Psychological Science and the Legal System Test Bank
Course Introduction
This course explores the intersection of psychological principles and the legal system, examining how scientific research in psychology informs legal processes, policies, and practices. Topics include the reliability of eyewitness testimony, jury decision-making, competence and criminal responsibility, the psychology of confessions, assessment and treatment of offenders, and the impact of social and cognitive biases in legal contexts. Students will also discuss ethical considerations and the role of psychologists as expert witnesses, with an emphasis on the critical examination of empirical evidence to evaluate legal issues.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic and Legal Psychology Psychological Science Applied to Law 2nd Edition by Mark Costanzo
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866 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Section 1: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the approaches of psychology and law. Which system is more open to change?
Answer: Main points:
Psychology and law represent two different cultures. They differ in goals (truth vs. justice), methods (data vs. rulings), and styles of inquiry (objectivity vs. advocacy).
Psychology as a science is based on relativism (of knowledge and theories).
Law as a system is rooted in the past (rulings, precedents).
Psychology is more egalitarian, law is a more hierarchical system.
Psychology is more open to change since science implies skepticism and new discoveries while law abides by past decisions (precedents).
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3
Chapter 1: Section 2: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The knowledge and skills of developmental psychologists might be relevant for the legal system in which one of these cases?
A) When studying the dynamics of jury deliberation.
B) When assessing a mentally ill defendant for potential risk of violence.
C) When deciding whether the eyewitness is able to remember the scene of crime.
D) When evaluating the state of mind of a teenager who brought guns to school.
Answer: D
Q2) Roles that psychologists may play in the legal system include the following:
A) auxiliary judges.
B) gatekeepers.
C) reformers.
D) parapsychologists.
Answer: C
Q3) Amicus curiae briefs:
A) help experts testifying in court get their point across.
B) provide a way to influence the court when expert testimony is not allowed.
C) summarize the questions raised by the jury during deliberation of a verdict.
D) reflect scientists' lack of interest in the legal system.
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 1: Section 3: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research presented in Chapter 1 suggests that most state court judges _____ their gatekeeping role established in Daubert _____ adequately define the four guidelines for admissibility.
A) do not support; because they cannot B) support; and they can C) do not support; though they can D) support; whereas they cannot
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following scientists did NOT play a prominent role in the history of forensic psychology?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Alfred Adler
C) Hugo Münsterberg
D) Karl Llewellyn
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 2: Section 1: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) What has been the U.S. Supreme Court's position on the use of deception by police during interrogations? How does the use of this technique compare with the use of deception during interrogations in other countries, such as England and Wales? What are some worrisome moral implications of the use of deception by police during interrogations?
Q2) Describe some common types of false confessions, reasons behind them, and police tactics that lead to a higher incidence of false confessions.
Q3) What are some possible reforms that can be implemented in police interrogation procedures to reduce the risk of false confessions?
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Chapter 2: Section 2: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) Shane was involved in a highly charged court case. His job was to provide an overview of research to assist the jury in making a well-informed decision regarding the suspect, in particular, in regard to the suspect's confession. Shane was called in to serve in what capacity?
A) Special contributor to the court.
B) Expert witness.
C) Crime scene investigator.
D) Clinical psychologist.
Q2) A robbery suspect is apprehended and being read his Miranda rights by the police woman arresting him. The suspect is most likely to _____ his Miranda rights.
A) exercise
B) waive
C) remember
D) enjoy
Q3) Utilization of a team approach to interrogation is often referred to as:
A) tagging.
B) good cop-bad cop approach.
C) misunderstanding.
D) ambiguous interrogation.
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Page 7
Chapter 2: Section 3: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) All of the following are valid reasons for police to prefer confessions to other types of evidence. The only EXCEPTION is that:
A) confessions make gathering other evidence less critical.
B) juries almost always convict defendants who have confessed to committing a crime.
C) confessions mean the person is guilty of the crime they confessed to committing.
D) lengthy trials can be avoided because a confession is likely to lead to a plea deal.
Q2) Confessions are generally ruled inadmissible for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A) lying by the police during interrogations.
B) promises of lenient sentences.
C) the use of physical force and threats of violence.
D) sleep or food deprivation.
