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This course provides an in-depth exploration of major psychological theories that have shaped the field of psychology, including psychoanalytic, behavioral, cognitive, humanistic, and biological perspectives. Students will examine the historical development, core concepts, and key contributors associated with each theory. Through analysis and comparison, the course emphasizes how these frameworks explain human behavior, emotion, and thought processes. Real-world applications and contemporary interpretations of classic theories are discussed, equipping students with a strong foundation for further study and practical understanding of psychological principles.
Recommended Textbook
Theories of Personality 7th Edition by Jess Feist
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Q1) A theory may be set aside when it
A)generates testable hypotheses.
B)explains a set of observations.
C)is proven by experimentation.
D)loses its usefulness.
Answer: D
Q2) Psychologists generally agree that personality
A)refers mostly to surface traits.
B)is largely inherited.
C)can be explained by several different theories.
D)can best be explained by a single theory.
Answer: C
Q3) A researcher uses the number of times a person smiles at others as a measure of friendliness.This an example of A)an operational definition.
B)hypothesis testing.
C)parsimony.
D)internal consistency.
Answer: A
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Q1) Although Freud's theory rates somewhat high on its ability to generate research, it rates low on
A)biological influences on the personality.
B)falsifiability and operational definitions.
C)unconscious determinants of behavior.
D)all of these.
E)none of these.
Answer: B
Q2) Freud's notion of the superego includes
A)conscious and preconscious levels.
B)pleasure and reality principles.
C)the ego and the id.
D)a conscience and an ego-ideal.
Answer: D
Q3) Freud believed that parapraxes, or "Freudian slips,"
A)revealed unconscious intent.
B)had no psychological meaning.
C)demonstrated a dominant preconscious intention.
D)were due to fatigue.
Answer: A
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Q1) According to Adler,
A)the psychic lives of men and women are fundamentally different.
B)only men overemphasize the importance of being manly.
C)women's inferior place in society is biological.
D)All of these are correct.
E)None of these is correct.
Answer: E
Q2) According to Adler, the goal toward which a psychologically healthy person strives is A)fictional, with no objective existence.
B)the creation of one's conscious thought.
C)largely conscious or known to that person.
D)shaped mostly by the person's birth order.
E)All of these are correct.
Answer: A
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Q1) The great mother is Jung's archetype of A)farmers and ranchers.
B)nourishment and destruction.
C)children.
D)thinking and opinions.
Q2) The mandala represents Jung's ______ archetype.
A)self
B)hero
C)ego
D)wise old man
E)great mother
Q3) Jung called an inclination to act or react in a characteristic direction
A)a function.
B)an attitude.
C)a type.
D)a complex.
E)an archetype.
Q4) List and briefly describe Jung's most important archetypes.
Q5) Discuss Jung's notion of extraversion and introversion.
Q6) Describe Jung's levels of the psyche.
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Q1) Klein's notion of the Oedipus complex differed from Freud's in that it
A)includes fear of parents' retaliation for phantasies of emptying their bodies.
B)takes place at a later time period during the individual's life than Freud said.
C)includes hostile feelings only.
D)includes sexual feelings only.
E)is the origin of the development of the superego.
Q2) When object relations theory is applied to explaining the formation of eating disorders,
A)securely attached children are slightly more likely to develop bulimia.
B)anorexia was associated with overseparation (detachment) of children from their parents.
C)inconsistent caregivers create anxiety, so an individual sees food as a means of comfort.
D)None of these is correct.
Q3) In contrast to Freud, Klein believed that the superego
A)emerged during adolescence.
B)grows out of the Oedipus complex.
C)precedes the development of the ego.
D)is much more harsh and cruel.
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Q1) Those individuals who adopt Horney's neurotic trend of moving away from people typically fear
A)needing others.
B)dependence upon others.
C)competition.
D)All of these are correct.
E)None of these is correct.
Q2) Kip seeks out powerful people to be his friends.Horney would say that Kip's needs for a powerful partner
A)are signs of high self-esteem.
B)are needs that are neurotic.
C)produce basic anxiety.
D)will result in shame and guilt.
Q3) According to Horney, aggressive people assume that other people are A)helpless.
B)hostile.
C)superior to them.
D)inferior to them.
Q4) Discuss Horney's concepts of neurotic needs and neurotic trends.
Q5) Discuss Horney's criticism of Freud.

