Psychological Science Exam Bank - 7014 Verified Questions

Psychological Science Exam

Bank

Course

Introduction

Psychological Science explores the systematic study of behavior and mental processes, drawing upon empirical methods to understand how individuals think, feel, and act. This course introduces students to key concepts, theories, and research findings in areas such as cognitive processes, developmental stages, biological bases of behavior, social interactions, and psychological disorders. Emphasis is placed on scientific methodologies, critical evaluation of evidence, and the application of psychological principles to real-world situations, preparing students for further study and informed engagement with psychological topics in everyday life.

Recommended Textbook

Discovering Psychology 7th Edition by Sandra E. Hockenbury

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70 Chapters

7014 Verified Questions

7014 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Section 1: Introduction and Research Methods

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are some of the reasons that psychologists use animals in research?

Answer: The answer should include the following information: First, psychologists may be interested in the study of animal behavior for its own sake. Such research improves the quality of life of animals in zoos and may increase the likelihood of survival of endangered species in the wild. Second, animals may be used to address questions that cannot be done in human subjects. Finally, psychologists can exercise greater control over animals than they can over human subjects. Researchers can control the animals' environment as well as their genetic background.

Q2) In a scientifically conducted survey, describe how participants should be selected and explain the importance of the selection process.

Answer: The answer should include the following information: Scientists randomly select a sample of participants to be included in a study. Random selection means that every member of the larger group or population may have an equal opportunity to be included in the sample.

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3

Chapter 1: Section 2: Introduction and Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sample is to population as _____ is to _____.

A)random selection; naturalistic observation

B)some; all

C)case study; survey

D)case study; multiple case study

Answer: B

Q2) Harmon wants to study the conditions under which some children are rejected by their peers. Daily, from the beginning of a school year, she carefully watches and records the behavior of kindergartners, first graders, and second graders in the classroom and on the playground. Dr. Harmon is using:

A)a survey.

B)naturalistic observation.

C)a case study.

D)experimental research.

Answer: B

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4

Chapter 1: Section 3: Introduction and Research Methods

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188 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) is a noninvasive procedure that produces detailed images of the brain using electromagnetic signals that track changes in metabolic activity.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Apes and monkeys are, by far, the most commonly used nonhuman animals in psychological research in the United States.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) The word pseudo means "rare" or "unusual."

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) A hypothesis is to a question as a theory is to a model.

A)True

B)False Answer: True

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Chapter 1: Section 4: Introduction and Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) Dalpiez conducts research with mice, pigs, and chimpanzees. Dr. Dalpiez's specialization is in _____ psychology.

A)clinical

B)experimental

C)comparative

D)educational

Q2) A collectivistic culture is one in which:

A)individual achievements are highly valued.

B)a person's social behavior is influenced more by individual preference than cultural values and norms.

C)a person's individual preferences and goals are considered to be more important than the requirements and goals of his or her social group.

D)great importance is placed on following established tradition and customs.

Q3) Who among the following individuals was NOT a key scientist in the development of behaviorism?

A)Sigmund Freud

B)Ivan Pavlov

C)John B. Watson

D)B. F. Skinner

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Page 6

Chapter 1: Section 5: Introduction and Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) While watching television late one evening, Marla tuned into an infomercial that claimed you could lose at least 5 pounds of fat each week by simply taking a natural herbal supplement. Suspicious, Marla conducted some research on the supplement and found that the sponsors of the infomercial were accused of presenting an irrefutable or nonfalsifiable claim. This means that the weight loss claim:

A)is supported by empirical evidence.

B)cannot be disproved or tested in any meaningful way.

C)is true, but only for certain people, such as those who are already physically fit.

D)has been tested in the laboratory.

Q2) A hypothesis is a(n):

A)clearly defined independent variable.

B)theory that is supported by research evidence.

C)tentative statement that describes the relationship between two or more variables.

D)operational definition assigned to the independent variable.

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Chapter 2: Section 1: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain with examples how a drug can act as an antagonist.

Q2) What are spinal reflexes? Are they important?

Q3) Describe the goals of the Human Connectome Project, the diffusion spectrum imaging technique, and the challenges faced by the Project.

Q4) Describe the functions of glial cells, as well as the microglia, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and Schwann cells.

Q5) How do sensory neurons, motor neurons, and interneurons differ?

Q6) Describe the differences in male and female brains and discuss what conclusions can be drawn from research on gender differences and the brain.

Q7) Describe the sequence of events that occurs when one neuron communicates with another neuron.

Q8) Briefly describe the functions of the different subdivisions of the peripheral nervous system.

Q9) How does information transmission in the endocrine system differ from that in the nervous system?

Q10) What is the somatosensory cortex? How is it organized?

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Q11) Distinguish between cortical localization and lateralization of function and give an example of each.

Chapter 2: Section 2: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the Critical Thinking box, "'His' and 'Her' Brains?" which of the following is FALSE?

A)Men's brains tend to be larger than women's brains.

B)In general, men's brains are more symmetrical than women's brains.

C)Women have a higher proportion of gray matter to white matter in their brains than men.

D)Women display greater cortical complexity than men.

Q2) Functional plasticity:

A)produces aphasia or paralysis.

B)has been demonstrated in research with primates but not with humans.

C)refers to the brain's ability to shift functions from damaged to undamaged areas of the brain.

D)can only occur in children prior to about the age of seven.

Q3) Prozac and cocaine are very different drugs, but they achieve their effects through the same mechanism of action. What is that mechanism?

A)Both drugs block GABA.

B)Both drugs mimic GABA.

C)Both drugs interfere with the reuptake of certain neurotransmitters.

D)Both drugs occupy the receptor sites for opiates.

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Page 9

Chapter 2: Section 3: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Humans are the only species that display a preference for handedness.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Pierre Broca and Karl Wernicke helped demonstrate that speech and language functions are lateralized.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Research with primates has shown that some regions of the brain have the capacity to develop new neurons throughout the lifespan.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Although the basic premise of phrenology was disproved, it helped trigger scientific interest in the idea of cortical localization.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Some simple forms of behavior, called spinal reflexes, occur without any involvement of the brain.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 2: Section 4: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) _____ is the branch of science that is concerned with the study of the nervous system, especially the brain.

A)Plasticity

B)Neuroscience

C)Clinical psychiatry

D)Developmental psychology

Q2) Psychologist and neuroscientist Roger Sperry is BEST known for:

A)his efforts to debunk the pseudoscientific claims of phrenology.

B)the discovery of neurogenesis in the adult human brain.

C)his studies on split-brain patients.

D)identifying the specific brain areas involved in different forms of aphasia.

Q3) Messages from other neurons or specialized cells and sensory receptors are typically:

A)collected by the synaptic vesicles.

