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Psychology 101 provides an introduction to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. Students explore foundational concepts such as perception, learning, memory, motivation, developmental stages, personality, and social interactions. The course also examines the biological basis of behavior, psychological disorders, and approaches to treatment. Emphasis is placed on research methods, critical thinking, and how psychological principles apply to everyday life and other fields of study.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Psychology 9th Edition by James W. Kalat
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Q1) Early psychologists, attempting to measure animal intelligence, found
A) evidence for intelligence only in primates.
B) evidence for intelligence in vertebrates, but not in invertebrates.
C) intelligence was directly related to brain size.
D) animals that seemed very intelligent on some tasks seemed very unintelligent on others.
Answer: D
Q2) Evolutionary explanations
A) are useful only for animal species other than humans.
B) are useful for humans, but not for other species.
C) can account for the physical appearance, but not the behavior, in an animal species.
D) can account for the physical appearance and the behavior in an animal species.
Answer: D
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Q1) Individuals who believe that behavior is primarily determined by one's genetic predispositions likely favor nurture in the nature-nurture debate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Freud's influence on clinical psychology is stronger today than ever before.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A psychologist believes that differences between males and females are due to society's expectations about how boys and girls behave. This psychologist takes the ____________________ viewpoint.
Answer: social
Q4) The mathematical description of the relationship between the physical properties of a stimulus and its perceived properties is called the ____________________. Answer: psychophysical function
Q5) The psychological study of people at work is known as ____________________. Answer: industrial/organizational I/O psychology.
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of an inferential statistic?
A) the p value from a statistical test
B) the mean
C) the median
D) the standard deviation
Answer: A
Q2) The benefit of using an operational definition is that it
A) provides a compromise between competing viewpoints.
B) explains what the term means to the average person.
C) enables investigators to measure a phenomenon.
D) offers a theoretical explanation of the causes of a phenomenon.
Answer: C
Q3) In one word, why did most scientists resist the belief that Clever Hans could do complex mathematics, even before they had a good explanation of what he was actually doing?
A) parsimony
B) randomness
C) statistics
D) correlation
Answer: A
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Q1) A mother is attempting to minimize the number of times that her toddler pulls on his kitty's tail. She wants to assess whether different types of discipline have any effect on his behavior. For three weeks during the month, the mother gives the toddler one week of one specific type of discipline. One week the toddler receives time outs, one week he has a toy taken away, and one week he is told to clean the kitty's bowl for each kitty tail pull. At the end of each week, the mother tallies up the number of kitty tail pulls for the week. Identify the independent variable and the dependent variable.
Q2) Replicable results are those that anyone can obtain, at least approximately, by following the same procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Consider the following set of scores on a quiz: 2, 2, 3, 5, 8. The median for this set of scores is 4.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To say that a theory is ____________________ is to say that it makes simple, acceptable assumptions.
Q5) Mathematical summaries of results are known as ____________________.
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Q1) Action potentials follow the all-or-none law, which means
A) an action potential is either sent or not sent.
B) action potentials are either sent forward or backward.
C) action potentials either travel the axon or the dendrite.
D) the neuron either releases neurotransmitters or hormones.
Q2) If a receptor is thought of as a lock, which of the following might be one type of key?
A) synapse
B) dendrite
C) postsynaptic membrane
D) methamphetamine
Q3) The structure of a neuron, in terms of the shape of its axon and dendrites,
A) remains constant throughout life.
B) is flexible during infancy, and then becomes constant.
C) is flexible until puberty, and then becomes constant.
D) is flexible throughout life.
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Q1) Damage to the prefrontal cortex is likely to produce poor performance on a delayed-response task, which indicates a difficulty in remembering what has just happened.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Damage to the____________________ tends to cause an impairment in planning and organizing movements.
