Psychological Science
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Psychological Science is an introduction to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. This course explores the foundational principles, research methods, and key concepts of psychology, including biological, cognitive, developmental, and social perspectives. Students will examine how psychological theories are developed and tested, analyze the ways in which individuals perceive, think, feel, and act, and apply psychological principles to everyday life. The course is designed to foster critical thinking about human behavior and encourage students to consider how psychological science contributes to understanding individuals and society.
Recommended Textbook
THINK Social Psychology 1st Canadian Edition by Kimberley Duff
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Page 2
Chapter 1: What Is Social Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is most true concerning social psychology's relationship to other disciplines?
A) Social psychology can help answer research questions relevant to economists but not business leaders.
B) Social psychology has little utility for other disciplines and social psychologists primarily work alone.
C) Social psychology can help researchers in many other disciplines and the possibilities for interacting with other areas are abundant.
D) Social psychology is not relevant to other disciples because it focuses too much on the role of social factors.
Answer: C
Q2) A social psychologist's main focus is on group behaviour at the societal level.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Explain the relevance of differential construal to the false consensus effect. Be sure to define the false consensus effect in your answer.
Answer: not answered
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Chapter 2: The Science of Social Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) One reason random assignment is considered important in experimental research is because:
A) it allows researchers to determine which two variables are correlated to one another.
B) it allows a more representative sample of participants to be chosen for the study .
C) it allows researchers the ability to infer cause and effect.
D) it both allows a more representative sample of participants to be chosen for the study and it allows researchers the ability to infer cause and effect.
Answer: C
Q2) As your book describes, Rosenthal and Jacobson conducted a study in 1969 which showed that teachers' expectations about the intelligence level of students influenced their subsequent behaviour and treatment of the students. This study illustrates a potential problem known as ____________.
A) experimenter bias
B) placebo effect
C) participant bias
D) subject bias
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Social Cognition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define schema and provide an example.
Answer: not answered
Q2) The _____________ heuristic refers to the notion that we use a number as a starting point on which to anchor our judgment.
A) availability
B) anchoring and adjustment
C) framing
D) representativeness
Answer: B
Q3) Once they are formed, schemas are easy to change.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Triplet (1992) found that participants involved in a hypothetical medical decision task were more likely to label heterosexual patients as having AIDS (independent of their symptoms) relative to homosexual patients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: The Self
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Sample Questions
Q1) Self-verification gives us the illusion of having control.
A)True
B)False
Q2) John skips all of his classes on most Fridays. He does not think it's a big deal and believes most other people skip classes on Fridays too. This best represents an example of which of the following concepts?
A) Cognitive distortion bias
B) Self-fulfilling prophecy
C) Self-serving attribution
D) False consensus effect
Q3) Which term best describes the notion that we see ourselves through the eyes of other people?
A) Self-concept
B) Self-efficacy
C) Self-esteem
D) Looking glass self
Q4) Unrealistic optimism may lead people to take fewer precautions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define the spotlight effect.
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Chapter 5: Social Perception
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Q1) Suppose someone robbed a bank. How would Megan, who is from an individualistic culture, be most likely to explain this behaviour?
A) The robber is immoral.
B) The robber is stealing to take care of his family.
C) The robber had a poor upbringing and didn't know right from wrong.
D) The robber was negatively influenced by his peers.
Q2) Olson and Marsheutz (2005) found that exposure to pictures of beautiful faces leads to faster categorization of ________ relative to exposure to unattractive faces.
A) nonverbal behaviour
B) negative traits
C) positive traits
D) verbal behaviour
Q3) Suppose a child steals money from his sibling. Provide both a dispositional and situational explanation for this behaviour.
Q4) When are we more likely to be accurate when forming impressions of other people?
Q5) Compare and contrast the types of attributions that are made in individualistic cultures compared with collectivist cultures.
Q6) Define spontaneous trait inference and provide an example.
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Chapter 6: Attitudes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anna will likely experience post-decisional dissonance after she chooses between two equally attractive universities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An attitude that one recognizes and can control is known as a(n) __________.
A) explicit attitude
B) unconscious attitude
C) implicit attitude
D) internal attitude
Q3) What do positive punishment and negative punishment have in common?
A) They are both designed to increase a desired behaviour.
B) They both involve the addition of an undesirable stimulus.
C) They are both designed to decrease the frequency of a behaviour.
D) They both involve the removal of something pleasurable.
Q4) Sari is afraid of horses. Describe how you could use modelling to reduce her fear.
Q5) Positive punishment involves adding an undesirable stimulus in order to increase a behaviour.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 7: The Power of Persuasion
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Q1) Linda is distracted by her kids while she is reading an article touting the benefits of a new fad diet. Describe how the length of the message will influence her susceptibility to the persuasive communication. If Linda were processing the message through the central route would the length of the message have the same impact? Why or why not?