B)relayed by glial cells to the correct node of Ranvier.

C)received by the dendrites.

D)received by the axon terminals.

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11

Chapter 2: Section 5: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) The _____ is involved in regulating blood sugar levels and in hunger.

A)pituitary gland

B)pancreas

C)pineal gland

D)thyroid gland

Q2) The _____ is the largest region of the brain.

A)midbrain

B)hindbrain

C)forebrain

D)pons

Q3) In general, neural messages are received by the _____ and transmitted by the

A)cell body; dendrites

B)axons; nucleus

C)dendrites; axon

D)axon; dendrites

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12

Chapter 3: Section 1: Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the blind spot and why don't we notice it under normal circumstances?

Q2) How do rods and cones differ?

Q3) Define ESP and parapsychology. Identify four different forms of ESP and summarize the research findings on ESP claims.

Q4) What is the moon illusion and how has it been explained?

Q5) Explain what is meant by bottom-up processing and top-down processing. Provide examples of each.

Q6) Describe the two types of sensory thresholds and give an example of each.

Q7) Describe the functions of each of the key structures involved in hearing.

Q8) What are pheromones and what evidence is there for the existence of human pheromones?

Q9) How are ganglion cells different from bipolar cells?

Q10) What is the basic pathway for information transmission from the eye to the brain?

Q11) What is sensory adaptation and why is it important?

Q12) How do frequency theory and place theory explain the perception of pitch?

Q13) Distinguish between sensation and perception.

Q14) According to the Focus on Neuroscience box: Vision, Experience, and the Brain, what Page 13

do Mike's visual abilities reveal about the development of visual pathways in the brain?

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Chapter 3: Section 2: Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) Pain begins when an intense stimulus activates sensory fibers called _____ in the skin, muscles, or internal organs.

A)nociceptors

B)Pacinian corpuscles

C)proprioceptors

D)D-delta fibers and B fibers

Q2) The perceived color of an object is determined by the:

A)wavelength of light that an object reflects.

B)activation of bipolar cells in the cornea.

C)activation of rods in the retina of the eye.

D)intensity of the light wave that strikes the pupil.

Q3) Sharp, intense, immediate, and short-lived pain is transmitted by:

A)A-delta fibers.

B)C fibers.

C)proprioceptors in the skin and joints.

D)both A-delta fibers and C fibers.

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Chapter 3: Section 3: Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) The figure-ground relationship refers to the automatic perceptual separation of a scene into the main element of a scene and the background elements of a scene.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The loudness of a sound corresponds to the frequency of the sound wave; the higher the frequency, the louder the sound.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Cones are most common in the fovea and become progressively less common toward the periphery of the retina.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Perceptual illusions such as the Müller-Lyer illusion underscore the fact that what we see is not merely a simple reflection of the world but our subjective perceptual interpretation of it.

A)True

B)False

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16

Chapter 3: Section 4: Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) When Isabel visited the children's zoo, she heard squeals coming from the baby pigs and loud grunts from the adult pigs. Her perception of the high-pitched squeals can be explained by the _____ theory of hearing, and her perception of the low-pitched grunts can be explained by the _____ theory of hearing.

A)place; frequency

B)frequency; place

C)opponent process; trichromatic

D)trichromatic; opponent process

Q2) John was shocked when his doctor informed him that his condition was caused by extensive damage to his hammer, anvil, and stirrup. What condition is John suffering from?

A)disequilibrium or vestibular disability

B)vertigo, dizziness, and poor balance

C)conduction deafness

D)nerve deafness

Q3) The optic disk produces:

A)color vision.

B)night vision.

C)the blind spot.

D)proprioception.

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Chapter 3: Section 5: Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) To reduce the intense pain of her migraine headaches, Lisette's doctor taught her a procedure that involved learning to control the blood flow and muscle tension in her head and neck. What is the technique called?

A)acupuncture

B)counterirritation

C)positive self-talk

D)biofeedback

Q2) Which of the following sensory receptors are constantly being replaced?

A)taste buds, proprioceptors, and nociceptors

B)rods, cones, and olfactory receptors

C)olfactory receptors and taste buds

D)taste buds and hair cells in the basilar membrane

Q3) Which of the following plays an important role in the Müller-Lyer illusion?

A)depth perception

B)size constancy

C)motion perception

D)perceptual grouping

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18

Chapter 4: Section 1: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Quinn observed a carjacking a few months ago when he was leaving work. The incident occurred so fast that Quinn only has a vague recollection of what happened. He knows that the suspect was a white male and that the vehicle was a black SUV. Quinn's friend wants him to undergo hypnosis, believing that it will help enhance his memory of the incident. Is Quinn's friend correct? Explain, using research from the textbook in your answer.

Q2) How are sleepwalking and sleep-related eating disorders similar? Also explain how they differ.

Q3) Why do we sleep?

Q4) Discuss the contributions of the invention of the electroencephalograph and the discovery of REM sleep to modern sleep research.

Q5) How is sleep involved in the formation of memories?

Q6) How do dyssomnias and parasomnias differ?

Q7) Define the term consciousness. What does consciousness enable us to do?

Q8) Contrast Freud's explanation of the significance of dreams with that of the activation-synthesis model of dreaming.

Q9) How does alcohol affect the body and psychological functioning?

Q11) What are hypnagogic hallucinations? Page 19

Q10) What are the effects that can be produced by hypnosis?

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Page 20

Chapter 4: Section 2: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Sample Questions

Q1) As you are lying in bed, your mind begins to drift and you become increasingly drowsy. During this short, transitional stage of sleep you disengage from the routine sounds in your environment. This sleep stage is called:

A)REM sleep.

B)stage 1 NREM.

C)stage 2 NREM.

D)paradoxical sleep.

Q2) Approximately _____ percent of adults experience chronic insomnia with symptoms at least three nights each week lasting a month or longer.

A)33

B)10

C)66

D)85

Q3) During the 1920s, German psychiatrist Hans Berger advanced the scientific study of sleep when he:

A)invented the first MRI scanning device.

B)discovered a procedure to monitor blood levels of melatonin.

C)invented the electroencephalograph.

D)discovered REM sleep in humans.

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21

Chapter 4: Section 3: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Transcendental meditation is a form of meditation that involves performing a structured series of slow, smooth movements called Tai Chi.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The suprachiasmatic nucleus is located in the retina of each eye.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Obstructive sleep apnea is much more common in women than men. A)True

B)False

Q4) The "hidden observer" is a research technique using a concealed person to test whether people are truly hypnotized or faking their responses during scientific studies. A)True

B)False

Q5) A naturally occurring brain chemical called anandamide is structurally similar to THC, the active ingredient in marijuana.

