Psychological Science
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Psychological Science is an introductory course that explores the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. Students will examine foundational concepts, research methods, and key findings in psychology, covering topics such as biological bases of behavior, cognition, emotion, development, personality, psychological disorders, and social interactions. Emphasis is placed on understanding how empirical evidence informs psychological theories and practices, as well as the practical applications of psychology in everyday life. Through critical analysis and case studies, students will develop scientific literacy and an appreciation for the complexity of human thought and behavior.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Psychology Gateways to Mind and Behavior 13th Edition by Dennis Coon
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A: Introduction to Psychology and Research
Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Critical thinking is used in psychology to evaluate theories by collecting A) introspective analyses.
B) empirical evidence.
C) intuitive data.
D) expert opinions.
Answer: B
Q2) When a psychologist uses scientific observation,these observations must
A) involve logic and common-sense reasoning.
B) be conducted using animals rather than humans.
C) be carefully planned and able to be confirmed by more than one observer.
D) involve all of these.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following best describes Maslow's concept of self-actualization?
A) the need to protect one's self-image through self-deception
B) the need to have a higher self-esteem
C) the need to develop one's potential fully
D) the need for power
Answer: C
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Chapter 1: B: Introduction to Psychology and Research
Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychologists who want to make measurements to discover relationships between events use a technique called
A) the clinical method.
B) the correlational method.
C) the survey method.
D) naturalistic observation.
Answer: B
Q2) Which contemporary view in psychology sees behavior in terms of the mental processing of information?
A) cognitive
B) humanistic
C) behavioristic
D) biopsychological
Answer: A
Q3) Those who label themselves as "basic researchers"
A) seek information for which immediate uses are planned.
B) probably are involved in directly counseling patients in a clinic.
C) are applying psychological skills in a job situation.
D) seek knowledge for its own sake.
Answer: D
Page 4
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Chapter 1: C: Introduction to Psychology and Research
Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the advertising by psychic advisors?
A) No one has passed the preliminary tests set up by James Randi's Million Dollar Challenge to demonstrate psychic abilities under controlled conditions.
B) Usually psychic advisor ads are promoted with a few testimonials and many Unsupported claims.
C) Unlike psychic advisors, stage mentalists do not use deception with their audiences or In advertising.
D) Psychic advisers promoted in TV commercials make use of the Barnum effect.
Answer: C
Q2) Decreases in one measure are matched by increases in the other measure in a A) nonexistent relationship.
B) positive correlation.
C) negative correlation.
D) zero correlation.
Answer: C
Q3) The heart of critical thinking is a willingness to actively __________ on ideas
Answer: reflect
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Chapter 2: A: Brain and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following parts of the brain looks like a small bump on the brainstem and acts as a bridge between the medulla and other brain areas?
A) pons
B) hippocampus
C) hypothalamus
D) limbic system
Q2) According to Haier's PET scan research,persons who do well on difficult reasoning tests have brains that
A) are the most active and consume the most glucose.
B) consume the least glucose.
C) have the largest corpus callosums.
D) are the easiest to study using EEGs.
Q3) Which brain area receives incoming messages from the sense organs and bombards the cortex with stimulation,keeping the brain active and alert?
A) thalamus
B) medulla
C) reticular activating system
D) limbic system
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Chapter 2: C: Brain and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Latin word for "right" means
A) lucky.
B) dominant.
C) dexterous.
D) skillful.
Q2) The hippocampus is the master control center for hunger,thirst,and other basic motives.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Regarding anabolic steroid use,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Anabolic steroids can result in sexual impotence and breast enlargement in men.
B) Almost all of the major sports organizations have banned the use of anabolic steroids by athletes.
C) Young adolescents who use anabolic steroids have an increased risk of heart attack, stroke, liver damage, and stunted growth.
D) Anabolic steroids are a synthetic version of epinephrine.
Q4) Touch,temperature,pressure,and other bodily sensations are channeled to the somatosensory area of the brain lobes known as the __________lobes.
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Chapter 3: A: Human Development
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Q1) Parents who view their children as having few rights but adult-like responsibilities are referred to as __________ parents.
A) overly permissive
B) authoritarian
C) authoritative
D) autonomous
Q2) Bruce has a dominant gene for brown eyes and a recessive gene for blue eyes.Bruce's eye color would be
A) green
B) brown
C) blue
D) impossible to predict
Q3) A teratogen is
A) another name for a genetic defect.
B) the cause of cystic fibrosis and sickle-cell anemia.
C) any substance capable of causing birth defects.
D) characterized by all of these.
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Page 8
Chapter 3: B: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child's intelligence,thinking,and understanding of the world differs from an adult's in that
A) a child's thinking is more abstract.
B) a child uses more generalizations and principles.
C) a child uses particular examples and objects they can see or touch.
D) intelligence is crystallized in children and fluid in adults.
Q2) During the formal operations stage,children begin to
A) accurately use concepts of time, space, and number.
B) think primarily about concrete objects or situations.
C) develop the concept of object permanency.
D) think in terms of abstract principles and hypothetical possibilities.
Q3) Children's thinking develops through dialogues with more capable people,according to the sociocultural theory of
A) Jean Piaget.
B) Mary Ainsworth.
C) Lev Vygotsky.
D) Diana Baumrind.
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9
Chapter 3: C: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies suggest that the healthiest,happiest older people
A) show more gratitude and forgiveness.
B) decrease their activity to a slower pace.
C) decrease the number of social activities.
D) show less empathy for others and more concern for self.
Q2) Discrimination or prejudice on the basis of age is called A) geriatrics.
B) chronological prejudice.
C) ageism.
D) senility.