Q3) What was traditionally called "the third degree" refers to:
A) interrogation tactics that included direct physical violence.
B) interrogation tactics that used purely psychological means of coercion.
C) the good cop-bad cop approach.
D) having three officers present during an interrogation.
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8
Chapter 3: Section 1: Lie Detection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the limitations of fMRI studies in the detection of deception.
Q2) Compare and contrast the relevant-irrelevant test (RIT), the comparison question test (CQT), and the guilty knowledge test (GKT).
Q3) Discuss the scientific validity of the polygraph.
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Chapter 3: Section 2: Lie Detection
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Q1) The rates of accuracy of the polygraph have been calculated using controlled lab studies and mock crimes. These rates are likely to be somewhat inflated for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A) subjects in these studies do not have much to lose.
B) lies that subjects in these studies have to tell are very simple.
C) the polygraph machines used in these studies are outdated.
D) subjects in these studies were not trained in countermeasures.
Q2) Credibility assessment is also referred to as:
A) criteria-based content analysis.
B) polygraph testing.
C) lie detection.
D) eye-movement memory assessment.
Q3) Techniques such as biting the tongue, pressing the toes to the floor, or counting backwards are all examples of:
A) aiding in polygraph testing.
B) countermeasures to polygraph testing.
C) aversion to polygraph testing.
D) liar's stereotype.
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10
Chapter 3: Section 3: Lie Detection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 1993 U.S. Supreme Court decision in Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals:
A) ruled the polygraph inadmissible in all federal cases.
B) ruled the polygraph admissible in all federal cases.
C) ruled that polygraph admissibility could be determined on a case-by-case basis.
D) refused to hear arguments on the admissibility of the polygraph all together.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a comparison or control question?
A) "Did you kill Ms. Smith?"
B) "Were you at the bank on Thursday?"
C) "Have you ever taken something that did not belong to you?"
D) "Did you see Wendy Jones in the schoolyard yesterday morning?"
Q3) Lucas is very worried that somebody may find out about his activities in drug trade. When asked questions about drug selling, he would deny any involvement and likely experience the following physiological changes detected by the polygraph:
A) lower blood pressure, fatigue, and constipation.
B) changes in breathing, eye movements, and body temperature.
C) decrease in skin moisture, coughing, and dry mouth.
D) changes in blood pressure, breathing, and skin conductance.
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3 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does reliability differ from validity? Use examples to illustrate both.
Q2) How can error rate be reduced in forensic investigations?
Q3) What type of influence do the CSI TV dramas have on jurors?
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Chapter 4: Section 2: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace
Evidence
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Q1) Physical evidence may include:
A) fingerprints, fabric threads, and tire prints.
B) tire prints, shoe prints, and saliva.
C) marks for a tool, fingerprints, and skin cells.
D) bite marks, semen, and blood.
Q2) Forensic identification can best be defined as the process of linking:
A) physical evidence to a particular individual.
B) theory to fact.
C) a particular individual to a source.
D) physical evidence to a crime scene.
Q3) The text identifies three fundamental problems with forensic identification. Which of the following is NOT one of these problems?
A) Many forms of trace evidence have weak scientific foundation.
B) Forensic identification is too often conducted at crime scenes rather than in labs.
C) There are serious biases and errors in the process, which can lead to incorrect results.
D) The way scientific information is communicated to the judge of jury can be misleading.
Page 13
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Chapter 4: Section 3: The Psychology of Forensic
Trace
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Q1) Features of fingerprints are referred to as _____, and the prints found at the scene of a crime are called _____.
A) whorls; finite loops
B) loops; friction ridges
C) minutiae; latent prints
D) ridges; hidden metrics
Q2) The tendency to search out evidence that confirms our beliefs and to ignore evidence that contradicts our beliefs is known as:
A) confirmation bias.
B) contextual bias.
C) self-serving prophecy.
D) the fundamental attribution error.
Q3) Who pioneered the use of fingerprints in establishing identity?
A) Alphonse Bertillon
B) Francis Galton
C) James Watson
D) Charles Darwin
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Chapter 5: Section 1: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of a psychological autopsy and when would it be used?