A)True B)False

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Page 22

Chapter 4: Section 4: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a category of addictive drugs that mimic the properties of natural brain substances called endorphins?

A)depressants

B)tranquilizers

C)psychedelics

D)opiates

Q2) Techniques for focusing attention, which are found in most cultures and many religions, that induce an altered state of focused attention and heightened awareness are called:

A)stimulus control strategies.

B)imaginative suggestibility strategies.

C)hypnosis techniques.

D)meditation techniques.

Q3) _____, a famous American psychologist, described consciousness as being like a river or a stream.

A)William James

B)Erik Erikson

C)J. Allan Hobson

D)Sigmund Freud

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Page 23

Chapter 4: Section 5: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Sample Questions

Q1) During his therapy session, Brent told his psychotherapist that he had a recurring dream in which he was fighting a pilot on an airplane and struggling to take over the controls. In terms of Freud's psychoanalytic view of dreams, the airplane, the pilot, and fighting would all be considered to be the dream's _____ content.

A)latent

B)manifest

C)activated

D)synthesized

Q2) Which of the following is a derivative of opium?

A)mescaline

B)cocaine

C)psilocybin

D)codeine

Q3) German psychiatrist Hans Berger advanced the scientific study of sleep when he: A)invented the electroencephalograph.

B)discovered the PET scan.

C)performed the first fMRI.

D)identified patterns of REM sleep in primates and humans.

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Chapter 5: Section 1: Learning

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Sample Questions

Q1) Compare and contrast operant and classical conditioning in terms of types of behavior studied, responses conditioned, extinction processes, and cognitive and evolutionary influences on each.

Q2) Describe the school or approach to psychology that John Watson founded, and explain why he founded it.

Q3) Explain how the idea of biological preparedness can be applied to human phobias.

Q4) Explain what mirror neurons are and discuss research on the role of mirror neurons in imitation and observational learning in humans and other animals.

Q5) Describe three learning principles that you can use to improve self-control.

Q6) Provide two examples of how Watson applied classical conditioning principles to advertising.

Q7) Define instinctive drift, and explain its implications for operant conditioning.

Q8) Describe John Garcia's research, and explain why his findings were originally rejected.

Q9) Discuss the relationship between exposure to violent media and increases in aggressive behavior, and explain why some psychologists are cautious in their conclusions about the effects of media violence.

Q10) Describe Martin Seligman's research on learned helplessness in dogs.

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Chapter 5: Section 2: Learning

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Sample Questions

Q1) Over the years at Cosmos Widget Factory, Mr. Cosmos has noticed that each employee tends to be most productive in the weeks just before his or her biannual performance review. Had Mr. Cosmos read Chapter 5 on ''Learning,'' he would know that his employees' behavior was:

A)the result of being conditioned on a fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement.

B)an example of learned helplessness.

C)an example of stimulus control.

D)the result of being conditioned on a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement.

Q2) Prior to conditioning, a dog will salivate in response to food placed in its mouth. Using classical conditioning terms, the food would be labeled the _____, while the dog salivating would be labeled the _____.

A)conditioned stimulus; unconditioned stimulus

B)conditioned stimulus; conditioned response

C)unconditioned response; unconditioned stimulus

D)unconditioned stimulus; unconditioned response

Q3) Who formulated the ''law of effect''?

A)B. F. Skinner

B)John B. Watson

C)Edward L. Thorndike

D)Ivan Pavlov

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Chapter 5: Section 3: Learning

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Q1) The use of operant conditioning techniques to increase the use of seat belts, train Seeing Eye dogs, and improve social skills in schoolchildren are examples of behavior modification.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Exposure to uncontrollable aversive events from which you cannot escape can produce passive behavior, called learned helplessness.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Whenever Margaret has personal problems, she confides in two co-workers who listen very attentively and offer her emotional support. The amount of time that Margaret spends discussing her personal problems with co-workers has steadily increased. Positive reinforcement is occurring in this example.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The shuttlebox is used in an operant conditioning procedure to investigate learned helplessness in dogs.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Section 4: Learning

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Q1) _____ is the notion that an organism is innately predisposed to form associations between certain stimuli and responses.

A)Biological preparedness

B)Latent learning

C)Instinctive

D)Survival of the fittest

Q2) _____ formulated the "law of effect."

A)B. F. Skinner

B)John B. Watson

C)Albert Bandura

D)Ivan Pavlov

Q3) In Watson and Rayner's "Little Albert" study, _____ was the unconditioned stimulus (UCS).

A)the loud clanging sound

B)the sight of the white rat

C)fear in response to the loud clanging sound

D)fear in response to the sight of the rat

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28

Chapter 5: Section 5: Learning

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Q1) If an action is negatively reinforced, it is _____ likely to be repeated. If an action is positively reinforced, it is _____ likely to be repeated.

A)less; more B)more; less

C)less; less D)more; more

Q2) Six-year-old Warren watches as his grandmother puts freshly baked cookies into a jar. The jar sits on the first shelf in grandma's cabinet, a height that Warren cannot yet reach. After his grandmother leaves the kitchen, Warren takes a chair, sets it in front of the counter, and climbs up to the cabinet to get a cookie. What is the operant in this example?

A)the cookie

B)grandma's presence

C)carrying the chair to the kitchen

D)Warren's age

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Chapter 6: Section 1: Memory

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Q1) Javier participates in mixed martial arts competitions. Two weeks ago, Javier sustained a concussion following a direct kick to his head and neck. Javier's family and girlfriend are concerned, as Javier has no memory of the events leading up to the injury and is even having some difficulty remembering events that occurred several months before the injury. Two days ago marked the date of Javier and his girlfriend's two-year anniversary of meeting. However, he was unable to recall where they met or how they spent their first date. Based on this information, explain what type of memory disruption Javier is demonstrating.

Q2) How do explicit and implicit memory differ? Give an example of each.

Q3) What did George Sperling's classic experiment reveal about our visual memory system?

Q4) Describe two forms of the encoding specificity principle, and give an example of each.

Q5) Describe the different types of long-term memory, and give an example of each.

Q6) According to the Culture and Human Behavior: Culture's Effects on Early Memories box in your text, what cultural factors likely contribute to differences in autobiographical memory?

Q7) Describe the conditions that lead to long-term potentiation, and describe what happens within the neural circuit that is strengthened.

Page 30

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Chapter 6: Section 2: Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) The more _____ information is in two memories, the more likely it is that _____ will occur.

A)similar; repression

B)dissimilar; repression

C)dissimilar; interference

D)similar; interference

Q2) The term schema refers to a(n):

A)organized cluster of knowledge and information about an object, an event, a situation, or a concept.

B)organized plan to accomplish a specific goal.

C)group of neurons that link two or more memory areas in the brain.