Q3) Career difficulties and unemployment can pose serious challenges to adult well-being not only because of financial pressures but also because many adults derive which of the following from their work?
A) friendships.
B) identity.
C) creativity
D) structure and stability.
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Chapter 3: D: Human Development
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Q1) According to Kohlberg,older children and most adults exhibit moral development at the __________ level.
Q2) According to Kübler-Ross,the generally-accepted order of emotional reactions in preparing for death is anger,depression,bargaining,denial and isolation,and acceptance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Abby's mother has watched Abby progress in her development from attempting to pick up a ball using her arms and torso,to using her whole hands,and finally to using her fingertips.This is an example of cephalocaudal development.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When presented with "The Porcupine and the Moles" story,the girls in Gilligan's study tended to use the ethic of caring,while the boys used justice to solve the moral problem.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A time of increased susceptibility to both positive and negative environmental influences is called a(n)__________.
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Page 11
Chapter 4: A: Sensation and Perception
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Q1) Complete color blindness results in a perception of the world only in black and white and is a result of
A) cones that are missing or function abnormally.
B) rods that fail to function under higher levels of illumination.
C) excessive pigmentation of the cornea.
D) a lens that has lost its elasticity and can no longer focus the image appropriately on the retina.
Q2) The physical "height" of a sound wave that tells how much energy the wave contains is called
A) amplitude.
B) frequency.
C) compression.
D) rarefaction.
Q3) The ears of bats can transduce and hear sound waves that humans cannot.This allows them to fly in complete darkness by using A) feature detectors.
B) depth cues.
C) hyperopia.
D) echolocation.
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Page 12
Chapter 4: B: Sensation and Perception
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Q1) Having burn patients focus on video games while their bandages are being changed is a good example of how pain can be reduced through
A) distraction.
B) counterirritation.
C) systematic desensitization.
D) the paradoxical intention.
Q2) Compared to the pad of the thumb,a square centimeter area behind the knee would have __________ pain points.
A) significantly fewer
B) slightly fewer
C) more
D) the same number of
Q3) You have a craving for ice cream.In the lunch room,you see a large bowl of pistachio ice cream.Excitedly,you run up to the bowl,only to find that it smells like tuna and is,in fact,a large bowl of tuna fish.You have just experienced
A) sensory adaptation.
B) the Gestalt notion of similarity.
C) the failure of a perceptual hypothesis.
D) camouflage interfering with figure-ground organization.
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Page 13
Chapter 4: C: Sensation and Perception
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Q1) Advertisers would love you if they heard you humming their jingle in the shower because you have fallen prey to an attention-getting device called A) brightness.
B) motion.
C) contrast.
D) repetition.
Q2) A general conclusion that one might draw from the relationship between Zulu experiences and their perception of the Müller-Lyer illusion is that A) past experience and perceptual habits play a role in determining human perception.
B) some principles of perception are universal.
C) people cannot trust their own senses because they can never provide completely reliable knowledge.
D) perception has a more powerful effect on experience than experience on perception.
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14
Chapter 4: D: Sensation and Perception
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Q1) Much of the apparent depth of a good movie comes from the relative motion captured by the camera,a feature also known as ___________.
Q2) With regard to eyewitness testimony,a victim's testimony is usually more accurate than individuals who just observed the event occurring. A)True B)False
Q3) According to psychologist Richard Nisbett and his colleagues,people from different cultures do perceive the world differently.Describe the different ways in which European Americans and Asians perceive the world differently and include the results of research studies conducted on this subject.
Q4) Gina finds a plain brown box in which there are many puzzle pieces.She begins putting these pieces together without knowing what this puzzle will "become." She is using __________ processing.
Q5) The somesthetic sense that results from the receptors in the muscles and joints responding to movement is the __________ sense.
Q6) Eyewitnesses sometimes identify as a culprit someone they have seen in another situation or context,which is referred to as __________.
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Page 15
Chapter 5: A: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jet lag and changes in shift work would most likely precipitate which sleep disturbance?
A) narcolepsy
B) sleep apnea
C) sleep drunkenness
D) sleep-wake schedule disorder
Q2) Sleep spindles are short bursts of brain activity generated by the A) amygdala.
B) thalamus.
C) reticular formation.
D) corpus callosum.
Q3) To be conscious means
A) that one is awake.
B) that one is aware.
C) that one is completely alert.
D) none of these.
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Chapter 5: B: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding addictive drugs,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) None of the addictive drugs have legitimate or healthful uses.
B) Some addictive drugs have been used for centuries in various cultures, in a search of insight.
C) Drugs most likely to lead to physical dependence are alcohol, amphetamines, barbiturates, cocaine, codeine, heroin, methadone, morphine, and nicotine.
D) Any psychoactive drug can result in a psychological dependence.
Q2) Which of the following best describes how people dream?
A) People experience two 15-minute dream episodes per night.
B) People dream about four or five times a night, with dreams spaced 90 minutes apart.
C) People have more dreams during NREM sleep than during REM sleep.
D) People dream only during the third cycle of sleep before they awaken in the morning.
Q3) The effects of meditation include all of the following EXCEPT
A) decreased immune system activity.
B) lowered heart rate.
C) increased muscle relaxation.
D) decreased blood pressure.
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Page 17
Chapter 5: C: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to nicotine,cigarettes release carcinogens.which are
A) addictive substances.
B) sedative-hypnotic drugs.
C) cancer-causing substances.
D) respiratory irritants.
Q2) In order to conclude or carry a dream on to a more meaningful ending,a person may use an interesting dream exercise
A) called secondary displacement.
B) involving the sublimation of dream imagery.
C) in which one continues the dream as a waking fantasy.
D) in which one dissects the dream and reconstitutes it in as many different forms as possible.