Q2) Compare and contrast criminal profiling, geographic profiling, and behavioral investigative advice (BIA).
Q3) How is profiling used in criminal investigations? Is it effective?
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Chapter 5: Section 2: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) Many serial killers seem to prefer to use _____ methods of killing, such as _____.
A) intimate; strangulation or torture
B) intimate; guns or knives
C) distant; bombs or other explosive devices
D) distant; guns or poison
Q2) The NASH system is utilized to classify:
A) probative evidence.
B) criminal typology.
C) causes of death.
D) profile data.
Q3) In a study by Pinizzotto and Finkel (1990) comparing the accuracy of profiles developed by trained profilers with those of students, it was found that _____ created more accurate profiles _____.
A) students; across the board
B) profilers; but only for sex offenses
C) students; but only for murder cases
D) profilers; in all cases
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Page 16
Chapter 5: Section 3: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) Whereas _____ profiling relies on instinct, _____ profiling relies on maps and mathematics.
A) criminal; psychological
B) psychological; mathematical
C) musical; actuarial
D) psychological; geographic
Q2) A British study found that police detectives found profiling _____, and the profiles helped catch a perpetrator in _____ of the cases where profiles were developed.
A) helpful; the majority
B) not useful; none
C) helpful; a very small proportion
D) not useful; very few
Q3) Behavioral investigative advice (BIA) offers help to investigators on all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) whether a crime might be part of a series of crimes.
B) what questions to ask during police interviews.
C) how to use the media to lure the suspect into making a mistake.
D) what personality traits can be inferred from crime scene evidence.
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Chapter 6: Section 1: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) How effective is scientific jury selection?
Q2) Explain how the role of money in trial consulting may affect trial outcomes. Are there any possible solutions to the problems you have identified?
Q3) Explain the voir dire process.
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pro bono is legal service:
A) at a reduced price.
B) based on ability to pay.
C) free of charge.
D) provided on a sliding scale.
Q2) If a potential juror is asked to be removed without explanations as to why he or she is unlikely to be able to deliver an impartial verdict, this type of removal is referred to as:
A) a peremptory challenge.
B) a challenge for bias.
C) a challenge for cause.
D) a predisposition challenge.
Q3) Cognizable refers to potential jurors being:
A) acknowledged as sharing a particular characteristic setting them apart from other jurors.
B) selected based on race even if their racial characteristics are not clearly distinguishable.
C) selected based on race only when their racial characteristics are clearly visible.
D) excluded based on gender, race, religion or personality assessment.
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Sample Questions
Q1) Iris works as a trial consultant. The majority of cases she is likely to be hired for are:
A) criminal trials.
B) civil trials.
C) capital trials.
D) cases involving the government.
Q2) An attorney may use a peremptory challenge to:
A) dismiss a potential juror because of bias or prejudice.
B) dismiss a potential juror without giving a reason.
C) request a change of venue or a retrial.
D) find evidence inadmissible at trial.
Q3) The last opportunity for questioning a witness occurs during _______ examination.
A) cross
B) direct
C) redirect
D) recross
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20
Chapter 7: Section 1: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) How does human memory operate? How is it different from a video recording? If people are sure they remember the situation well, does it mean their memories are more accurate than memories of those who are not as sure?
Q2) Describe the post-identification feedback effect and give an example. What is the role of cognitive dissonance in this process?
Q3) Describe three research findings regarding improving eyewitness accuracy.
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) The process of having an eyewitness looking at one person or photograph at a time is referred to as _____ lineups.
A) simultaneous
B) coinciding
C) sequential
D) consequential
Q2) When doing research, social scientists often look at many factors. Factors that are outside the control of the legal system are referred to as:
A) system variables.
B) dependent variables.
C) independent variables.
D) estimator variables.
Q3) When the eyewitness is a child, it is likely that the accuracy of information they can provide is _____ that provided by an adult.
A) more accurate compared to B) less accurate compared to C) as accurate as.
D) more likely to be impacted by retrieval inhibition than
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Cutler, Penrod, and Dexter (1990) conducted several experiments exposing mock jurors to expert testimony about the accuracy of eyewitnesses. The authors of this study found that participants who were NOT exposed to the expert testimony:
A) underestimated the accuracy of eyewitnesses.