D)memory-enhancing technique that is used during hypnosis to aid in the retrieval of repressed memories.

Q3) Which of the following statements about sensory memory is FALSE?

A)Memory researchers believe there is a separate sensory memory for each sense.

B)One function of sensory memory is to briefly store our sensory impressions.

C)Visual sensory memory holds information longer than auditory sensory memory.

D)Visual sensory memory only lasts for about a half second.

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Chapter 6: Section 3: Memory

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Questions

Q1) In a study by psychologist Elizabeth Loftus and co-researcher John C. Palmer, subjects first watched a film of an automobile accident, and then answered questions about the details of what they had seen. Loftus found that most of the participants' memories for the details of the accident were influenced by how the questions were worded.

A)True

B)False

Q2) George Miller's classic experiment suggested that short-term memory has a capacity of about seven bits of information, plus or minus two.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Counteracting the serial position effect by spending extra time studying material that falls in the middle of what you are studying is a good strategy for improving memory.

A)True

B)False

Q4) H.M. retained a limited ability to form new episodic memories.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Section 4: Memory

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Q1) The famous case of the man known as H. M. illustrates the important role played by _____ in the formation of new memories.

A)the amygdala

B)beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

C)the hippocampus

D)the cerebellum

Q2) _____ is the process of accessing information stored in long-term memory.

A)Retrieval

B)Encoding

C)Integration

D)Consolidation

Q3) The Psych for Your Life section provides several techniques and suggestions to enhance your memory of information. Which of the following is one of those suggestions?

A)Use maintenance rehearsal to help encode information for meaning.

B)Minimize interference by using massed practice.

C)Counteract the serial position effect by spending more time learning material at the beginning and end of a sequence.

D)Take the distributed practice approach to learning new information.

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33

Chapter 6: Section 5: Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the key brain structures involved in encoding and storing memories?

A)the hypothalamus

B)the hippocampus

C)the prefrontal cortex

D)the cerebellum

Q2) In the earliest stages of Alzheimer's disease, the MOST common symptoms are:

A)agitation and moodiness.

B)spontaneous recovery of long-term and working memories.

C)forgetting names of familiar people and the locations of familiar places.

D)misplacing common objects and moodiness, such as one's keys, glasses, or checkbook.

Q3) For his anatomy and physiology class, Charles has to memorize the twelve cranial nerves in the correct order. If Charles spends extra time rehearsing the _____, this would help him to overcome the serial position effect.

A)items in the middle of the list

B)placement of the nerves within the brain

C)correct pronunciation of each nerve

D)first letter of every new term

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Page 34

Chapter 7: Section 1: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss research evidence for and against the linguistic relativity hypothesis.

Q2) Describe three strategies that can be used to make a decision among several alternatives.

Q3) Can nonhuman animals "think"? Do they consciously reason? Such questions may be unanswerable. Describe the approach that contemporary comparative psychologists take today instead.

Q4) Imagine that Spearman, Thurstone, Sternberg, and Gardner are engaged in a spirited debate of the following statement: "A person's IQ score is the single best description of his or her overall mental ability." Pick any two of these theorists and explain how they would respond to this contention.

Q5) Describe the differences between algorithms and heuristics, and give an example of each.

Q6) Compare and contrast Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences with Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence.

Q7) Describe and explain the contributions of genetics and environmental factors that influence IQ scores. How do researchers approach questions related to these variables?

Q8) Describe Lewis Terman's contribution to intelligence testing.

Q9) Describe the two-stage model of intuition.

Page 35

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Chapter 7: Section 2: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) The new Simonian Personality Scale had test and retest scores that were very dissimilar, and it also appeared to show little predictive value. In addition, there was some uncertainty about precisely what the test was actually measuring. The Simonian Personality Scale has:

A)high validity but low reliability.

B)high reliability but low validity.

C)low validity and high reliability.

D)low validity and low reliability.

Q2) Milovitch systematically mixed thousands of different combinations of chemical compounds in order to find one that would be a pollution-free refrigerator coolant. Dr. Milovitch's approach best illustrates:

A)trial-and-error problem solving.

B)the use of algorithms for solving the problem.

C)prototypical thinking.

D)the use of heuristics for solving the problem.

Q3) An intuitive hunch is most likely to be accurate when:

A)you have no prior knowledge or experience regarding the problem or issue.

B)the hunch is based upon conscious, logical analysis of the problem.

C)you already have a broad base of knowledge and experience in the given area.

D)the hunch is strong and emotionally compelling.

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Chapter 7: Section 3: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the In Focus box on neurodiversity, about 10 percent of people with autism are savants who have some extraordinary talent or ability in math, music, or art.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The fact that IQ scores have remained relatively stable in the United States and 14 other nations since World War II, despite improvements in nutrition and education, is evidence that supports the idea that higher intelligence is primarily due to genetics.

A)True

B)False

Q3) An aptitude test is designed to measure a person's capacity to benefit from education or training.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Stereotype threat refers to the phenomenon that occurs when members of a group are aware of a negative stereotype about the group and fear that they will be judged in terms of that stereotype.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Section 4: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) _____ is formally defined as the mental activities involved in acquiring, retaining, and using knowledge, including memory and perception.

A)Thinking

B)Motivation

C)Cognition

D)Problem solving

Q2) Rick asks you how many stop signs you encounter on your drive home. To answer his question, you probably rely on a:

A)mental image.

B)linguistic concept.

C)map of your city.

D)natural concept.

Q3) _____ refers to the percentage of variation within a given population that is due to genetic factors.

A)Intelligibility

B)Heritability

C)Epigenesis

D)Shared environmental influences

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Chapter 7: Section 5: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Your text describes research with participants who lived in remote Amazon tribes and spoke languages that lacked a counting system or specific words for numbers. What conclusion did the researchers reach?

A)Language has a powerful effect on perception; people who speak different languages have a completely different view of the world.

B)Language categories can affect how individuals think about particular concepts. Without a number concept, the indigenous people were only able to use relative terms like "few," "some," and "many" instead of exact numbers to describe quantities.

C)The study showed that, even though the languages of the isolated tribes lacked number words, they had sophisticated systems for describing colors.

D)The study showed that, without a number concept, the indigenous people were unable to distinguish between "few," "some," and "many."

Q2) The study of animal cognition focuses on:

A)memory, problem solving, planning, cooperation, and even deception.

B)comparing animal to human intelligence.

C)the reproductive goals of nonhuman primates.

D)the role of genetic influences on intelligence.

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Page 39

Chapter 8: Section 1: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) How do genes and environmental factors interact in the development of obesity?

Q2) Describe Abraham Maslow's theory of motivation, and list the qualities that characterize self-actualized people.