Q3) When a person is drunk,only the most obvious and immediate stimuli tends to catch a drinker's attention with normal restraint banished from the drinker's mind.Thus,many behaviors become more extreme when a person is drunk due to this
A) alcohol myopia.
B) binge drinking.
C) divergent thinking.
D) alcohol psychosis.
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Page 18
Chapter 5: D: States of Consciousness
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Q1) Describe Sigmund Freud's four dream processes and give an example of each.
Q2) Aaron is trying to go to sleep,so he keeps his eyes wide open (in the dark)and stays awake as long as possible.This will allow sleep to overtake him unexpectedly and lowers his performance anxiety through a technique known as the __________.
Q3) During the teen years,rapid physical changes during puberty increase the need for sleep,while overall sleep time decreases,resulting in most adolescents experiencing excessive daytime sleepiness known as __________.
Q4) A dreamer wakes within the dream and feels capable of normal thought and action during the state known as __________ dreaming.
Q5) You tie a short length of string to a small ring and hold this ring at eye level,about a foot from your face.By focusing on the ring,you are able to make the ring swing back and forth.You are surprised by this automatic micromovement of your fingers.You most likely have experienced a(n)__________.
Q6) Downing five or more drinks in a short period of time for men and four or more drinks for women is referred to as __________.
Q7) Some physicians believe that SIDS,or crib death,may be caused by the sleep disorder known as __________.
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Chapter 6: A: Conditioning and Learning
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Q1) In higher order conditioning,the
A) US is used as if it were a CS.
B) US is used as if it were a CR.
C) CS is used as if it were a UR.
D) CS is used as if it were a US.
Q2) The initial period in conditioning during which a response is reinforced is called A) acquisition.
B) assimilation.
C) extinction.
D) modeling.
Q3) Events that occur just after a response are called A) antecedents.
B) precursors.
C) stimuli.
D) consequences.
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20
Chapter 6: B: Conditioning and Learning
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Q1) The students have learned to tell when Dr.Morgan is in a "good" mood or not by how she enters the room.If she speaks as she enters the room,it will be a "good" day,but if she puts her books down before she speaks,"watch out." Their ability to anticipate her mood for the day and act accordingly illustrates
A) stimulus control.
B) systematic desensitization.
C) place learning.
D) response chaining.
Q2) Extinction in operant conditioning involves A) withholding reinforcement.
B) punishment.
C) test trials.
D) shaping.
Q3) Whether we drive our car across an intersection depends on if the traffic light is red or green.This illustrates the principle of A) stimulus control.
B) operant extinction.
C) stimulus generalization.
D) the partial reinforcement effect.
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Page 21
Chapter 6: C: Conditioning and Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of harsh or excessive punishment with children has been shown to lead to A) long-term mental health problems.
B) increased aggressiveness by the children toward others.
C) avoidance and escape behaviors.
D) all of these.
Q2) "After visiting Chattanooga,Tennessee last summer,I can imagine the layout of the city in my mind." This is an example of
A) imprinting.
B) a cognitive map.
C) automatic adaptation.
D) stimulus control.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a step in the behavioral self-management program discussed in your textbook?
A) choose a target behavior
B) record a baseline
C) choose reinforcing and punishing self-statements
D) adjust your plan as you learn more about your behavior
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Chapter 6: D: Conditioning and Learning
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Q1) Explain how the classical conditioning of an eye blink came to be used as a diagnostic tool,and how various conditions have been diagnosed using it.
Q2) Presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus will result in stimulus generalization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You have just broken up with your boyfriend.You are sitting at a table with friends when you see him enter the restaurant.He has not seen you yet,so you duck into the ladies room.You are exhibiting __________ learning.
Q4) Continuous reinforcement is more resistant to extinction than partial reinforcement. A)True
B)False
Q5) If you wear sunglasses to escape the glare of the sun,then you are wearing the sunglasses because of __________reinforcement.
Q6) After a response has been extinguished,it will often reappear after a short time has passed.This is referred to as a(n)__________.
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Page 23
Chapter 7: A: Memory
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Q1) Five-year-old Jaycee learned her "ABCs" by repeating them over and over again.Jaycee learned the alphabet through A) rote learning.
B) insight learning.
C) classical conditioning.
D) respondent conditioning.
Q2) The memory of what you had for breakfast this morning would be considered a(n)__________ memory.
A) sensory
B) procedural
C) semantic
D) episodic
Q3) Penfield's claim that the brain records the past like a "strip of movie film,complete with sound track" is an exaggeration since A) memories are stored in auditory images only, not visual ones. B) memories are stored in visual images only, not auditory ones.
C) many events never get past sensory or short-term memory.
D) no long-past forgotten memories have ever been elicited through brain stimulation, only recently stored memories.
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Page 24
Chapter 7: B: Memory
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Q1) Physical changes in nerve cells or brain activity that take place when memories are stored are referred to as
A) memory traces.
B) biodata.
C) morphemes.
D) cross-stimulation.
Q2) Forgetting due to memory decay and disuse are examples of __________ problems.
A) encoding
B) retrieval
C) storage
D) redintegration
Q3) Every time Darlene and Sam get into an argument,they tend to rehash old issues that come to mind.Which explanation of memory best explains why the memories of previous arguments keep resurfacing?
A) eidetic imagery
B) state-dependent learning
C) repression
D) retroactive interference
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Page 25
Chapter 7: C: Memory
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Q1) Using electroconvulsive shock to overstimulate memory areas in the brains of rats causes memory loss by interfering with
A) long-term potentiation.
B) engram induction.
C) elaborative processing.
D) redintegration.