Q3) The basic function of the axon is to receive information from other neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Janet suffers from severe epileptic seizures that are untreatable with medicine. Her doctor decides to perform a callostomy (severing of the corpus callosum). Following surgery, her neuropsychologist conducts some tests to assess the effects of the surgery. During a divided visual field study, Janet is flashed words to both of her visual fields and asked to read the words. When some of the images are flashed, Janet experiences difficulty stating the word that was flashed. Explain which visual field presentation likely causes Janet the most difficulty when asked to state the word that was flashed and why.
Q5) A ____________________ is a junction where one neuron communicates with another.
Q6) Nicotine is classified as a ____________________.
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Q1) A magician has two people concealed in a long wooden box, one whose head and arms stick out of the box, and the other whose legs stick out. When the magician saws between the two people the audience thinks the magician is sawing one person in half. This trick is based primarily on the Gestalt principle of A) proximity.
B) similarity.
C) figure and ground.
D) closure.
Q2) According to the "feature detector" approach to vision, your ability to see a line (or any other pattern) depends on a particular kind of A) social situation.
B) hormone.
C) neuron.
D) attitude.
Q3) Subliminal perception means perceiving
A) stimuli weaker than the sensory threshold.
B) by focusing attention.
C) information without the use of any sense organ.
D) stimuli that might affect your behavior.
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Q1) Imagine that a song has the phrase "buy me" recorded as a backward message. According to the research on subliminal perception, this message is likely to increase music sales for this particular song.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Gradual improvement in the ability to see in dim light is called _____________________.
Q3) As light passes through the eye it is focused by the ____________________, which always focuses light in the same way, and the ____________________, which is flexible and enables focusing on objects at different distances by varying its thickness.
Q4) According to the retinex theory, we perceive color when the cerebral cortex compares various retinal patterns.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The pitch of a sound (e.g., high C or E-flat) depends on the ____________________ of the sound waves.
Q6) The optic nerve exits the retina at the ____________________.
Q7) The ____________________detects the position and acceleration of the head?
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Q1) A genetic difference is largely responsible for the fact that people in some parts of the world consume more dairy products than do people in other parts of the world. How does that gene affect behavior?
A) by altering the taste buds
B) by altering the structure of the lateral hypothalamus in the brain
C) by altering the metabolism of milk sugars
D) by altering the sense of smell
Q2) Parents who set firm rules for their children, without explaining why those rules are good, and who tend to be cold and distant to their children, are known as __________ parents.
A) authoritative
B) authoritarian
C) permissive
D) cohort
Q3) Why is an X-linked recessive gene more likely to exert effects on males than on females?
A) Females have only one X chromosome.
B) Males have only one X chromosome.
C) Genes on the X chromosome are sex-limited.
D) Males have autosomal genes on their Y chromosome.
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Q1) Teenagers who believe in the "personal fable" are especially likely to be cautious individuals and to avoid taking risks.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A research design that combines the advantages of both cross-sectional and longitudinal designs is known as ____________________.
Q3) A mother gives birth to a pair of twins: one boy and one girl. These twins must be dizygotic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An investigator who uses a ____________________ design examines different groups of people at the same time.
Q5) An indifferent parenting style causes children to be impulsive and out-of-control.
A)True B)False
Q6) Genes located on the X chromosome are known as ____________________ genes.
Q7) Newborns who hear the same sound repeatedly show ____________________, which means ____________________.
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Q1) Charles Darwin's theory of evolution inspired psychologists of the early 1900s to study
A) the genetic basis of learning in humans.
B) increases in intelligence from one generation to the next.
C) animal learning and intelligence.
D) the transmission of memories from parent to child.
Q2) In what way do people sometimes make use of an operant-conditioning principle when they try to persuade someone to do something?
A) They set up a fixed-interval schedule of punishment.
B) They demonstrate the desired behavior and hope that the other person will imitate it.
C) They reinforce a small amount of cooperation and work up from there.
D) They set up one stimulus and then follow it immediately with another stimulus.
Q3) The British and American legal systems are similar to radical behaviorism in that both
A) base decisions upon intervening variables.