Q3) Define motivation, and describe the three characteristics associated with motivation, providing an original example of each characteristic.

Q4) Provide evidence to support the idea that humans may be evolutionarily programmed to overeat when food is abundant.

Q5) Describe the two brain pathways involved in triggering fear, how they differ, and their evolutionary significance.

Q6) Describe how classical conditioning and operant conditioning motivate eating behavior.

Q7) Discuss how individualistic and collectivistic cultures differ in achievement motivation.

Q8) Describe how arousal theory accounts for motivation and the qualities that characterize people who are sensation seekers.

Q9) What is anthropomorphism? What evidence suggests that elephants experience emotion?

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Chapter 8: Section 2: Motivation and Emotion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which observation seems to undermine the basic idea of set-point theory?

A)Although laboratory mice and rats will overeat if given a variety of foods to eat, animals in the wild will only eat enough to maintain a normal body weight.

B)Many people have a strong tendency to gain excessive weight as they get older.

C)Even when people are given medications that boost brain levels of serotonin, their weight will gradually decrease with age.

D)The prevalence of obesity is just as great in developing countries as in North America.

Q2) The polygraph is commonly called a _____.

A)form of pseudoscience.

B)truth serum.

C)legal loophole.

D)lie detector.

Q3) Who among the following is MOST likely to have the highest metabolic rate?

A)Tyler, a 10-year-old boy

B)Kayla, a 16-year-old girl

C)Alexandra, a 22-year-old woman

D)Luis, a 40-year-old man

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Chapter 8: Section 3: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Much of our behavior in daily life is driven by extrinsic motivation which consists of external influences on behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The cognitive appraisal theory of emotion emphasizes that the most important aspect of an emotional experience is a person's cognitive appraisal of the emotion-causing stimulus.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Studies have shown that reducing the amount a person sleeps has no effect on blood levels of the hormones leptin and ghrelin.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Research has overwhelmingly confirmed that Maslow's hierarchy of needs provides the most accurate depiction of human motivation developed thus far.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Section 4: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) According to _____ theory, optimal human functioning and growth throughout the lifespan is possible only if psychological needs for autonomy, competence, and relatedness are met.

A)self-determination

B)humanistic

C)self-actualization

D)psychoanalytic

Q2) Milton claims that his dog Moxie is a real clown and that his antics and fooling around are always aimed at getting a laugh. He says Moxie has a great sense of humor. Milton appears to be attributing human traits and emotions to his dog, a phenomenon called:

A)interpersonal engagement.

B)anthropomorphism.

C)self-efficacy.

D)emotional intelligence.

Q3) In collectivistic cultures, achievement motivation tends to reflect:

A)individual goals.

B)an urge to control or influence the behavior of other people or groups.

C)increasing the success or status of one's family or group.

D)the quest for personal self-efficacy.

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Chapter 8: Section 5: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Bae walked into a haunted house and immediately encountered an individual who appeared to have most of his face missing. Which brain structure was likely activated immediately when Bae encountered this frightening face?

A)the hypothalamus

B)the amygdala

C)the cerebellum

D)the medulla

Q2) Emotions such as feelings of contentment:

A)involve intense physical reactions.

B)are characterized by decreased physical arousal.

C)cause spikes in physical and emotional arousal.

D)have no effect on the body.

Q3) Research indicates that children who are born blind and deaf will:

A)be unable to express the basic emotions.

B)only display extreme emotions, such as anger and exuberance.

C)express emotions such as joy, anger, and pleasure using the same facial expressions as other children.

D)display the social smile at birth but show no other signs of emotional expression.

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Chapter 9: Section 1: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the role of stem cells and the neural tube in the development of three main regions of the brain.

Q2) Define the terms "zygote," "chromosomes," "genes," and "DNA," and describe how they are related.

Q3) What cognitive abilities and limitations characterize a child's thinking during the sensorimotor and preoperational stages?

Q4) How did researchers Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess classify the temperamental patterns of infants? Describe characteristics of each temperamental pattern.

Q5) Describe research on the effect of educational baby videos on language development, and indicate whether the research supports the claim that baby videos work to accelerate language and cognitive development.

Q6) In regards to physical development in infancy and childhood, describe the cephalocaudal and proximodistal trends. How do these trends in infant development compare to the developmental sequence for body segments in the womb?

Q7) Compare and contrast the views of Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky on the cognitive development of children.

Q8) List and describe factors that can affect the timing of puberty.

Page 45

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Chapter 9: Section 2: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Excessive drinking during pregnancy can cause _____ which is characterized by physical and mental problems such as abnormal facial features or learning disabilities.

A)fetal alcohol syndrome

B)teratogen immunity

C)alcohol tolerance

D)fetal teratogen syndrome

Q2) Gayle is very inconsistent in the care she gives her new baby. Often, she neglects the baby's needs and is emotionally cold toward the infant. In terms of Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, the baby is likely to develop:

A)guilt.

B)mistrust.

C)inferiority.

D)role confusion.

Q3) Alleles are:

A)different forms of a particular gene.

B)different types of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

C)defective chromosomes that are missing a few key genes.

D)chemicals or other environmental agents that are known to cause birth defects.

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Chapter 9: Section 3: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Infants acquire production vocabulary almost twice as fast as they acquire comprehension vocabulary.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Menopause signals the end of reproductive capacity in women.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Babies typically learn to sit up without support before they learn to roll over.

A)True

B)False

Q4) According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development there are three levels of moral reasoning. Each level has two stages that represent different degrees of sophistication in moral reasoning.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Researchers Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess found that temperamental qualities tend to be very stable throughout infancy and childhood.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Section 4: Lifespan Development

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Q1) Morelli investigates how gene activity is regulated within a cell, including what signals switch genes "on" or "off." In general, she is interested in the mechanisms that control gene expression and its effect on behavior and health. Her area of research is called:

A)genetic mutation research.

B)epigenetics.

C)stem cell research.

D)the human genome project.

Q2) The behaviors, attitudes, and personality traits that a given culture designates as either "masculine" or "feminine" are components of what is called:

A)gender.

B)gender identity.

C)androgyny.

D)gender role.

Q3) Which theorist proposed the zone of proximal development?

A)Piaget

B)Darwin

C)Kohlberg

D)Vygotsky

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Page 48

Chapter 9: Section 5: Lifespan Development

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Q1) _____ developed gender schema theory to explain gender-role development.

A)Behavioral scientist Virginia Johnson

B)Psychologist Sandra Bem

C)Physician William Masters

D)Psychologist David Buss

Q2) According to developmental psychologist Jerome Kagan, there are two broad temperamental patterns, which are:

A)high reactive and low reactive.

B)slow to warm up and difficult.

C)secure and insecure.

D)difficult and shy.

