Psychological Disorders
Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
This course explores the study of psychological disorders, examining their definitions, symptoms, prevalence, and impact on individuals and society. Students will gain an understanding of major categories of mental illness, such as mood disorders, anxiety disorders, schizophrenia spectrum, and personality disorders, as well as approaches to diagnosis according to current classification systems (e.g., DSM-5). Emphasis is placed on the causes and risk factors biological, psychological, and sociocultural that contribute to the development and maintenance of these conditions. The course also covers principles of treatment, including psychotherapy, pharmacology, and community interventions, while addressing stigma and ethical considerations in mental health care.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 17th Edition by Jill
M. Hooley
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17 Chapters
2107 Verified Questions
2107 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Abnormal Psychology: Overview and Research Approaches
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher who provides a certain treatment for one group and withholds treatment from a completely comparable group is using the ________ research method.
A) correlational
B) epidemiological
C) case study
D) experimental
Answer: D
Q2) What are the benefits of classifying mental disorders?
Answer: Most sciences rely on classification to provide nomenclature, to structure information, and facilitate research.
Q3) Discuss the difference between prevalence and incidence.
Answer: Prevalence is the number of active cases of a disorder in a given population during a given period of time. Incidence is the number of new cases that occur over a given period of time.
Q4) Discuss the limitations of self-report data.
Answer: Can be misleading, sometimes deliberately lie, misinterpret questions or try to present themselves more favorably or less favorably than is true.
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Chapter 2: Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior
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134 Verified Questions
134 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physicians of the Nancy School ________
A) opposed the use of hypnotism.
B) demonstrated the power of suggestion.
C) found that hypnotism was not effective in the treatment of any mental illnesses.
D) believed that hysteria was the result of brain degeneration.
Answer: B
Q2) The level of success achieved with the use of moral management is surprising because ________
A) most mental illnesses are not treatable.
B) the drugs used were usually inappropriate.
C) the majority of those hospitalized for mental illness were schizophrenic.
D) many patients suffered from syphilis, which was, at the time, incurable.
Answer: D
Q3) A form of learning in which a neutral stimulus is paired with an unconditional stimulus is called __________.
Answer: classical conditioning
Q4) Who was Wilhelm Wundt?
Answer: The man who established the first experimental psychology laboratory.
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Chapter 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints
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145 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a common method for studying genetic influences?
A) The study of specific gene defects
B) Twin studies
C) Adoption studies
D) Family history (pedigree) studies
Answer: A
Q2) The ______________ perspective in psychology takes into account biological, sociological, and psychological factors associated with a person's behaviors.
Answer: biopsychosocial
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Most behavioral disorders are determined exclusively by genes.
B) Genes play a role in most mental disorders.
C) Genes do not affect biochemical processes.
D) The genes that will be expressed in an individual are not affected by experience.
Answer: B
Q4) The site of chemical communication in the brain is the __________ .
Answer: synapse
Q5) A(n) __________ is a person's total genetic endowment.
Answer: genotype
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Chapter 4: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
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111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clinical psychologist notes that a client wears his clothes inside out, that his hair is matted, and there is dirt under his fingernails. This information is known as ________
A) clinical observation.
B) self-monitoring.
C) a dynamic formulation.
D) an observational decision tree.
Q2) "Projective" and "objective" are two types of ________ tests.
A) neuropsychological
B) intelligence
C) personality
D) psychodynamically oriented
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding assessment is true?
A) Assessment should focus only on the client's current level of functioning.
B) An adequate assessment includes a determination of the amount of danger the client poses to himself and others.
C) An adequate assessment should include an objective description of the person's behavior.
D) Assessment should focus on biological concerns rather than social concerns.
Q4) What are two problems with diagnostic labeling?
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Chapter 5: Stress and Physical and Mental Health
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The outdated term "shell shock" is renamed __________ today.
Q2) Despite the many barriers to effectively researching the effectiveness of disaster responses, it has been found that _________
A) treatment benefits everyone.
B) a single debriefing session is always an effective "quick fix."
C) cognitive therapy reduces the PTSD symptoms of the majority of those who are treated.
D) more study in this area is not needed as it is too expensive, too time consuming, and too subjective.
Q3) According to your textbook, what percentage of Army soldiers and Marines in Iraq report that they have been attacked or ambushed?
A) 56%
B) 63%
C) 77%
D) 92%
Q4) The DSM-5 disorder that has symptoms of post-traumatic stress but lasts less than four weeks is _________.