B) rely on inferred mental events for interpretations.
C) view the individual as more important than the population as a whole.
D) insist upon a description of what an individual did, not why they did it.
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Q1) According to Thorndike, responses that are followed by reinforcement become more probable. He called this the ____________________.
Q2) Modern behaviorists emphasize the role of heredity (genetics) more than the environment in causing behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In operant conditioning, a reinforcer is any stimulus that an organism likes or finds pleasing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Radical behaviorists reject the idea that internal states (such as thoughts and feelings) cause behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Early behaviorism was sometimes referred to as ____________________ psychology.
Q6) Describe the four schedules of reinforcement and give an example of each type of reinforcement schedule.
Q7) In operant conditioning ____________________ occurs if responses stop producing reinforcements.
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Q1) In one recent study relevant to infant amnesia, three-to-four-year-old children could describe an experience that happened a few months ago ONLY IF
A) they had a close and lasting relationship with the researcher.
B) they had a close and warm relationship with their mother.
C) they knew enough words at the time of the original experience.
D) their hippocampus was mature at the time of the questioning.
Q2) If asked to tell your social security number (without looking it up), you are being asked to perform a __________ memory test.
A) recognition
B) cued-recall
C) free recall
D) savings
Q3) Individuals with amnesia typically have problems remembering __________, while their ability to remember __________ remains intact.
A) facts; how to do things
B) how to do things; facts
C) facts; declarative memories
D) implicit memories; facts
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Q1) Remembering how to play the piano is an example of ____________________ memory.
Q2) Free recall, cued recall, recognition, and savings are all tests of explicit memory.
A)True B)False
Q3) One conclusion that emerges from all the research on brain damage and amnesia is that we clearly have different types of memory.
A)True
B)False
Q4) You memorize a list of paired associates including "stone-rock." Later someone asks you what word on the list refers to a kind of music, and you do not think of the word "rock." This result is an example of the ____________________ principle.
Q5) Suppose you were given a list of names that included (among others) people who had been in your fourth-grade class. If you were asked to check off the names of those who were in your class, this would be a ____________________ test of memory.
Q6) Free recall, cued recall, recognition, and savings are tests of ____________________ memory. or
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Q1) At about what age do most children start saying two-word phrases such as "more page"?
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) 3 years
Q2) One factor that sets a limit on the maximum information a speed reader can absorb in a given amount of time is that
A) reading more than 4 words per second causes fatigue of neurons in the visual cortex.
B) reading more than 4 words per second causes fatigue of the eye muscles.
C) it is impossible to read faster than the muscles of speech can produce the equivalent sounds.
D) a person can read only about 11 characters in each fixation of the eyes.
Q3) "Mary chased the man" and "The man was chased by Mary" have
A) a unique transformational grammar.
B) two deep structures but only one surface structure.
C) totally arbitrary speech sounds.
D) two surface structures but only one deep structure.
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Q1) You wait in line for over an hour to buy a movie ticket for the late show. You then learn there is a strong, unpleasant odor in the theatre and that the movie is long and bad. According to the sunk cost effect, you will cut your losses (the money you spent on the ticket) and avoid the movie.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Logan suffers a stroke on the left side of his brain and as a result has a condition characterized by inarticulate speech and difficulties using and understanding grammatical devices. This condition is known as __________ aphasia.
Q3) __________ is characterized by easy distraction, impulsiveness, moodiness, and failure to follow through on plans.
Q4) In general, it is easier to learn a second language during high school once you have mastered grammar for your primary language.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define phoneme and morpheme. Identify the number of phonemes and number of morphemes in the following sentence: "The cat runs quickly."
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Q1) The human genome project allows researchers to search for specific genes that may be important in human intelligence. Which of the following would be the best conclusion for the research findings to date?
A) Research investigating the potential roles of specific genes should begin within the next ten years.
B) Dozens of genes have been found that play some role, none of which produces a very large effect.