Q3) Anson has an 80-year-old grandfather. Anson wants to make sure his grandfather maintains his cognitive abilities as long as possible. According to Focus on Neuroscience: Boosting the Aging Brain, from which of the following behaviors would Anson's grandfather benefit MOST?

A)taking vitamins and supplements

B)watching stimulating television programs

C)taking at least one daily nap

D)engaging in aerobic exercise

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Chapter 10: Section 1: Personality

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Q1) What are ego defense mechanisms? Briefly describe the defense mechanisms of repression, projection, and denial, and their influences on behavior.

Q2) How did Freud describe the structure of personality?

Q3) What are some important criticisms of the trait perspective on personality?

Q4) What are the functional and structural brain differences that have been associated with the Big Five personality traits?

Q5) Based on the text's discussion of behavioral genetics, discuss the role of genetic and environmental influences on personality development. How do researchers determine whether or not a trait is genetically influenced?

Q6) What are the two major criticisms of the humanistic perspective on personality?

Q7) Describe the primary themes of Alfred Adler's theory.

Q8) Briefly describe the five stages of psychosexual development in Freud's personality theory.

Q9) Define graphology, and describe the scientific research investigating the claims of graphologists. State what conclusions can be drawn about this topic.

Q10) What is the social cognitive perspective on personality, and how does it differ from psychoanalytic and humanistic perspectives?

Page 50

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Chapter 10: Section 2: Personality

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Q1) Which of the following represents a key weakness of the social cognitive perspective?

A)The social cognitive perspective has very little empirical support.

B)The social cognitive perspective focuses only on limited aspects of human personality.

C)The social cognitive perspective is based upon clinical observations of a very small group of people, most of whom were being treated for psychological problems.

D)Social cognitive concepts have little or no applicability to daily life.

Q2) According to Table 10.5, Robert McCrae and Paul Costa, Jr, are best known for proposing:

A)the five-factor model of personality.

B)that there are three basic dimensions of personality.

C)the 16 factor model of personality.

D)that behavior is motivated by our hierarchy of needs and striving for self-actualization.

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Chapter 10: Section 3: Personality

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Q1) During the Rorschach Inkblot Test, a person responds to cards depicting black-and-white and colored inkblots, and the examiner records the person's responses verbatim and also his or her gestures, behaviors, and other reactions.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In Freud's theory, the correct order of the psychosexual stages is: (1) oral, (2) anal, (3) phallic, (4) latency, and (5) genital stages.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Carolina was reprimanded by her boss for not wearing appropriate attire to work. She was angry at her boss because he scolded her in front of the entire office. Instead of releasing her anger on her boss, Carolina went home and kicked her dog as soon as it approached her. Carolina's behavior illustrates the ego defense mechanism of sublimation.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Most personality theories focus on very limited aspects of human behavior.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Section 4: Personality

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Q1) On her birthday, Rose was given a new computer by her children. However, she has never turned it on because she doesn't think she will be able to learn how to use it. How would Albert Bandura explain Rose's behavior?

A)Rose is very low in Factor 3, Openness to Experience.

B)Rose's beliefs of self-efficacy are very weak in regards to learning how to use a computer.

C)Being able to use a computer is incompatible with Rose's ISFP (introverted, sensing, feeling, and perceiving) personality type.

D)Because of her basic anxiety, Rose is using a psychological defense mechanism called denial.

Q2) When describing human aggression, _____ argued that "the massive threats to human welfare are generally brought about by deliberate acts of principle, rather than unrestrained acts of impulse."

A)Bandura

B)Skinner

C)Maslow

D)Freud

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Chapter 10: Section 5: Personality

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Q1) According to _____, each person is highly motivated to act in a way that is consistent with his or her _____.

A)Albert Bandura; possible self

B)Carl Rogers; self-concept

C)Carl Jung; anima or animus

D)Raymond Cattell; surface traits

Q2) Research on personality traits has demonstrated that:

A)personality traits are flexible and can vary greatly from one situation to another.

B)many personality traits can be associated with particular unconscious conflicts or fixation at a particular psychosexual stage.

C)the actualizing tendency is the most fundamental personality trait.

D)personality traits are remarkably consistent over the lifespan.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the five factors in the five-factor model of personality?

A)psychoticism

B)neuroticism

C)openness to experience

D)agreeableness

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Chapter 11: Section 1: Social Psychology

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Q1) Name and describe seven common attributional biases and explanatory patterns.

Q2) What is a stereotype, and what is stereotype threat? What scientific evidence exists to support the notion of stereotype threat?

Q3) Describe the findings of Solomon Asch's research on conformity.

Q4) Describe how in-group and out-group thinking, negative stereotypes, dehumanization, prejudice, and cognitive dissonance contributed to the abuse of prisoners at Abu Ghraib prison in Iraq.

Q5) Do attitudes always guide behavior? Describe the conditions under which a person is most likely to behave in a way that is consistent with his or her attitudes.

Q6) Summarize the advantages and disadvantages of the social categorization process.

Q7) What is person perception, and what is social categorization? Describe the role that explicit and implicit cognition play in these processes.

Q8) Describe the case of Kitty Genovese. What role did the bystander effect and diffusion of responsibility play in her case?

Q9) Describe how implicit attitudes differ from explicit attitudes, and explain how implicit attitudes are measured using the Implicit Association Test (IAT).

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Chapter 11: Section 2: Social Psychology

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Q1) The performance of a behavior in response to a direct command is called:

A)conformity.

B)obedience.

C)prosocial behavior.

D)altruistic behavior.

Q2) On the first day of high school, Cindy wasn't sure what to wear. Ultimately, she decided to wear a pair of jeans. However, when she got to school, she saw that all the other girls were wearing skirts. When Cindy went home for lunch, she changed into a skirt before returning to school. Cindy's behavior best illustrates the importance of:

A)informational social influence.

B)prosocial behavior.

C)formative social influence.

D)the "feel good, do good" effect.

Q3) Of the following factors, which is NOT one that will make you more likely to conform to the group's norms?

A)You have already expressed commitment to a different idea or opinion.

B)You are strongly attracted to the group and want to be a member of it.

C)You are facing a unanimous majority of four or five people.

D)You must give your response in front of the group.

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Page 56

Chapter 11: Section 3: Social Psychology

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Q1) Right up until the time she walked into the voting booth, Brianna had mixed feelings about both candidates. But after she voted, she expressed much more positive sentiments about the candidate she voted for and seemed sharper in her negative comments about the candidate she rejected. This is an example of the self-serving bias.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The scientific study of conformity and obedience demonstrated the degree to which our behavior is influenced by situational factors.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In Stanley Milgram's original study almost all of the subjects refused to continue with the experiment upon reaching the 330-volt level.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Informational social influence is behavior that is motivated by the desire to be correct.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Section 4: Social Psychology

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Q1) Researchers Michael Morris and Kaiping Peng compared Chinese versus American newspaper reports of two different mass murders. Morris and Peng found that:

A)the Chinese reporters were more likely than the American reporters to emphasize personal, internal attributes in explaining the actions of the murderer, such as the person's "bad temper" or "history of being mentally unstable."