B) tended to side with the prosecution.
C) overestimated the accuracy of eyewitnesses.
D) tended to side with the defense.
Q2) According to research studies on eye witness identification that are described in the text, which of the following is FALSE?
A) People tend to overestimate the duration of a brief event.
B) It is more difficult for people to recognize the faces of others outside of their racial group.
C) High-stress conditions usually increase the rate of correct identifications.
D) Seeing the perpetrator hold a weapon impairs the witnesses' ability to recognize the assailant.
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23
Chapter 8: Section 1: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Explain what is malingering and why some defendants might be compelled to resort to it. Would it be in their best interests? Why or why not?
Q2) Explain why competency to stand trial (CST) is a legal and not a psychological term. What are the key elements of CST?
Q3) What does research show about the competencies of children and adolescents? Should there be specific requirements for competency to stand trial for juveniles as different from the ones for adults?
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Competency to stand trial (CST) refers to the psychological state of the accused:
A) at the time of the offense.
B) at the time of sentencing.
C) at the time of the trial.
D) before the offense was committed.
Q2) Which legal actors are ethically bound to assure that a defendant is competent to stand trial?
A) Defense attorney only.
B) Judge and the defense attorney.
C) Prosecuting attorney and the defense attorney.
D) Defense attorney, the judge and the prosecuting attorney.
Q3) The legal definition of whether an individual has the capacity to perform necessary personal or legal functions is known as:
A) competence.
B) insanity.
C) voir dire.
D) mental stability.
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) According to the information presented in Chapter 8, which of the following is FALSE regarding competency to stand trial?
A) A majority of incompetent defendants are eventually restored to competency.
B) Judges agree with the decisions of competence evaluators most of the time.
C) A majority of individuals referred for a competence evaluation are found incompetent.
D) Defendants can be medicated against their will in order to restore competence.
Q2) Regarding defendants judged to be incompetent to stand trial, which of the following is FALSE?
A) They tend to be charged with more serious crimes.
B) They have a history of drug abuse.
C) They show symptoms of current mental illness.
D) They have a history of mental health treatment.
Q3) Competency to stand trial refers to the psychological state of the defendant:
A) at the time of the crime.
B) during pre-trial proceedings.
C) at the time of sentencing.
D) at the time of trial.
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Chapter 9: Section 1: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) What major changes were instituted to the insanity defense after the trial of John Hinckley?
Q2) Why is it difficult to evaluate insanity? What factors make it different from the evaluation of competency to stand trial?
Q3) How do jurors view the insanity defense?
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) Mark has been suffering from schizophrenia for many years, and his delusions and hallucinations are sometimes hard to control even with medication. If he commits a crime, he:
A) will definitely be found not guilty by reason of insanity.
B) is likely to be committed to a mental institution instead of prison.
C) may not meet the legal definition of "insanity".
D) will be medicated against his will.
Q2) Research completed by Rita Simon (1967) found that, when different sets of jurors were given different definitions of insanity based on legal terminology, there was:
A) no impact on their verdicts.
B) some impact on their verdicts.
C) a great deal of difference in their verdicts.
D) None of the above have happened.
Q3) When determining insanity, the courts rely on:
A) clinical psychologists.
B) expert testimony.
C) expert witnesses.
D) defense attorneys.
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) In legal terminology, the guilty mind that must accompany the wrongful behavior is known as:
A) actus reas.
B) habeas corpus.
C) mens rea.
D) the Magna Carta.
Q2) Insanity refers to the defendant's state of mind:
A) during the trial process.
B) at the time the crime was committed.
C) between the time of the crime and the time of trial.
D) before the crime was committed.
Q3) Andrea Yates was diagnosed with:
A) schizophrenia.
B) dissociative identity disorder.
C) postpartum mental illness.
D) bipolar disorder.
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Chapter 10: Section 1: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) What are the advantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q2) What are rape shield laws and when do they not apply in court? Can expert testimony be problematic in this regard?
Q3) What are the disadvantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
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Chapter 10: Section 2: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) Victims of rape trauma syndrome (RTS) and battered woman syndrome (BWS) may also meet the criteria for _____, which is an established medical diagnosis.