C) Researchers have narrowed the search to three genes, one of which is very likely to be the "genius gene."
D) Researchers have just recently found the "genius gene," the one gene that seems to determine a person's intelligence.
Q2) What does it mean to say that a particular test has high predictive validity?
A) The scores enable us to predict performance on some other task.
B) Nearly everyone who takes the test thinks it is fair.
C) Psychologists have measured the mean and the standard deviation for a large, randomly chosen population.
D) People who take the test repeatedly get approximately the same scores each time.
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Q1) Raven's Progressive Matrices test is designed to reduce the influence of ____________________ on test scores.
Q2) To get separate scores on a number of separate abilities, use the ____________________ IQ test. To measure abilities more fairly in people who do not speak English, use the ____________________ test.
Q3) Contemporary intelligence researchers such as Howard Gardner and Robert Sternberg have proposed theories claiming there are many different kinds of intelligence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ is a possible explanation for the Flynn effect.
Q5) Sternberg has developed a newer distinction among types of intelligence: analytical, creative, and ____________________.
Q6) Standard IQ tests attempt to measure crystallized intelligence.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Sternberg has identified three types of intelligence: practical, creative, and ____________________.
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Q1) The main similarity between hypnosis and dreams is that in both of them,
A) the person is in REM sleep.
B) the muscles are totally relaxed.
C) the person accepts contradictory information without protest.
D) the person feels no pain.
Q2) According to the activation-synthesis theory, dreaming is
A) a manifestation of a person's unconscious thought and motives.
B) your brain's attempt to prevent or decrease PGO waves.
C) a time of memory consolidation and removal.
D) your brain's effort to make sense of spontaneous sensory activity.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of REM sleep?
A) The eyes move about.
B) The brain is more active than during other stages of sleep.
C) Heart rate and breathing rate are very low and steady.
D) The major postural muscles are relaxed.
Q4) Research indicates that the most common emotion in dreams of adults is?
A) happiness or contentment.
B) frustration, especially sexual frustration.
C) fear or apprehension.
D) curiosity about whether the dream is in color.
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Q1) You are the president of a company in the United States, and you are negotiating with a company on the other side of the world. Given the research on jet lag, you should schedule a meeting somewhere in Europe to give your company the greatest advantage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nightmares occur mostly during ____________________ sleep, night terrors occur during ____________________ sleep.
Q3) Research suggests that people engage in unconscious processing prior to making a conscious decision.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Memories recalled under hypnosis are more accurate than ordinary memories.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Spatial neglect occurs in certain cases where there is damage to parts of the right hemisphere, spatial neglect is rare when there is damage to the left hemisphere. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Alfred Kinsey found that most people have the following misconception about sexual behavior:
A) Most people underestimated the variability of human sexual behavior.
B) Most people underestimated the risks associated with masturbation.
C) Most people overestimated the frequency of homosexual behavior.
D) Most people overestimated the differences in sexual customs among human societies.
Q2) If a fetus is exposed to low levels of both estrogen and testosterone during early development, its sexual anatomy will develop appearing
A) similar to that of a male.
B) similar to that of a female.
C) about halfway between male and female.
D) either male or female, depending on the chromosomes.
Q3) Which kind of people are most likely to gain weight?
A) people with anxiety problems
B) people who crave salt
C) people with depression and anger
D) people who expend little energy
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Q1) Abraham Maslow proposed that we resolve conflicts by a hierarchy of needs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bulimics are most often ____________________ , anorexics are most often ____________________.
Q3) An internally generated tendency toward vigorous activity is known as ____________________, an external stimulus that pulls us toward a particular activity is known as ____________________.
Q4) A motivation to engage in an act for its own sake is called _________.
Q5) Shelley is trying to lose some weight before Spring Break. She is reading her textbook trying to figure out what the keys are for successfully meeting her goal. What conditions would Shelley need to consider in order to increase the likelihood of meeting her goal?