Q2) On a test that measures her attention and short-term memory,Tanya is asked to correctly repeat seven digits.This test is called the ___________ test.
Q3) When Wilding and Valentine presented the participants in their study with memory tasks that prevented the use of learned strategies and techniques,
A) all of the participants were able to excel on these tasks at the same level as when they were able to use the learned strategies.
B) all of the participants were able to memorize the task but at a lower level than when they were able to use the learned strategies.
C) several of the participants were able to excel on these tasks.
D) none of the participants were able to excel on these tasks.
Q4) How does "memory jamming" work in advertising?
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Chapter 8: A: Cognition,language,and Creativity
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Q1) Which of the following would most likely be used and would be the most effective way to classify very complex stimuli?
A) using a a prototype
B) using kinesthetic imagery
C) using an algorithm
D) using disjunctive conceptual rules
Q2) The idea that the words we use not only reflect our thoughts but can shape them as well is known as the
A) semantic differential.
B) law of effect.
C) transformational rule.
D) linguistic relativity hypothesis.
Q3) A mechanical solution to a problem is one in which
A) the answer is arrived at by using the availability heuristic.
B) the answer is arrived at by intuition.
C) a learned set of rules is used in answering the problem.
D) general and functional techniques are used in answering the problem.
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Chapter 8: B: Cognition,language,and Creativity
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Q1) Thinking in which many possibilities are developed from one starting place is called __________ thinking.
A) deductive
B) convergent
C) divergent
D) intuitive
Q2) One barrier to the use of group learning in the American classrooms is the view by some parents and teachers that students should strive for independence and self-sufficiency in their learning.Thus,the barrier to the use of group learning would be classified as a(n)__________ barrier.
A) emotional
B) learned
C) cultural
D) perceptual
Q3) You can become more creative by doing all of the following EXCEPT
A) practicing convergent thinking.
B) taking risks.
C) analyzing ideas.
D) seeking unusual connections between ideas.
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Chapter 8: C: Cognition,language,and Creativity
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Q1) Define cognition,describe the three basic units of thought,and explain how a mental image is formed and the differences in stored and created images.
Q2) Fixations and functional fixedness are specific types of mental sets.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A quick,impulsive thought that does not typically make use of formal logic or clear reasoning is referred to as __________.
Q4) The emotional or personal meaning of a word can be measured by comparing the word to the dimensions good/bad,strong/weak,and active/passive in an approach known as the __________.
Q5) Imagining how another person would view the problem and asking "silly" or playful questions are ways to
A) restate the problem in different and novel ways.
B) are mental sets that must be avoided.
C) narrowly define a problem so it can be clearly understood.
D) prevent incubation of the problem.
Q6) A child who says,"I drinked the milk" has created this sentence by using __________ rules.
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Chapter 9: A: Intelligence
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Q1) Emil is taking the Stanford-Binet (SB5)and is asked the question,"Suppose that you are going east,then turn right,then turn right again,then turn left.In what direction are you facing now?" This question comes from the section of the SB5 that measures
A) fluid reasoning.
B) working memory.
C) visual-spatial processing.
D) quantitative reasoning.
Q2) Lee obtained an IQ score of 63 on the WAIS-IV,which places him in which range?
A) borderline
B) average
C) dull normal
D) intellectually disabled
Q3) To estimate a child's intelligence,we would need to compare the child's mental age to his or her
A) nonverbal IQ.
B) present grade level.
C) chronological age.
D) average grade point average.
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Chapter 9: B: Intelligence
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Q1) Regarding the studies in which children from low-income families were given enriched environments from early infancy through preschool,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) By age two, the children's IQ scores were already higher than those in a control group.
B) The children who received the enrichment had IQ scores that were still five points higher seven years later.
C) The IQ gains of the children who had received the enrichment decreased to their original levels five years later.
D) High-quality enrichment programs such as Head Start can prevent children from falling behind in school.
Q2) If a psychologist advocates the neural basis of intelligence,then he or she believes which of the following reflects the brain's efficiency?
A) the g-factor
B) spatial perception
C) speed of processing
D) metacognitive skills
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Chapter 9: C: Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) An intellectual disability is defined as having an IQ score of approximately 70 or below and a significant difficulty with abilities,such as dressing,eating,communicating,shopping,or working,which are called __________ behaviors.
Q2) IQ scores measured at age three are highly correlated with those IQ scores measured at age 27.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A potential danger of an intelligent person using only rational thinking is that A) correct conclusions may be drawn from faulty logic. B) it can lead to correct, but uninspired answers.
C) a tendency to think "outside of the box" occurs.
D) divergent thinking can lead to tangential reasoning.
Q4) Sam has an IQ of 65,his educational classification is educable,and he needs only intermittent support regarding his adaptive skills.According to the DSM-IV-TR,Sam would be classified as having a(n)__________ intellectual disability.
Q5) Discuss Howard Gardner's view of intelligence,including a description of his eight types of intelligences,and compare and contrast his view with the one utlized in traditional IQ testing.
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Chapter 10: A: Motivation and Emotion
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31027
Sample Questions
Q1) Desirable goals may motivate behavior in the absence of internal need.This property is known as a goal's
A) gradient potential.
B) drive potential.
C) homeostasis value.
D) incentive value.
Q2) Which of the following pairs is correct?
A) food - secondary motive
B) thirst - stimulus motive
C) pain - episodic
D) sex - homeostatic
Q3) Concerning stimulus motives,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Stimulus motives express our needs for stimulation and information.
B) Stimulus motives appear to be innate.
C) Stimulus motives are not necessary for survival.
D) Stimulus motives include the needs for security, approval, affiliation, and status.
