q1) Which of the following explains what information-processing theorists mean when they use the term software?
A)the brain structures involved in memory
B)the serial position effect
C)the skull that covers and protects the brain
D)learned memory strategies the positive bias of memory
Q2) _____ is the subsystem within long-term memory that stores motor s, habits, and simple classically conditioned responses.
A)Declarative memory
B)Explicit memory
C)Semantic memory
D)Nondeclarative memory
Q3) Fifteen hours of cramming for a final the day before the exam is an example of _____, whereas devoting an hour per day for 15 days to one of your classes is an example of _____.
Q4) Define and describe dementia. Discuss some of the common causes of dementia and the prevalence of dementia.
Q5) The nondeclarative memory, also called _____ memory, contains motor s habits, and classically-conditioned responses.
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Sample Questions
Q1) List and explain each of the basic components of a language.
Q2) George needs a new car. He heads to the dealership and asks the salesperson for some suggestions of safe and affordable vehicles. The sales person gives George information on six cars. In an effort to decide which car to buy, George decides against any that are out of his price range. Next, he dismisses the cars that have poor fuel efficiency. Lastly, he decides against any of the cars that are not four-wheel drive. In making his decision as to which car to purchase, George has just utilized the _____ approach.
Q3) We now know that IQ scores are _____
A)fixed.
B)not fixed.
C)unchangeable.
D)fixed by age five.
Q4) Like most characteristics of a population, WAIS-IV scores are distributed in a bell or normal curve. Which of the following is an accurate characteristic of those types of curves?
A)Scores are evenly distributed across the population.
B)Scores are clumped around the midpoint.
C)The curve resembles an "S."
D)Scores are more common at the ends of the distribution.
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Q1) According to Erikson, searching for one's identity begins in _____ with the _____ stage.
A)adolescence; industry vs. inferiority
B)adulthood; intimacy vs. isolation
C)early adulthood; generativity vs. shame and doubt
D)adolescence; identity vs. role confusion
Q2) Every time 18-month-old Shayla tried to feed herself, her nanny would tell her to stop and wipe up the mess she had made. Her nanny would then proceed to feed her so the high chair wouldn't get dirty. Which stage of psychosocial development will Shayla likely unsuccessfully resolve?
A)basic trust vs. mistrust
B)intimacy vs. isolation
C)generativity vs. stagnation
D)autonomy vs. shame and doubt
Q3) Lev Vygotsky believed that a child's cognitive development through social interactions was afforded primarily through the medium of _____.
Q4) "You scratch my back and I'll scratch yours" is indicative of the _____ level of moral reasoning.
Q5) Are Kübler-Ross's stages of death and dying universal? Why or why not?
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Q1) Courtney is a gymnast and is preparing to compete in a very difficult and challenging meet. Her friend and fellow gymnast, Luke, suggests that Courtney relax and take her high arousal down a notch to a lower point. However, her coach tries to get her all revved up and excited to compete in the meet. Which of the following will likely be true based on theories of motivation?
A)Courtney should listen to Luke in order to perform at her best level.
B)Courtney should listen to her coach and get as hyped up for her performances as she can.
C)Courtney should weigh what they both have to say, but ultimately listen to her coach.
D)Courtney should ignore Luke's opinion entirely.
Q2) _____ is characterized by a distorted view of one's body, a very low body weight, and a fear of becoming fat.
A)Binge eating disorder
B)Anorexia nervosa
C)Ventromedial hypothalamus damage
D)Bulimia nervosa
Q3) How does Clark Hull's drive-reduction theory rest on the concept of homeostasis?
Q4) Why should we be concerned about a BMI over 30?
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Q1) _____ combines three psychological qualities-commitment, control, and challenge-shared by people who can handle high levels of stress and remain healthy.
A)The Type A behavior pattern
B)Optimism
C)Hardiness
D)The Type B behavior pattern
Q2) _____ is a prolonged and severe stress reaction to a catastrophic event.
A)AIDS-related dementia
B)Posttraumatic stress disorder
C)Substance abuse
D)Major depression
Q3) Through _____, active measures are taken in advance of a potentially stressful situation in order to prevent its occurrence or to minimize its consequences.
A)adaptive coping
B)the primary appraisal
C)emotion-focused coping
D)proactive coping
Q4) Why is feeling that we have some sense of control over our lives so significant?