Q6) An important source of energy for all parts of the body, and the main source of energy for the brain, is ____________________.
Q7) Maintaining stability of temperature, body weight, body water, and other biological conditions is known as ____________________.
Q8) Job satisfaction is ____________________ correlated with job performance.
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Q1) During prolonged, moderate arousal people tend to show an increase in A) activity.
B) concentration.
C) performance.
D) cotisol.
Q2) What emotion word literally means "bad taste"?
A) disgust
B) contempt
C) offensive
D) frustration
Q3) If we compare people from a variety of cultures, we find little or no difference in A) frequencies of various sexual behaviors.
B) prevalence of aggressive and violent behaviors.
C) the meaning of the eyebrow-raising expression.
D) reported levels of subjective well-being.
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Q1) You are going to show someone a picture that might arouse anger. The experience of anger will probably be greater if you mold the person's face into a ____________________ before showing the picture.
Q2) Researchers have linked violence to childhood maltreatment in combination with one form of the gene controlling the brain protein ____________________.
Q3) The ____________________ test records indications of sympathetic nervous system arousal, such as blood pressure, heart rate, breathing rate, and electrical conduction of the skin.
Q4) One of the strongest predictors of who will behave violently is mental illness: people with a history of mental illness are more likely to be violent.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Activity of the ____________________ decreases heart rate and increases digestion.
Q6) People who commit acts of violence typically score low on measures of self-esteem.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) After people have agreed to a small request,
A) they cancel their agreement to the small request if anyone suggests a larger request.
B) their probability of agreeing to a large request is not affected.
C) they become more likely to agree to a large request.
D) they become less likely to agree to a large request.
Q2) According to the theory of cognitive dissonance, people try to A) gain as much information as they can before they form an opinion.
B) find ways to convert their attitudes into action.
C) minimize the conflict between their contradictory attitudes.
D) associate with people whose opinions are different from their own.
Q3) A basketball game ends with a score of 155-13. The fans who paid to see the game say it was exciting, but those who got in free say it was boring. What psychological principle is probably responsible for the difference in reactions?
A) attributional bias
B) group polarization effect
C) the collective unconscious
D) cognitive dissonance
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Q1) ____________________ is defined as the behavior of helping others despite some cost or risk to oneself.
Q2) Social perception and ____________________ are the processes we use to learn about others and make inferences from that information.
Q3) Your professor is passing back exams, and as you are waiting to receive your exam, you notice that the student sitting next to you has a big, red "F" at the top of her exam. You think, "Wow, this must have been a really difficult exam." Your thinking illustrates the fundamental attribution error.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hank falls to the sidewalk among many other pedestrians-he's having a heart attack! Harry falls to the sidewalk in the presence of just one other pedestrian-he's having a heart attack! Hank is more likely to receive help than Harry is.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Social psychologists use the term ____________________ to describe a situation in which people say nothing and each person falsely assumes that others have a better-informed opinion.
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Q1) People high in the trait __________ generally trust each other and expect other people to trust them.
A) neuroticism
B) extraversion
C) agreeableness
D) conscientiousness
Q2) How would Sigmund Freud explain why some person has lasting concerns about dependence and independence?
A) The person has a strong id and a weak superego.
B) The person has a very high level of libido.
C) The person is engaging in projection and rationalization.
D) The person had a fixation during the oral stage.
Q3) Herman, who is often dishonest, claims that most people are liars. Of the following, which is the most likely explanation or description of why he makes that claim?
A) regression
B) repression
C) reaction formation
D) projection
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Q1) Striving for success is to ____________________ as collective unconscious is to ____________________.
Q2) The approach to the study of individual differences that seeks general laws about how some aspect of personality affect behavior is the ____________________ approach.
Q3) You describe a friend as being friendly, energetic, and having a good sense of humor. This description would be consistent with the ____________________ approach to personality.
Q4) The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is a test of normal personality, loosely based on ____________________ theories.