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33
Chapter 10: B: Motivation and Emotion
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250 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31028
Sample Questions
Q1) Concerning moods,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Moods are the most extreme forms of emotions.
B) Moods tend to be generally lower for most weekdays than they are on weekends..
C) Moods are closely tied to circadian rhythms.
D) Moods affect day-to-day behavior by preparing us to act in certain ways.
Q2) The term "sex drive" refers to
A) a person's openness to a variety of sexual activities.
B) a person's degree of motivation to engage in sexual behavior.
C) a person's level of sexual experience.
D) the frequency of sexual activity.
Q3) Which element of emotion is the private,subjective experience of having an emotion?
A) emotional expressions
B) emotional feelings
C) physiological changes
D) adaptive behaviors
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34
Chapter 10: C: Motivation and Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding emotional intelligence,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Emotional intelligence is an innate quality that cannot be learned.
B) Cultivating positive emotions is a part of emotional intelligence.
C) Positive emotions tend to broaden one's focus, while negative emotions tend to narrow one's focus.
D) Extremely rational approaches to making choices can produce sensible, but emotionally empty decisions.
Q2) According to Valins,how we interpret arousal is determined by A) hypothalamic activity.
B) thalamic activity.
C) limbic system feedback.
D) the attributions we make.
Q3) Which theory of emotion holds the view that bodily changes PRECEDE emotion and that we experience an emotion only AFTER our body reacts?
A) the common sense approach
B) the Cannon-Bard theory
C) attribution theory
D) the James-Lange theory
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Chapter 10: D: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) Carrie begins implementing a routine in which she keeps track of her calories,uses learning techniques to control her eating habits,and starts exercising.According to your textbook,Carrie has begun a(n)__________ program
Q2) The lowest needs in Maslow's hierarchy of motives could be accurately described as growth needs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If your body is dehydrated,but you are not thirsty,we would say that you have a drive,but not a need.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the three elements of emotions,explain how a person can experience two opposite emotions simultaneously,and describe the role of the amygdala in emotion.
Q5) Learned motives which are acquired in complex ways,such as cultural conditioning,and include the desire for status,money,success,achievement,and dominance are called __________ motives.
Q6) The study of communication through body movement,posture,gestures,and facial expressions is called __________.
Page 36
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Chapter 11: A: Gender and Sexuality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs first developmentally?
A) gender identity
B) secondary sexual characteristics
C) primary sexual characteristics
D) reproductive maturity
Q2) Regarding genetic sex,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Genetic sex is determined at the instant of conception and stays the same throughout life.
B) Males have XX chromosome pair, while females have an XY.
C) Persons with Turner's syndrome have only one X and no additional X or Y chromosomes.
D) Persons with Klinefelter's syndrome have an XXY chromosome combination.
Q3) Females with prenatal exposure to male hormones are
A) no different than females with no such exposure.
B) exclusively feminine.
C) temporarily masculinized.
D) permanently masculinized.
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Chapter 11: B: Gender and Sexuality
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a person's biological sex does not match his or her preferred gender,this person would be said to be
A) psychologically androgynous.
B) gender variant.
C) homosexual.
D) bisexual.
Q2) Cory and Angie are college friends and classmates,who often study together.Although neither sees the other in a romantic way,they occasionally have sex.They are following the Sexual script known as the __________ script.
A) hook-up
B) friends with benefits
C) no strings attached
D) traditional
Q3) Deliberate self-stimulation that causes sexual pleasure or orgasm is called
A) ejaculation.
B) erogency.
C) autocentrism.
D) masturbation.
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Page 38
Chapter 11: C: Gender and Sexuality
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Q1) Regarding mind-reading in a relationship,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Mind-reading involves telling a partner what he or she is thinking rather than asking.
B) Mind-reading usually involves playing the "devil's advocate" in disagreements with one's partner.
C) Mind-reading can be done in a hostile manner that undermines communication.
D) Mind-reading is not the same as trying to see things through your partner's eyes.
Q2) The AIDS virus can be transmitted by
A) eating foods prepared by an infected person.
B) sweat and tears.
C) social kissing.
D) none of these.
Q3) Always being pleasant and avoiding discussions of difficult topics are ways that couples can increase their intimacy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: D: Gender and Sexuality Completion
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Q1) For the last six months,Lee has experienced prolonged fatigue,swollen lymph nodes,night sweats,unexplained weight loss,a persistent cough,diarrhea,bruises easily,and has just noticed a small purplish lesion.Lee has the symptoms of the sexually-transmitted disease called __________.
Q2) Brandon has a deep conflict between his biological sex of being a male and his preferred psychological and social gender role of a female.Brandon would be considered a(n)__________.
Q3) Discuss male erectile disorder,including the term once used for this sexual dysfunction,the diagnostic criteria that distinguish this disorder from a temporary problem,the different organic and psychogenic causes,the difference in primary and secondary types of this disorder,and the treatments used.
Q4) After orgasm,men experience a short phase during which a second orgasm is impossible,which is referred to as the __________ period.
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Chapter 12: A: Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 16 Personality Factor (16 PF)test was developed by A) Gordon Allport.
B) Albert Bandura.
C) Raymond Cattell.
D) Carl Jung.
Q2) Eysenck sees the characteristics of personality as being related to the four types of temperament first recognized by the early Greeks.Which of the following is NOT one of those four types?
A) melancholic
B) choleric
C) sanguine
D) somatic
Q3) The unconscious contains
A) material that can easily be brought to awareness.
B) everything we are aware of at a given moment.
C) repressed memories and emotions.
D) current thoughts, perceptions, and memories.
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Chapter 12: B: Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seligman,Peterson,and others have identified six human strengths that contribute to well-being and life satisfaction.These include which of the following?