A) borderline personality disorder
B) chronic lateness syndrome
C) posttraumatic stress disorder
D) generalized anxiety disorder
Q2) The DSM-5 contains _____ among its classifications of mental disorders.
A) the rape trauma syndrome (RTS)
B) the battered women syndrome (BWS)
C) the battered spouse syndrome (BSS)
D) It contains none of these.
Q3) According to the text, men in intimate relationships are _____ the victims of physical assault.
A) never
B) sometimes
C) often
D) as frequently as women become
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31
Chapter 10: Section 3: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) Lenore Walker has identified several characteristics that she thought most battered women shared. Which one is NOT among these characteristics?
A) Belief that women should be submissive to their husbands.
B) Tendency to accept responsibility for the abuse.
C) Poor self-image.
D) Poor family upbringing.
Q2) Researchers have identified several types of male batterers. Which type is the most common one, according to these studies?
A) Batterer with borderline personality disorder.
B) Generally violent antisocial batterer.
C) Batterer with poor self-image.
D) Relationship/family-only batterer.
Q3) Burgess and Holmstrom (1979) found that _____ of rape victims had returned to normal functioning 5 years after the rape.
A) only 5%
B) about half
C) about three quarters
D) over 95%
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Chapter 11: Section 1: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are child witnesses perceived by jurors? What kind of measures do the courts take to protect child witnesses?
Q2) Which allegations of recovered memories should be suspect?
Q3) Should anatomically detailed dolls be admissible in court? Why or why not?
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) According to the text, the use of an anatomically detailed doll with children less than 6 years of age _____ the number of false allegations of sexual abuse. A) had no bearing on B) decreased C) increased D) significantly reduced
Q2) The repression hypothesis posits that traumatic memories can be maintained in the _____ for years. A) postconscious B) preconscious C) consciousness D) unconscious
Q3) Much research has demonstrated that most victims of traumatic events _____ memories of the episode. A) have vivid B) have few C) completely repress their D) first repress, then recover their
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) The notion that traumatic memories can be pushed out of conscious awareness is called:
A) oppression.
B) regression.
C) repression.
D) confabulation.
Q2) Extensive research shows that the use of anatomically detailed dolls:
A) tends to have no effect on children's accounts in sexual abuse investigations.
B) increases the number of false allegations of children in sexual abuse cases.
C) decreases the number of true allegations by children in sexual abuse cases.
D) only has an effect on girls but not on boys in recalling sexual abuse.
Q3) One should be especially skeptical about claims of recovered memories in all of the following cases EXCEPT:
A) abuse involving satanic rituals.
B) abuse that occurred before the age of 3.
C) memories of abuse that began as vague impressions.
D) abuse that began in adolescence.
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Page 35
Chapter
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Q1) How do the best interest of the child standard (BICS) and the tender years doctrine differ?
Q2) How does legal custody differ from physical custody? Which custody arrangement are common and which are not?
Q3) What are the advantages of mediation over litigation? Who is more likely to seek litigation?
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Juries and Judges As Decision
Makers
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Q1) Several longitudinal studies have revealed that the majority of youngsters that have been through a divorce:
A) develop more slowly.
B) develop psychological disorders.
C) adapt and develop into healthy adults.
D) are more prone to mental illness.
Q2) In recent decades, the instances of joint legal custody have been:
A) staying about the same as in the past.
B) decreasing.
C) increasing.
D) almost nonexistent.
Q3) When there is a history of spousal abuse, the abuser may use the mediation process to have access to the victim. In this case, mediation:
A) may not be the best approach.
B) would help both people to work out their issues.
C) is not offered as an alternative.
D) is the most recommended approach.
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Page 37
Chapter 12: Section 3 Juries and Judges As Decision Makers
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Q1) The case of Painter v. Bannister (1966) illustrates:
A) the doctrine Pater familias.
B) the wide discretion the courts have in awarding custody.
C) the tender years doctrine.
D) the reasonable parent standard.
Q2) One commonly used test in custody evaluations is the Rorschach Inkblot Test. The reason why it is not advisable to use this test is that it:
A) lacks validity and reliability in forensic evaluations.
B) has the potential to cause psychological distress to the subject.