B)Chinese and American reporters both tended to emphasize situational, external factors in explaining the behavior of each murderer.

C)if the murderer was of the same nationality as the reporter, the reporter was much more likely to blame the victim because of hindsight bias.

D)American reporters were more likely than the Chinese reporters to emphasize personal, internal attributes in explaining the actions of the murderer, such as the person's "bad temper" or "history of being mentally unstable."

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Chapter 11: Section 5: Social Psychology

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Q1) On numerous occasions in the past, Destiny had strongly advocated alternative energy sources and less reliance on fossil fuels. So, her friend Sara was surprised to see Destiny drive up in a large gas-guzzling SUV. Sara asked, "So, Destiny, how do you guys like your new SUV?" Without a moment's hesitation, Destiny replied, "You know, we really needed a bigger vehicle to haul the kids and all their soccer stuff around. And I sure don't have any problems fitting all the grocery sacks in the back!" Destiny's change in attitude to match her behavior reflects which of the following concepts?

A)self-serving bias

B)hindsight bias.

C)cognitive dissonance

D)diffusion of responsibility

Q2) Joey and Ross were good friends. Joey was a very handsome guy, and Ross was a homely, nerdy-looking guy. Joey is likely to be perceived by other people as being _____ than Ross.

A)more intelligent, happier, and better adjusted

B)less intelligent, less happy, and less well adjusted

C)lonelier, less popular, and more socially anxious

D)more intelligent, more popular, but less happy

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59

Chapter 12: Section 1: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Describe the experience of the fight-or-flight response, and explain the conditions under which fight-or-flight may be helpful or harmful to physical health.

Q2) Provide an original example of a stressful experience, and use it to illustrate the definition of stress, noting the role of cognitive appraisal in stress.

Q3) Health psychologists are guided by the biopsychosocial model. Explain the focus of this model.

Q4) What kinds of stressors have been found to influence the effectiveness of the immune system, and what are the practical implications of these findings?

Q5) Do personality factors cause disease? Describe the research findings on this topic and explain why psychologists and other scientists are cautious in the statements they make about the connections between personality and health.

Q6) Explain how feelings of control influence the experience of stress. Under what conditions does this phenomenon occur, and is this true for all cultures?

Q7) Discuss gender differences in responding to stress, contrasting the tend-and-befriend response with the fight-or-flight response.

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Page 60

Chapter 12: Section 2: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) The _____ response refers to the rapidly occurring chain of internal physical reactions that prepare people to react to an immediate threat.

A)stress contagion

B)general adaptation

C)escape-avoidance

D)fight-or-flight

Q2) People in the _____ socioeconomic levels of society tend to have the _____ levels of psychological distress, illness, and death.

A)lowest; lowest

B)highest; highest

C)lowest; highest

D)highest and lowest; same

Q3) The final exam period was very stressful for Maria, and at the end of the semester she got very sick with a viral infection. Her body's _____ system will produce _____ to help fight against the virus.

A)endocrine; corticosteroids

B)sympathetic nervous; catecholamines

C)immune; lymphocytes

D)immune; catecholamines

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Chapter 12: Section 3: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Distancing is an emotion-focused coping strategy in which the individual acknowledges the stressor but attempts to minimize or eliminate its emotional impact.

A)True

B)False

Q2) First-year law students who were generally positive and optimistic had better immune system functioning than first-year law students who were more pessimistic.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Although racism and discrimination can create social problems, they are not significant sources of ongoing or chronic stress for those who are discriminated against on the basis of their race.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The daily hassles that we all experience can be annoying and irritating, but there is no evidence that their effects are cumulative and can have consequences for health and well-being.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Section 4: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) According to Culture and Human Behavior: The Stress of Adapting to a New Culture, which pattern of acculturation tends to produce the LOWEST level of acculturative stress?

A)marginalization

B)assimilation

C)integration

D)separation

Q2) Psychologist Janice Kiecolt-Glaser is known for:

A)describing the endocrine system pathways involved in response to chronic stress.

B)research demonstrating that even minor stressors, such as taking exams, can reduce the effectiveness of immune system functioning.

C)explaining why women exhibit the "tend-and-befriend" response rather than the "fight-or-flight" response when threatened.

D)her research on classically conditioning the immune system, which helped establish the interdisciplinary field of psychoneuroimmunology.

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Chapter 12: Section 5: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) According to _____, the _____ response is adaptive and increases the chances of survival when an organism is threatened.

A)Hans Selye; stress contagion

B)Robert Ader; classically conditioned

C)Janice Kiecolt-Glaser; psychoneuroimmunological

D)Walter Cannon; fight-or-flight

Q2) _____ is an enzyme that has the capacity to add DNA to shortened telomeres, rebuilding and extending the length of telomeres.

A)Monamine oxidase

B)Cortisol

C)Insulin

D)Telomerase

Q3) _____ is guided by the biopsychosocial model of health, illness, and well-being.

A)Clinical psychiatry

B)Health psychology

C)Psychoneuroimmunology

D)Developmental psychology

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64

Chapter 13: Section 1: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Teresa is a 51-year-old mother of three children. Since childhood, Teresa has had difficulties with controlling her emotions and behaviors. Beginning in her teenage years, Teresa started stealing from stores, friends, and family members. Often, the items had little or no monetary value or she had no need for them. For example, she once stole a lint brush from her aunt and boots that were three sizes too large from a co-worker. Friends and family have always been perplexed by Teresa's behavior, wondering why she would hurt and betray her loved ones over such insignificant items. What disorder does Teresa have, and what are the primary characteristics of this disorder?

Q2) What symptoms characterize bipolar disorder?

Q3) Joel has persistent and recurring complaints of bodily symptoms that are accompanied by abnormal thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. For instance, when Joel gets a headache, he panics, calls his wife, and tells her he has a brain tumor. After eating certain foods, Joel sometimes gets heartburn. On three occasions, he has gone to the hospital to make sure he wasn't having a heart attack. What disorder does Joel likely have? What clues suggest that Joel has this disorder?

Q4) What is obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), and what are the most common types of obsessions and compulsions?

Q5) Describe the culture-based syndrome called hikkomori.

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Chapter 13: Section 2: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) A study by psychologist Henry Steadman and his colleagues monitored the behavior of more than 1,000 former mental patients for a year after they were discharged from psychiatric facilities. They also monitored the behavior of a matched control group of people who were not former mental patients but were living in the same neighborhood. What did the study find?