A) justice
B) temperance
C) transcendence
D) all of these
Q2) Learning principles,modeling,thought patterns,perceptions,expectations,beliefs,goals,emotions,and social relationships are combined in which theory of personality?
A) social learning theory
B) Neo-Freudian theory
C) behavioral humanist theory
D) psychodynamic theory
Q3) Humanists reject the emphasis on instincts and unconscious forces found in the A) behaviorist theories.
B) psychoanalytic theory.
C) trait theories.
D) social learning theories.
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Chapter 12: C: Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you wanted to find out how a person would react under emergency situations,such as how fire fighters,police,and EMT's react to a terrorist attack,you would most likely use
A) situational testing.
B) stress testing.
C) unstructured interviewing.
D) field rating.
Q2) Regarding behavioral assessments,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) In behavioral assessments, observers record actions, not what traits they think a person has.
B) In behavioral assessments, observers count the frequency of specific behaviors.
C) Behavioral assessments can be used to probe thought processes.
D) In behavioral assessments, real-life conditions are simulated so that a person's spontaneous reactions can be observed.
Q3) Which two of the following theories assert that behavior is determined?
A) psychoanalytic and humanistic
B) behaviorist and humanistic
C) behaviorist and psychoanalytic
D) evolutionary and humanistic
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43
Chapter 12: D: Personality
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Q1) According to behavioral personality theorists,the external conditions that strongly influence behavior are known as __________ determinants.
Q2) In Freudian theory,a preschool boy's attraction for his mother and feelings of rivalry with his father are referred to as the __________ conflict.
Q3) Shy persons tend to show a high degree of private self-consciousness,being completely wrapped up in their own feelings and thoughts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Besides the basic ten clinical subscales,the MMPI-2 also has additional scales to identify substance abuse,eating disorders,Type A behavior,and the inability to function in a job.
A)True
B)False
Q5) According to Rogers,if a person fails to allow new information to gradually change his or her self-image,the person is likely to become androgynous.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: A: Health,stress,and Coping
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of burnout?
A) withdrawal into hallucinations and delusions
B) feeling fatigued and tense or "used up"
C) being apathetic and expressing a "don't care" attitude toward work
D) detachment from others
Q2) In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome are the external symptoms of the body's adjustment to stress the LEAST visible?
A) alarm reaction
B) regulation stage
C) stage of resistance
D) stage of exhaustion
Q3) Prolonged stress can result in
A) a psychosomatic illness.
B) a serious loss of health.
C) complete collapse.
D) all of these.
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Chapter 13: B: Health,stress,and Coping
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Q1) Although Larry never went out for any sport at his high school,he could be seen in the stands of every game wearing the school's colors and cheering wildly for his team.When they won,he felt exhilarated and would tell people,"We won! I knew we could do it," as if he had played the whole game himself.Larry is exhibiting which defense mechanism?
A) identification
B) rationalization
C) intellectualization
D) sublimation
Q2) Luis is five years old and tries to dress and talk like his father,whom he admires.This makes him feel "grown-up" and invincible.Luis is exhibiting which defense mechanism?
A) rationalization
B) identification
C) intellectualization
D) sublimation
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Chapter 13: C: Health,stress,and Coping
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three types of responses that are triggered by stress are
A) bodily effects, upsetting thoughts, and ineffective behavior.
B) physiological arousal, labeling, and emotional expression.
C) activation, resistance, and resolution.
D) alarm, maintenance, and exhaustion.
Q2) Which of the following would you recommend to an individual who would like to learn to lower his or her high blood pressure?
A) alpha brainwave control
B) computer assisted instruction
C) "mental practice"
D) biofeedback
Q3) According to research,the most lethal factor of Type A behavior appears to be overworking.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Russell has found a really good buy on a late model used car that would make it easier for him to get to work,but he does not want to be "saddled" with monthly payments for the next three years.Russell is experiencing a(n)__________ conflict.
Q5) Stress triggers bodily effects,upsetting thoughts,and ineffective __________.
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Chapter 14: A: Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Almost any behavior can be judged to be normal or abnormal depending on the specific circumstances present.This qualification for judging whether or not a behavior is abnormal is referred to as
A) situational context.
B) subjective judgment.
C) environmental selectivity.
D) personal relativity.
Q2) In some countries,it is normal to defecate or urinate in public.This makes it clear that judgments of the normality of behavior are
A) culturally relative.
B) statistically determined
C) a matter of subjective discomfort.
D) random and unpredictable.
Q3) The chief distinguishing feature of psychotic disorders is A) a loss of contact with shared views of reality.
B) antisocial conduct.
C) overwhelming anxiety.
D) obsessive behavior.
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Chapter 14: B: Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the last several years,everything has looked bleak and hopeless to Felisa.She feels like a failure at work and a failure as a wife and mother.Recently she has stopped going to work,has become extremely withdrawn from her family,spends most of her time in bed,and has been having frequent suicidal thoughts.Felisa would most likely be diagnosed with a
A) major depressive disorder.
B) schizophrenia.
C) cyclothymic disorder.
D) dysthymic disorder.
Q2) Regarding major depression and suicide attempts,which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Persons suffering from a major depression rarely attempt suicide.
B) A person suffering from a major depression usually gives numerous prior warnings before the suicide attempt.
C) The suicide attempts by people suffering from a major depression usually represent "a plea for help."
D) The person with a major depression who attempts suicide intends to succeed and may give no prior warning.
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Chapter 14: C: Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of hypochondriasis?
A) Mary wears a knee brace because her knee is weak from a series of injuries.
B) Prior to a crucial playoff game, Steve abruptly develops a limp with no apparent cause.
C) When Sara is scheduled to give presentations, she usually vomits throughout the morning.