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Q1) For Fromm, basic anxiety is a feeling of A)malignant aggression.
B)being alone in the world.
C)being judged by others.
D)being unable to achieve one's goals.
Q2) Tracy perceives everything that belongs to her as valuable and everything that belongs to others as having little value.Fromm would say Tracy is suffering from A)necrophilia.
B)malignant narcissism.
C)incestuous symbiosis.
D)moral hypochondriasis.
E)existential dilemma.
Q3) As a scientific theory, Erich Fromm's humanistic psychoanalysis rates
A)high on falsifiability.
B)low as a generator of empirical research.
C)high as a guide to parents and teachers.
D)high in parsimony.
Q4) List and discuss Fromm's nonproductive and productive character orientations.
Q5) Discuss Fromm's five human, or existential, needs.
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Q1) Sullivan believed that intimacy should develop during A)infancy.
B)childhood.
C)the juvenile era.
D)preadolescence.
E)early adolescence.
Q2) According to Sullivan, lust interferes with security because A)lust can be successfully dissociated.
B)one cannot selectively inattend to zonal needs.
C)the energy of lust is directly transformed into anxiety.
D)genital activity is related to guilt, shame, and anxiety.
Q3) To Sullivan, the most basic interpersonal need is A)tenderness.
B)euphoria.
C)food.
D)lust.
E)intimacy.
Q4) Distinguish between Sullivan's concepts of intimacy and lust.
Q5) Enumerate and discuss the basic Sullivanian epochs.
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Q1) Erikson found that the prolonged and permissive nursing of Sioux infants resulted in ____________ character traits.
A)oral
B)anal
C)phallic
D)infantile
E)latency
Q2) Tyler is sensitive to his infant daughter's needs.According to Erikson, because he meets those needs in a reliable and consistent manner, he is helping his daughter learn
A)dependence.
B)basic mistrust.
C)sensory trust.
D)hope.
E)basic trust.
Q3) The core pathology of young adulthood, according to Erikson, is A)exclusivity.
B)isolation.
C)stagnation.
D)selfishness.
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Q1) For Maslow, coping behavior is usually A)learned.
B)conscious.
C)effortful.
D)All the above are correct.
Q2) According to Maslow, ______ behavior is usually unlearned, spontaneous, and determined by forces within the person rather than by the environment.
A)expressive
B)neurotic
C)coping
D)actualizing
E)Taoistic
Q3) Maslow's feelings toward his mother were marked by A)hatred and animosity.
B)affection and respect.
C)a clinging dependence.
D)indifference.
E)B-love.
Q4) List and explain the five needs in Maslow's hierarchy.
Q5) Discuss Maslow's concept of conative, aesthetic, cognitive, and neurotic needs.
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Q1) Rogers believed that infants evaluate their experiences as positive or negative by the criteria of
A)the formative tendency.
B)the actualization tendency.
C)the self-actualization tendency.
D)the ideal self.
E)their parents' ideals.
Q2) Rogers said that an established self-concept
A)facilitates psychological growth.
B)is usually congruent with the organismic self.
C)is ordinarily more inflated than the ideal self.
D)renders change and growth more difficult.
Q3) To Rogers, congruent people are
A)almost perfectly adjusted to their environment.
B)aware of and able to express their feelings.
C)not completely adjusted to their environment.
D)unmotivated.
Q4) Describe Rogers's concepts of the formative and actualizing tendencies.
Q5) Describe Rogers' notion of the self and self-actualization.
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Q1) May's childhood was marked by
A)closeness to both parents.
B)parental emphasis on educational achievements.
C)a particularly loving relationship with his mother.
D)parental arguments and family strife.
Q2) From an existential perspective, people acquire freedom of action
A)through expanding their self-awareness.
B)by assuming responsibility for their actions.
C)by minimizing the anxiety associated with their actions.
D)All the above are correct.
E)Only a and b are correct.
Q3) For May, "the endeavor to understand [people] by cutting below the cleavage between subject and object" defines
A)existence.
B)essence.
C)authenticity.
D)existentialism.
E)anxiety.
Q4) List and define the four forms of love, as seen by Rollo May.
Q5) Define and explain being-in-the-world and nonbeing
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Q1) For Allport, common traits
A)are shared by several people.
B)can be used for intraindividual comparisons.
C)are more important than personal traits.
D)All of these are correct.
Q2) Allport believed that people are motivated primarily by
A)the single need for self-actualization.