Q5) Characteristics of Type A behavior pattern include _____, _____, and _____.
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Q1) Does personality change depending on the situation or does it remain stable over time?
Q2) The idea that the environment, behaviors, and cognitive factors all play a mutual role in the development of personality is referred to as _____
A)unconditional positive regard.
B)loci of control.
C)reciprocal determinism.
D)successful resolution of the Oedipus complex.
Q3) According to Freud, the thoughts, feelings, sensations, or memories that a person is not consciously aware of at the moment, but that may be easily brought to consciousness, defines the _____
A)ego ideal.
B)conscious.
C)preconscious.
D)unconscious.
Q4) Describe the purpose of defense mechanisms and describe four defense mechanisms.
Q5) Two of the many characteristics of self-actualizers, according to Abraham Maslow, are _____ and _____.
Q6) Why is Walter Mischel opposed to the five-factor model of personality?
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Q1) To which of the following disorders can the addition of agoraphobia be attached?
A)somatoform disorder
B)major depressive disorder
C)obsessive-compulsive disorder
D)panic disorder
Q2) In _____, people forget their entire identity, travel away from home, and may assume a new identity somewhere else.
Q3) Psychologist Timothy Brown has studied generalized anxiety disorder and social anxiety disorder extensively. He found through his research, and subsequently argued, that generalized anxiety disorder and social phobia are manifestations of which factor on the Big Five theory of personality?
A)psychoticism
B)conscientiousness
C)neuroticism
D)extraversion
Q4) What is the reason that psychologists, psychiatrists, and other mental health professionals use diagnostic categories and labels for psychological disorders?
Q5) Why would a forensic psychologist testify in court?
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Q1) When appropriate and desirable behaviors earn points or tokens that can later be exchanged for rewards, which of the following techniques is being used?
A)systematic desensitization
B)a token economy
C)the empty chair technique
D)participant modeling
Q2) Exposure and response prevention is a behavioral technique that has been successful in treating _____.
Q3) Atypical neuroleptic drugs, such as clozapine, risperidone, and olanzipine, target the neurotransmitters _____ and _____.
Q4) Gestalt therapy was developed by _____
A)Carl Rogers.
B)Albert Bandura.
C)Sigmund Freud.
D)Fritz Perls.
Q5) What is the purpose of Beck's cognitive therapy?
Q6) One of the oldest and best-known self-help groups worldwide is _____, which has been effective in helping its members with addiction.
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Q1) The notion that people tend to have lovers or spouses who are similar to themselves in physical attractiveness and other assets defines the _____
A)halo effect.
B)reciprocity hypothesis.
C)actor-observer effect.
D)matching hypothesis.
Q2) Salvatore wanted to borrow $25 from his mom. Because he was not sure if she would agree, he decided to get creative and asked her for $100. Just as he expected, she replied, "You want to borrow $100? Not a chance." He came back with, "Okay, mom, how about just $25?" He was thrilled, but not surprised, when she agreed. Salvatore just utilized which of the following compliance techniques?
A)foot-in-the-door technique
B)reverse-psychology technique
C)door-in-the-face technique
D)overestimation technique
Q3) Based on your knowledge of social psychology, what factors lead to the development of prejudice and discrimination?
Q4) How can people avoid falling prey to the bystander effect?
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Q1) _____, and _____ are viral sexually transmitted diseases.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Infants as young as 3 months show a gender-based preference for looking at either trucks (boys)or dolls (girls).
B)Boys and girls show no difference in toy preference (dolls or trucks)until about age 4.
C)Children have to be explicitly taught which toys to prefer, dolls for girls and trucks for boys.
D)Until age two, boys and girls both prefer dolls over trucks to play with.
Q3) Evolutionary theory predicts women are less interested in sex, have fewer partners, and are more interested in non-sexual aspects of relationships for what reason?
A)the demands of pregnancy and child-rearing
B)they don't enjoy sex as much as men
C)they have been socialized to be as interested in sex
D)being too interested in sex violates cultural norms for females
Q4) _____ is an irrational hatred or fear of individuals who have a same sex sexual orientation.
Q5) Explain the difference between intersex, transgender, and transexual.
Q6) Gender specific preference between dolls and trucks can be seen during _____.
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