C) is extremely complex to interpret and requires years of practice on the part of the evaluator.
D) is intimate in nature, which puts the subject in an uncomfortable position.
Q3) To circumvent the vagueness of the best interest of the child standard, many states have adopted:
A) the joint legal custody standard.
B) the primary caretaker rule.
C) preferred custody arrangements.
D) the approximation rule.
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Chapter 13: Section 1: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) What kind of reforms would you suggest to improve the jury trial process?
Q2) How does the mathematical model of jury decision making differ from the story model of jury decision making?
Q3) How does inadmissible evidence influence juror decision making?
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) According to the text, two models are utilized when describing the decision-making process of jury members. These two models are known as _____ and _____.
A) mathematical models; statistical models
B) statistical models; bias models
C) story models; mathematical models
D) statistical models; story models
Q2) Unanimity is required by _____ states in capital murder trials.
A) 25
B) 30
C) 45
D) all 50
Q3) The foreperson of a jury is regarded as its leader. However, a foreperson may or may not exert disproportionate influence on a verdict. In fact, he or she may become more focused on the _____ and on acting as a(n)_____.
A) case itself; strong juror
B) procedural issues; moderator
C) organizational issues; strong juror
D) case itself; expert witness
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Chapter 13: Section 3: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Research on expert testimony's effect on jurors finds that the most persuasive testimony meets all of the following criteria EXCEPT:
A) It is clear.
B) It is specific to the issues of the case.
C) It is complex.
D) It is somewhat repetitive.
Q2) Compared with 12-person juries, 6-person juries:
A) deliberate longer.
B) generate more arguments.
C) are less predictable.
D) recall evidence more accurately.
Q3) Which of the following is most strongly correlated with jury verdicts?
A) The severity of filed charges.
B) Pretrial publicity against the defendant.
C) The strength of evidence.
D) The complexity of instructions to the jury.
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Q1) How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment?
Q2) What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?
Q3) What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment?
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) Involuntary civil commitment is based on what:
A) a person might do in the future.
B) a person has done.
C) the community expects.
D) is available in terms beds in institutions.
Q2) Many psychological experts suggest that they are _____ at predicting future violence.
A) excellent
B) very good
C) good
D) not very good
Q3) According to the text, research studies find that the rate of sexual reoffense is _____ than that of other crimes.
A) slightly higher
B) significantly higher
C) lower
D) not different
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Page 43
Chapter 14: Section 3: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) The rate at which an event occurs in a given population is called the _____ rate.
A) actuarial
B) statistical
C) base
D) occurrence
Q2) There are some important ways in which involuntary civil commitment is different from criminal confinement, as both currently exist. Which of the following is NOT one of these differences?
A) The burden of proof: clear and convincing evidence versus beyond a reasonable doubt.
B) The length of confinement: indeterminate versus specified.
C) The reason for confinement: punishment versus prevention of harm.
D) The decision-making authority: court versus psychiatrists.
Q3) Beliefs that other people or forces are controlling one's thoughts or implanting thoughts in one's mind are referred to as:
A) threat/control-override symptoms.
B) diathesis/stress symptoms.
C) anger/impulse symptoms.
D) anosognosia.
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Chapter 15: Section 1: Predicting Violent Behavior: the
Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) What do studies show about racism in the United States? How does the modern-era racism differ from the older forms of racism?
Q2) What steps can be taken to reduce prejudice?
Q3) What is psychological injury as it applies to sexual harassment? Which standards of injury are currently applied in sexual harassment cases?
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Chapter 15: Section 2: Predicting Violent Behavior: the
Psychology of Risk
Assessment
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Q1) When men are victimized by harassment, the harassing behavior is more likely to come:
A) from another man, rather than a woman.
B) from a female supervisor.
C) from a female subordinate.
D) from a female equal.
Q2) Reasonable accommodations are required by employers to permit employees to work effectively despite their disabilities. Under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), reasonable accommodations are required to be made:
A) regardless of the situation.
B) unless there is nobody available to enforce them.
C) unless the accommodations cause undue hardship on the employer.
D) only for those disabilities that are included in a special addendum to ADA.
Q3) Studies have shown that the most likely targets of harassment are:
A) attractive young men.