B)the need for sex and the need for aggression.
C)the need to adjust and the need to grow.
D)the need to gain superiority over others.
Q3) Allport called theories in which people are seen as being motivated primarily by needs to reduce tension and to return to a state of equilibrium as
A)proactive theories.
B)retroactive theories.
C)reactive theories.
D)eclectic theories.
Q4) Discuss Allport's concept of the psychologically healthy personality.
Q5) Describe Allport's theory of motivation through the concept of functional autonomy and give examples of functionally autonomous behaviors.
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Q1) A major thrust of Eysenck's theory is that personality results from the basic genetic and neurophysiological makeup of humans.Which biological research findings support this assertion?
A)Cortical arousal and sensory stimulation levels match certain personality traits.
B)Identical twins are much more likely to have the same basic trait orientations.
C)Extraverts tend to think faster than introverts.
D)Introverts were found to outperform extraverts on tasks involving motoric response rates.
Q2) Eysenck's three general types or superfactors are
A)bipolar factors.
B)unique surface traits.
C)pathological factors.
D)surface traits.
Q3) An example of a unipolar trait would be
A)extraversion/introversion.
B)dominance versus submission.
C)Eysenck's P (psychoticism).
D)height or weight.
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Q1) Negative reinforcement and punishment are similar in that they both
A)strengthen a response.
B)weaken a response.
C)involve aversive stimuli.
D)have unpredictable effects on behavior.
Q2) Unlike punishment, reinforcement
A)cannot derive from natural consequences.
B)can derive from human intervention.
C)gives information as to desired behavior.
D)involves adding a negative stimuli or removing a positive stimuli.
E)can be used to control behavior.
Q3) Concerning emotions, Skinner believed all EXCEPT which of the following?
A)A person's emotions are not directly observable to others.
B)The physical concomitants of emotions can be measured.
C)A majority of human behaviors are the result of emotions.
D)Emotions are subjectively real to the person ing them.
E)Pleasant emotions tend to be reinforcing for an individual.
Q4) Discuss Skinner's philosophy of science as it applies to the study of human behavior.
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Q1) Bandura sees dysfunctional behaviors as
A)expressions of a frustrated drive toward dominance or power.
B)character weaknesses.
C)strivings for self-fulfillment.
D)initiated and maintained based on social learning principles.
Q2) In Bandura's view, self-efficacy is most likely to be increased when
A)failure strengthens one's determination to succeed on future projects.
B)one successfully performs a difficult task.
C)one's best efforts fall a little short of success.
D)one observes others failing at a task.
Q3) Bandura believes that
A)self-efficacy and self-concept are synonymous.
B)self-efficacy is another term for locus of control.
C)people have different levels of self-efficacy in different situations.
D)high levels of self-efficacy generalize to widely different situations.
Q4) Bandura calls the capacity to exercise control over our lives
A)internal locus of control.
B)free will.
C)human agency.
D)external locus of control.

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Q1) Mischel's early research led him to believe that behavior is mostly a function of A)fortuitous events.
B)the situation.
C)stable personal traits.
D)motivation.
E)none of these.
Q2) A study by Wright and Mischel asked children and adults to report everything they knew about certain groups of children.Findings from this research suggested that A)children were more likely than adults to give specific predictions of behavior of the target group of children.
B)adults were more likely than children to hedge their descriptions of behavior of the target group of children.
C)neither children nor adults were able to predict the behavior of the target group of children.
D)both children and adults recognized the interrelationship between situations and behavior.
Q3) List Rotter's four variables of prediction and briefly define each of them.
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Q1) Kelly's fragmentation corollary
A)assumes the rigidity of behavior.
B)accounts for all behaviors not explained by his other corollaries.
C)is his fundamental postulate.
D)accounts for people holding seemingly incompatible constructs.
Q2) accurately predicted that
A)those using gender most were more likely to stereotype.
B)women were more likely to employ stereotypes than men.
C)men were more likely to employ stereotypes than women.
D)none of these.
Q3) According to Kelly, people's processes will be psychologically similar if these people
A)experience the same event.
B)experience a similar but not identical event.
C)construe similar events differently.
D)construe events in a similar manner.
Q4) Discuss Kelly's philosophical position.
Q5) Define Kelly's concept of role, including core role.
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Q6) Discuss the fundamental postulate of Kelly's theory.
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