D) Because Wally's heart rate rises during exertion, he thinks he has blocked arteries.
Q2) Which of the following diagnoses may be renamed complex somatic symptom disorder in the DSM-5?
A) acute stress disorder
B) dissociative fugue
C) organic mental disorder
D) pain disorder
Q3) Suicidal people usually have
A) a history of trouble with family or sexual adjustment problems.
B) drinking or drug abuse problems.
C) job difficulties.
D) problems in any one or all of these areas.
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Chapter 14: D: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Research has shown that the right combination of inherited potential and environmental stress may produce mind-altering changes in the brain.These changes may cause psychotic behavior and various forms of psychopathology.This is called the __________ model.
Q2) Imaginary sensations,such as seeing,hearing,or smelling things that do not exist in the real world are known as __________.
Q3) White males 65 years and older are at particular risk for committing suicide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If Sarita says that she feels "sick" all the time and has consulted many different doctors regarding her numerous physical complaints and no organic cause can be identified for any of these complaints,Sarita most likely would be diagnosed with a somatization disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The core feature of all psychopathological behavior is that it causes subjective discomfort.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: A: Therapies
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Q1) Which of the following theorists believed that conflicts stemmed from instinctual drives for sex and aggression and forced people to develop rigid ego-defenses and compulsive,self-defeating behaviors?
A) Fritz Perls
B) Aaron Beck
C) Carl Rogers
D) Sigmund Freud
Q2) Cognitive psychotherapy is based on the assumption that psychological problems are essentially caused by A) conditions of worth.
B) repressed anger.
C) faulty or maladaptive thinking.
D) avoidance learning.
Q3) To teach clients effective coping skills so that they can cope with anger,depression,shyness,stress,and similar problems is the aim of A) EMDR.
B) client-centered therapy.
C) cognitive therapy.
D) aversion therapy.
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Page 52
Chapter 15: B: Therapies
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Q1) Which of the following is a technique for reducing fear or anxiety that is based on holding upsetting thoughts in mind while rapidly moving the eyes from side to side?
A) the tension-release method
B) REBT
C) EMDR
D) covert sensitization
Q2) Lamont's therapist helps him construct a list of fear-producing situations involving heights.His therapist then teaches Lamont exercises that produce deep relaxation.Once Lamont is relaxed,he attempts the first time on the list,which is "standing on a chair." The first item is repeated until Lamont feels no anxiety.He then proceeds to the second item "climbing a small stepladder." During the next six weeks,this procedure continues until Lamont performs the last item of "flying in an airplane." Lamont and his therapist are using
A) aversive conditioning.
B) systematic desensitization.
C) rational-emotive behavior therapy.
D) rational confrontation.
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Chapter 15: C: Therapies
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Q1) Studies indicate that therapy is more successful if clients
A) develop a dependence on the therapist.
B) develop a friendship with the therapist outside the therapy session.
C) agree on goals for the upcoming counseling sessions.
D) do not discuss their therapy with anyone else except the therapist.
Q2) Which of the following involves emotional rapport,warmth,friendship,understanding,acceptance,and empathy and unites the client and therapist as they work together to solve the client's problems?
A) therapeutic alliance
B) cathartic bonding
C) mirror effect
D) reciprocal determination
Q3) When looking in the yellow pages,psychiatrists are generally listed under
A) "Mental Health Associations."
B) "Marriage and Family Counselors."
C) "Physicians."
D) "Counseling Services."
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Chapter 15: D: Therapies
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Q1) Explain how Albert Ellis uses his A-B-C analysis in rational-emotive behavior therapy,list the three core ideas from which most irrational beliefs originate,and describe how REBT therapists would attempt to change these beliefs.
Q2) Victor Frankl based his logotherapy on experiences he had as a prisoner in a Nazi concentration camp.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A caring relationship that unites a therapist and a client in working to solve the client's problems is referred to as the __________.
Q4) In order to help Andy see how his words and gestures appear aggressive to others,the therapist in Andy's psychodrama group has Andy join the audience and two other members of the group play Andy and the person he is talking with.This technique is known as the __________ technique.
Q5) EMDR is a behavioral therapy that involves having clients visualize upsetting images,while watching a pencil being moved side-to-side before their eyes.
A)True
B)False
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Page 55
Chapter 16: A: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mean worldview develops mainly because of A) chance conditioning.
B) mass media.
C) group membership.
D) direct contact.
Q2) We tend to attribute negative characteristics to our __________ group.
A) achieved
B) out-
C) ascribed
D) negative referent
Q3) When many people act alike,it implies that their behavior is externally-caused due to
A) complimentary factors.
B) distinctiveness.
C) consensus.
D) interdependence.
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Page 56
Chapter 16: B: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The strongest of the five forms of social influence is
A) obedience.
B) coercion.
C) compliance.
D) group conformity.
Q2) The fact that many train commuters prefer to stand up if it means they can avoid sitting too close to strangers illustrates which of the following?
A) social facilitation
B) personal space
C) the autokinetic effect
D) passive compliance
Q3) Cognitive dissonance is usually strongest when the reward or justification is A) significantly delayed.
B) ambiguous.
C) large.
D) small.
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Chapter 16: C: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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Q1) Changing one's behavior just because other people are nearby is the gentlest form of social influence known as __________.
Q2) Because being self-assertive is somewhat self-serving,it can lead to one's pent-up anger exploding,which can damage relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Asch is to conformity as Milgram is to
A) independence.
B) frustration.
C) obedience.
D) approval.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons people stay in cults?
A) having a new reference group
B) having a controlled and limited amount of information
C) being psychologically isolated from their former value system
D) having questioned their beliefs and reached their own conclusions
Q5) Describe each of the three compliance techniques,explain why each leads to compliance,and give an example of each.