Q2) Even though Bob cares deeply about the issue of drunk driving, he will process a message about the subject through the peripheral route if he is in a hurry.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Researchers gave participants one of three messages, each differing in the level of fear, about the dangers of not practicing oral hygiene. The message that resulted in the most improvement of oral hygiene had a(n) ________ level of fear.
A) absent
B) mild
C) very high
D) extreme
Q4) How might persuasion and the use of persuasion tactics differ across cultures?
Q5) What is the sleeper effect? When is this effect less likely to occur?
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Social Influence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Robert Cialdini argued that public service announcements would be most effective if they focused on:
A) explicit norms.
B) descriptive norms.
C) injunctive norms
D) persona norms.
Q2) ___________ is a type of social influence in which an individual changes his or her behaviour to stay in line with social norms.
A) Pluralistic ignorance
B) Conformity
C) Obedience
D) Compliance
Q3) Which persuasion technique is fueled by the commitment and consistency principle?
A) Door-in-the-face technique
B) Foot-in-the-door technique
C) Lowball technique
D) Both the low ball technique and the foot-in-the-door technique
Q4) Name and elaborate on two strategies that can be used to resist obedience.
Q5) Define and describe the chameleon effect. Provide an example.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Power of the Group
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Q1) According to the social identity deindividuation (SIDE) model, why does the phenomenon of deindividuation occur?
A) Because there is a loss of identity
B) Because there is a loss of self awareness
C) Because there is increased arousal
D) Because there is a shift from identification with oneself to identification with the group.
Q2) The concept of __________ may help explain why big crowds of people engage in violent acts that they would normally never commit on their own.
A) social facilitation
B) social loafing
C) deindividuation
D) evaluation apprehension
Q3) _________is the perceived incompatibility of actions, goals, or ideas.
A) Combat
B) Warfare
C) Conflict
D) Groupthink
Q4) Name and describe the three factors that may lead to arousal.
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Chapter 10: Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination
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Q1) Why are negative emotions, such as anger and fear, argued to increase the use of stereotyping?
A) Because negative emotions lead to central route processing
B) Because negative emotions lead to more controlled processing
C) Because negative emotions reduce the amount of cognitive resources available to people
D) Because negative emotions lead to central route processing and controlled processing
Q2) According to Kunda and Spencer (2003), ________ does not require ________.
A) stereotype activation; stereotype application
B) stereotype application; stereotype activation
C) outgroup homogeneity; attribution errors
D) attribution errors; outgroup homogeneity
Q3) Distinguish between prejudice and discrimination.
Q4) If you dislike individuals who are gay simply because of their sexual orientation, you are exhibiting:
A) discrimination.
B) prejudice.
C) racism.
D) prejudice and discrimination.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Aggression
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Q1) Low levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin are associated with which of the following?
A) Compromised impulse control
B) Improved impulse control
C) Decreased direct aggression
D) Decreased indirect aggression
Q2) An action or process that strengthens a behaviour is known as:
A) relative deprivation.
B) modelling.
C) reinforcement.
D) positive punishment.
Q3) A mom throws a dish in anger. Her child picks up a different dish and throws it immediately after watching her aggressive behaviour. The child is:
A) modelling his mother's behaviour.
B) displaying implicit aggression.
C) displaying instrumental aggression.
D) acting instinctually and displaying implicit aggression.
Q4) Describe the General Aggression Model (GAM). What are the two major input variables that are argued to trigger events that may lead to aggression?
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Chapter 12: Attraction and Close Relationships
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Q1) Which of the following factors is likely to lead to an increase in attraction and liking?
A) Proximity
B) Opposite personalities
C) Competition
D) Reduced exposure
Q2) An evolutionary psychologist would say that a man should fear his partner's sexual infidelity because:
A) sexual competition can lead to lower self esteem.
B) sexual infidelity is an indication of bad parenting skills.
C) sexual infidelity could result in the use of his resources to raise another man's child.
D) sexual infidelity sets a bad example for his children.
Q3) In Sternberg's triangular theory of love, physical attraction and sexual consummation represent the component __________.
A) passion
B) empathy
C) commitment
D) intimacy
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14
Chapter 13: Prosocial Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the notion of kin selection, you could most easily explain which of the following helping scenarios?
A) Sarah, vacationing in another state, rescues a child from a burning building.
B) Paul dives into the freezing ocean to save a stranger.
C) Marc pays for an expensive medical treatment for his son.
D) Doug assists his neighbour in building a new shed.
Q2) You are finalizing plans for your friend's big birthday bash. Another friend offers to help pay for the party because, as she tells you, she is 'much more financially sound and has access to fun party venues that you cannot possibly afford.' In this circumstance you would likely:
A) welcome the help because you know that money is needed to throw a good birthday bash.
B) view your friend's help as humiliating and patronizing.
C) let your friend plan the party instead.
D) feel happy that your friend is helping.
Q3) Behaviour that is driven by selfish motives is known as egoistic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In what situations are men more likely to help compared to women?
Q5) Define prosocial behaviour. Provide an example.
Page 15
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