Q5) Attributing one's own undesirable characteristics to other people is known as projection.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The Rorschach Inkblot test rarely gives unique information about a person that could not be easily obtained through other methods.
A)True
B)False
Q7) According to humanistic psychology, the goal of life is ____________________.
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of prevention?
A) banning lead and other toxic substances that can damage the brain
B) relieving schizophrenia by providing drugs that alter brain activity
C) hospitalizing depressed people to prevent them from having additional depressing experiences
D) providing counseling to prevent young alcoholics from developing a more serious problem
Q2) "Medical students' disease" is
A) a viral disease frequently contracted by medical students who work extensively with cadavers.
B) a psychological disorder doctors at teaching hospitals get from the stress of working with too many first-year interns.
C) the false belief that you are a medical student.
D) the false belief that you have some dreaded condition that you have just learned about.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of all people with any psychiatric diagnosis, nearly ____________________ qualify for at least one additional diagnosis.
Q2) The early pioneers of psychotherapy almost exclusively saw their clients individually. While individual treatment has advantages, such as privacy, treating people in groups has become increasingly common. Describe briefly the advantage of group therapy and two common types of group therapy; self-help groups and family systems therapy.
Q3) Over the years, people have had many views of what abnormal behavior is, and what causes it. One recurrent idea is demon possession, a popular idea in medieval Europe and still a widespread idea in much of the world today.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In psychoanalysis, ____________________ is an attempt to gain access to the unconscious.
Q5) It is possible for a cognitive therapist to practice family systems therapy simultaneously.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ____________________ means the removal of patients from mental hospitals.
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Q1) One reason why people are more likely to develop a phobia of spiders than a phobia of cars is that
A) people have more safe experiences with cars than with spiders.
B) more people are injured by spiders than by cars.
C) automobile advertisements reassure people that cars are safe.
D) it is easier to predict or control what spiders will do than what cars will do.
Q2) A delusion of grandeur is an unjustified belief that one is
A) the intended recipient of coded information in everything one reads.
B) unusually important.
C) being controlled by alien forces.
D) being persecuted.
Q3) Drugs that help to relieve symptoms of schizophrenia include
A) Antabuse and methadone.
B) tricyclic drugs and monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
C) Valium and Librium.
D) chlorpromazine and haloperidol.
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Sample Questions
Q1) In John B. Watson's analysis of phobia learning, the conditioned stimulus was ____________________ and the unconditioned stimulus was _____________________.
Q2) Addicted drug users rarely get intense pleasure, also called ____________________, from a drug, but they continue to ____________________ anyway.
Q3) The widely misunderstood term schizophrenia is based on Greek roots meaning "split mind." To be diagnosed with schizophrenia, according to DSM-IV, someone must exhibit a deterioration of daily activities, including work, social relations, and self-care. He or she must also exhibit at least two additional symptoms out of a list of five possible types of symptoms. Name three of the five symptoms and describe the difference between positive and negative symptoms.
Q4) On the average, antidepressant medications are more effective than the known types of psychotherapy in treating depression.
A)True
B)False
Q5) People who suffer from ____________________ typically enter REM sleep much more quickly than normal after falling asleep.
Q6) A key symptom of panic disorder is ____________________.
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Q1) Which form of psychotherapy resembles the process of extinguishing a learned response?
A) Gestalt therapy
B) person-centered therapy
C) transactional analysis
D) systematic desensitization
Q2) Both antidepressant and antipsychotic drugs alter the activity of the nervous system by
A) preventing sodium ions from crossing neuron membranes.
B) altering the ratio of neurons to glia.
C) increasing the ability of glucose to enter neurons.
D) altering transmission at synapses.
Q3) According to Freud, if parents are either too strict or too lenient in the way they toilet train their child, the child will become either stingy and stubborn or messy and wasteful.
Critics say this is not a good scientific theory because it is NOT
A) heuristic.
B) falsifiable.
C) correlational.
D) psychoanalytic.
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