Q6) The process of making inferences about behavior is known as __________.
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Chapter 17: A: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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Q1) According to studies of dating couples,what percent of adults have an avoidant attachment pattern?
A) 10 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 45 percent
D) 60 percent
Q2) In establishing their friendship,Tanya and Mae reveal their private thoughts,feelings,and their personal histories to each other,a process known in social psychology as
A) exchange orientation.
B) social conformity.
C) self-disclosure.
D) groupthink.
Q3) People with histories of satisfying and rewarding relationships tend to have which of the following?
A) higher comparison levels
B) lower comparison levels
C) avoidant attachment styles
D) ambivalent attachment styles
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Page 59
Chapter 17: B: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of small-scale "enemy" images?
A) out-group slurs
B) degrading names
C) ethnic jokes
D) mutual interdependence
Q2) Treating members of various social groups differently in circumstances where their rights or treatment should be identical is known as
A) stereotyping.
B) prejudice.
C) authoritarianism.
D) discrimination.
Q3) The main finding of studies on aggressive-pornographic stimuli is that these images
A) increase aggression against females by men who are prone to sexual violence.
B) increase aggression against females by almost all men.
C) decrease aggression against females because they provide a release of tension through fantasy.
D) do not increase or decrease aggression against females.
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Chapter 17: C: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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Q1) One consequence of seeing aggression portrayed on TV is a loss of emotional response to the violent acts,which is called __________.
Q2) The use of individuating information
A) is an effective way of combating stereotypes.
B) enables you to see someone as a member of a group. C) is a useful way to understand the categories that a person belongs to.
D) is not associated with a reduction in prejudice.
Q3) Although prejudice was reduced by jigsaw classrooms,it did not improve the children's grades,self-esteem,or attitudes toward school.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The marriage of two people who are similar to one another in age,race,values,religion,etc.is known as androgyny.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Selena finds it relatively easy to get close to others and is comfortable depending on others and having others depend on her.Selena would be described as having a(n)__________ attachment style.
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Chapter 18: A: Applied Psychology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
249 Verified Questions
249 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31056
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following refers to maintaining good morale,labor relations,employee satisfaction,and similar aspects of work behavior?
A) I/O quota
B) psychological biodata
C) psychological efficiency
D) work efficiency
Q2) An in-basket test and leaderless group discussions are examples of __________ tests.
A) quality circle
B) vocational interest
C) management by objectives
D) situational judgment
Q3) Which type of leaders assume people are industrious,creative,and rewarded by challenging work and that workers' needs and goals can be meshed with the company's goals?
A) Type A
B) Type B
C) Theory X
D) Theory Y
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Chapter 18: B: Applied Psychology
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31057
Sample Questions
Q1) The benefits for adults from sports participation include all of the following EXCEPT A) stress reduction.
B) a better self-image.
C) improved general health.
D) coping with competition.
Q2) Businesses that help customers recycle old computers by putting marked containers for different recycled materials in convenient locations near a college campus are promoting recycling through A) persuasion.
B) the revision of attitudes.
C) the removal of barriers.
D) incentives.
Q3) The study of the psychological and behavioral dimensions of sports performance is called
A) athletic conditioning.
B) kinesthetic conditioning.
C) sports psychology.
D) psychomotor psychology.
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Chapter 18: C: Applied Psychology
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159 Verified Questions
159 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Engaging in behavior that achieves a minimum result,rather than maximizing the outcome of that behavior is called __________.
Q2) In the past,construction workers who installed steel rods in the floors of large buildings had been spending most of their work days awkwardly bent over.To avoid injuries and to minimize fatigue,machines were designed that allowed workers to do the job while standing upright.Through testing,it was found that the construction workers were able to use the newer machines faster,and they spent less time in backbreaking positions.Thus,more effective and healthier construction approaches were devised through
A) pragmatic testing.
B) operational acquisition.
C) humanistic assessments.
D) usability testing.
Q3) Which of the following would most likely reduce stress and boredom in a space habitat?
A) active, group-oriented recreation
B) changing sleep stations, desks, lockers, and pastimes every three days
C) including live animals and plants in space habitats
D) providing more sensory monotony
Q4) Discuss four problem areas regarding jury deliberations.
Page 64
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Chapter 19: Appendix A: Behavioral Statistics
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207 Verified Questions
207 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A number that describes a "typical score" around which other scores fall is called a measure of
A) variability.
B) central tendency.
C) normality.
D) cohesion.
Q2) When chance events are recorded,we find that some outcomes have a high probability and occur very often,others have a lower probability and occur infrequently,still others
Have little probability and occur rarely.As a result,the distribution (or tally)of chance Events typically resembles a A) normal curve.
B) positive skew.
C) negative skew.
D) horizontal line.
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Chapter 20: Appendix B: Behavioral Statistics
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254 Verified Questions
254 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Jason is in class,he sits away from distractions and where he can hear the teacher and see the powerpoint slides.Jason also reads his textbook before coming to class,so he can skillfully take notes and answer questions.Jason would be described as a(n)__________ listener.
A) active
B) experiential
C) compulsive
D) intuitive
Q2) You are a teacher.In one of your classes,the students achieved the following raw scores on a ten-question quiz: 10,10,9,9,9,8,8,8,8,7,7,6,6,5,5,4,4,3,2 2.Calculate each of the measures of central tendency for these scores.
Q3) Regarding general test-taking skills,it is best to answer the difficult questions first and then the easy ones.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the function of the measures of variability; and name and define two of these measures.
Q5) To conclude that a cause-and-effect relationship exists,we must use a(n)__________.
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