A)The people in the matched control group were more than twice as likely to smoke cigarettes as the former mental patients.

B)Compared to the control group, the former mental patients were almost three times as likely to behave violently during the year.

C)Compared to the control group, the former mental patients were more likely to be victims of violent crime.

D)The former mental patients did not have a higher rate of violence than the control group.

Q2) The highest rate of suicide in the United States occurs in which age group?

A)the 15-to-24 age group

B)the 6-to-14 age group

C)the 35-to-44 age group

D)the 75+ age group

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66

Chapter 13: Section 3: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Over the last year, Emily's fear of having a panic attack in a public place and being unable to escape has intensified to the point that she rarely leaves her house or goes to new places. Emily appears to be suffering from agoraphobia.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Global, persistent, chronic, and excessive apprehension is the main feature of panic disorder.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The DSM-5 includes the symptoms, the criteria that must be met to make a diagnosis, and the frequency, typical course, and risk factors for each disorder.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The fear of having a panic attack in a place from which escape would be difficult or impossible is called ergophobia.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Section 4: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Although she has never told anyone about it, Private Ross is often troubled by flashbacks and nightmares after experiencing high-intensity guerrilla warfare during a tour of duty in Afghanistan. Although she tries to suppress the thoughts, they keep coming back to her. She feels emotionally numb and is beginning to have trouble concentrating at work. Ross's symptoms are an example of:

A)taijin kyofusho.

B)PTSD.

C)obsessions.

D)compulsions.

Q2) Which of the following physical symptoms often accompanies major depressive disorder?

A)severe back pain

B)high blood pressure

C)anger

D)anxiety

Q3) A commonly observed _____ symptom that occurs in schizophrenia is _____.

A)negative; delusions

B)positive; alogia

C)negative; flat affect

D)positive; avolition

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Chapter 13: Section 5: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Which of the following statements about social anxiety disorder is TRUE?

A)People with social anxiety disorder typically are unaware that their fears are unreasonable or excessive.

B)Social anxiety disorder is also referred to as phonophobia.

C)People with social anxiety disorder are intensely afraid of having a panic attack in a public place.

D)More women than men experience social anxiety disorder.

Q2) _____ is characterized by symptoms of extensive amnesia, wandering or traveling, and confusion about one's personal identity.

A)Schizophrenia

B)Borderline personality disorder

C)Agoraphobia

D)Dissociative fugue

Q3) According to the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R), the median age of onset for any disorder is _____ years.

A)14

B)24

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Page 69

Chapter 14: Section 1: Therapies

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Q1) Compare and contrast the first-generation antidepressants with the second-generation antidepressants and identify the newest antidepressant drugs that have been developed.

Q2) Describe how Mary Cover Jones treated the boy Peter, and identify the therapeutic technique that she developed.

Q3) Compare and contrast the basic assumptions of psychoanalysis and client-centered therapy.

Q4) How do paraprofessionals and lay counselors differ?

Q5) According to Aaron Beck, what are some of the cognitive biases that operate in depressed people?

Q6) What are the assumptions and key ideas of interpersonal therapy?

Q7) Explain the technique called motivational interviewing, and describe the situations in which it is used.

Q8) Christopher has been depressed for over six months. He has gained weight, his sleep is disturbed, and he and his wife are discussing divorce. Christopher's self-esteem has declined as a result of his weight gain and marital difficulties. How would Freud and Rogers explain the source of Christopher's problems?

Page 70

Q9) How do short-term dynamic therapies differ from traditional psychoanalysis?

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Chapter 14: Section 2: Therapies

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Q1) JoAnn has just begun taking a tricyclic antidepressant. When can she expect to experience a reduction in her symptoms of major depressive disorder?

A)within hours, as neurotransmitter levels rise shortly after taking a tricyclic antidepressant

B)within days, as it takes a few days for neurotransmitter levels to increase

C)within about four to six weeks, even though neurotransmitter levels increase within hours of taking a tricyclic antidepressant

D)within hours, as neurotransmitter levels decrease shortly after taking a tricyclic antidepressant

Q2) To deal with 4-year-old Anne's temper tantrums at home and preschool, the behavior therapist trained Anne's parents and her preschool teachers to modify the problem behavior by using _____ and _____, which are two techniques based on operant conditioning.

A)punishment; conditional acceptance

B)unconditional acceptance; empathic understanding

C)extinction; positive reinforcement

D)counterconditioning; systematic desensitization

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Chapter 14: Section 3: Therapies

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Q1) The first antipsychotic medications effectively reduced both the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Most self-help groups are directed by a mental health professional who guides the group members in helping each other with both common and unique problems.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The basic assumption of the biomedical therapies is that the symptoms of most psychological disorders involve biological factors, such as abnormal brain chemistry.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In traditional psychoanalysis, the therapist strives to remain as neutral as possible to produce "optimal frustration" in the patient so that the patient transfers and projects unresolved conflicts onto the psychoanalyst.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Section 4: Therapies

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Q1) Peter recently underwent virtual reality therapy, which is a form of computer-assisted _____ used to help people conquer phobias such as fear of heights.

A)systematic desensitization

B)aversive conditioning

C)contingency management

D)cognitive reorganization

Q2) To help Woody conquer his fear of driving, Dr. Furlong develops a treatment plan that includes shaping, positive reinforcement, systematic desensitization, and challenging Woody's irrational beliefs. Dr. Furlong is probably practicing which form of psychotherapy?

A)virtual reality (VR) therapy

B)short-term dynamic therapy (STDT)

C)cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

D)interpersonal therapy (IPT)

Q3) Behavioral therapy is to _____ as cognitive therapy is to _____.

A)unconscious conflicts; conscious beliefs

B)illogical patterns of thinking; maladaptive learning

C)maladaptive learning; illogical patterns of thinking

D)conscious beliefs; unconscious conflicts

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Page 73

Chapter 14: Section 5: Therapies

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Q1) Taijin kyofusho is:

A)a form of meditation used in collectivistic cultures that has been found to be highly effective in treating social anxiety disorders.

B)a variation of major depressive disorder seen primarily in Asian countries that is characterized by despondency over failing to live up to family or community expectations.

C)the Japanese word used to describe a disorder that is very similar to dissociative identity disorder.

D)a form of social anxiety that usually affects young Japanese males.

Q2) An eating disorder in which the individual refuses to maintain a minimally normal body weight, is extremely afraid of gaining weight or becoming fat, and has a distorted perception about the size of his or her body is called:

A)cyclothymic disorder.

B)anorexia nervosa.

C)bulimia nervosa.

D)dysthymia.

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