B) young, unmarried women.
C) divorcees.
D) minorities.
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Chapter 15: Section 3: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) Studies show that in-person interviews _____ are often systematically biased against minorities, women, and the elderly. A better approach, and a more predictive one, is _____.
A) that are structured interviews with a set list of questions; interviews conducted in a free-form manner
B) that are structured interviews with a set list of questions; interviews conducted over the phone using a computerized voice
C) conducted in a free-form manner; structured interviews with a set list of questions
D) conducted in a free-form manner; interviews conducted over the phone using a computerized voice
Q2) It is difficult to obtain exact estimates of how often harassment in the workplace occurs. All of the following are valid reasons for this EXCEPT:
A) there are no uniform questionnaires asking about workplace harassment.
B) people's memories about their workplace experiences may be inaccurate. C) people often refuse to disclose information about workplace harassment. D) rates of harassment vary across work settings.
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Chapter 16: Section 1: Corrections: Sentencing,
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Q1) What was the goal of determinate sentencing and how does it work? What are the main problems with mandatory sentencing in general and with one of its versionsthree-strikes laws - in particular?
Q2) Discuss three alternatives to prison.
Q3) Describe the four goals of imprisonment.
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Chapter 16: Section 2: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) Individuals who are incarcerated in supermax prisons are likely to belong to the following categories EXCEPT:
A) extremely violent criminals.
B) those who have significant behavior problems.
C) especially serious offenders.
D) those who ran Ponzi schemes.
Q2) One of the main problems with the new prisons in the United States was that in addition to being expensive and impractical, the extreme isolation often caused prisoners to become:
A) insane.
B) talkative.
C) violent.
D) workaholics.
Q3) According to the text, drug offenders constitute approximately _____ of the population in federal prisons.
A) less than 10%
B) a quarter
C) half
D) three quarters
Page 49
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Chapter 16: Section 3: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) According to the text, all of the following factors have contributed to the stunning rise of the prison population in the United States, EXCEPT:
A) "war on drugs."
B) increased use of parole.
C) mandatory sentencing.
D) increased imprisonment of juveniles.
Q2) The largest single group of inmates in federal prisons, constituting almost half of all federal prisoners, consists of individuals who have been convicted of:
A) murder.
B) drug offenses.
C) bank robbery.
D) tax evasion.
Q3) The average cost of imprisonment for prisoners over the age of 55 is over _____ per year.
A) $30,000
B) $50,000
C) $80,000
D) $100,000
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Chapter 17: Section 1: The Death Penalty
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Q1) What are Americans' views on the death penalty? Why is it important to consider public opinion on this issue?
Q2) Discuss the racial disparities in administering the death penalty.
Q3) Is the death penalty an effective deterrent to murder?
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Chapter 17: Section 2: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Following Gregg v. Georgia and its companion cases, all death sentences are:
A) upheld.
B) considered unconstitutional.
C) deemed appropriate.
D) reviewed by state supreme courts.
Q2) Even though a number of states, the federal government, and the military still recognize the death penalty, executions are relatively _____ in the United States.
A) common
B) rare
C) uncontroversial
D) difficult to sentence
Q3) Different factors come into play during the sentencing phase of a homicide case such as whether the sentence should be death or life in prison with no hope of parole. Circumstances that support the death sentence are called:
A) mitigating factors.
B) aggravating factors.
C) proof of mental disease.
D) degree of conviction.
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Chapter 17: Section 3: The Death Penalty
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Q1) The two parts of a bifurcated trial are:
A) defense arguments and prosecution arguments.
B) aggravating factor presentation and mitigating factor presentation.
C) trial presentation and jury deliberation.
D) guilt phase and penalty phase.
Q2) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that mentally retarded individuals cannot be sentenced to death?
A) Roper v. Simmons (2005)
B) Ring v. Arizona (2002)
C) Lockett v. Ohio (1978)
D) Atkins v. Virginia (2002)
Q3) Generally, Americans _____ the death penalty. However, when asked to compare it with life without parole, _____ prefer punishment other than the death penalty.
A) favor; a clear majority of respondents
B) dislike; very few
C) favor; very few
D) dislike; only affluent respondents
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