Q5) Describe four factors that can worsen a soldier's response to the trauma of combat.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Panic, Anxiety, Obsessions, and Their Disorders
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compulsive hair pulling is also referred to as ________
A) pedophilia.
B) hoarding.
C) frotteurism.
D) trichotillomania
Q2) Neurobiological factors involved in panic disorder and generalized anxiety disorder provide evidence for the hypothesis that ________
A) both disorders are caused by an excess of the GABA neurotransmitter.
B) fear and anxiety are fundamentally distinct.
C) the two disorders are genetically identical.
D) panic may be an acute version of generalized anxiety disorder.
Q3) The cognitive model does not account for ________
A) nocturnal panic attacks.
B) the effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral therapies.
C) findings from panic provocation studies.
D) evidence of a role for genes in anxiety disorders.
Q4) How do "safety behaviors" contribute to the persistence of panic disorder?
Q5) _____________ are persistent and strong fears triggered by specific objects or situations that are unreasonable.
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Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A recurrent depressive episode _________
A) is preceded by one or more previous episodes.
B) suggests that chronic major depression has developed.
C) typically lasts two to three weeks.
D) is characteristic of all forms of bipolar disorder.
Q2) Depressogenic schemas ________
A) are inherited.
B) predispose a person to develop depression.
C) serve a protective function and are readily modified by positive life experiences.
D) ensure that a low rate of reinforcement will be experienced.
Q3) What is the difference between bipolar I and bipolar II disorder?
Q4) The main difference between a manic episode and a hypomanic episode is
A) whether the person also experiences depression.
B) the number of symptoms the person has.
C) whether the person has irritable mood.
D) the amount of social and occupational impairment.
Q5) Describe the hopelessness theory of depression.
Q6) A major depressive disorder is diagnosed when __________ or more symptoms are present during the same two-week period.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______________is the disorder in the DSM-5 used to replace hypochondriasis without somatic symptoms.
Q2) Dysfunctional assumptions about symptoms and diseases are a component of a cognitive-behavioral explanation of ________
A) somatic symptom disorder.
B) dissociative fugue.
C) somatization disorder.
D) depersonalization disorder.
Q3) Recent estimates suggest that about 50 percent of those with DID have ________
A) only two identities.
B) two alters, in addition to the host identity.
C) more than 10 identities.
D) as many as 200 identities.
Q4) Individuals with somatic symptom disorders ________
A) intentionally fake their illnesses in order to obtain some special treatment.
B) generally have a physical cause for their illness.
C) believe that their symptoms are real and serious.
D) usually have little concern over their state of health.
Q5) Depersonalization and ______________ are two of the more common kinds of dissociative symptoms.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Eating Disorders and Obesity
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the treatment of eating disorders is most accurate?
A) There are very few options available in the treatment of eating disorders.
B) Family support and the patient's commitment to change are important to lasting recovery.
C) There are virtually no situations in which hospitalization is necessary to treat eating disorders.
D) Family involvement in treatment tends to undercut the chances of lasting recovery in the patient.
Q2) Elena binges on high calorie foods and then makes herself throw up. She feels terribly ashamed and horrified by what she does. You would predict ________
A) she will stop making herself throw up because she is ashamed and distressed.
B) she will not stop because her vomiting is reinforced by reducing her fear of gaining weight.
C) she will stop because her vomiting is being punished by the feelings of disgust and shame.
D) she will not stop because she has become physiologically addicted to vomiting.
Q3) Why is dieting a risk factor for the development of eating disorders?
Q4) Discuss the risk of suicide in anorexia and bulimia.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Personality Disorders
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142 Verified Questions
142 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does temperament relate to personality disorders?
Q2) Which of the following is a common component of cognitive behavioral treatments for antisocial personality?
A) Punishment
B) Relaxation
C) Self-critical thinking
D) Response-prevention training
Q3) According to Paris (2007), a key causal factor in borderline personality disorder seems to be ________
A) inconsistent or highly punitive discipline in childhood.
B) impulsivity and affective instability interacting with such factors as trauma or loss.
C) a negative attributional style.
D) an inability to empathize with other people.
Q4) Which of the personality disorders appears to be most related to schizophrenia? What evidence is there of this relationship?
Q5) People with __________ show extreme social inhibition and introversion.
Q6) Of all the personality disorders, most clinical and research attention has been paid to the treatment of_________.
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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129 Verified Questions
129 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of treatment for alcoholism has been found to be most effective?
A) Inpatient treatment
B) Outpatient treatment
C) Twelve-step programs
D) All were about equal
Q2) In contrast to some other treatment programs, Alcoholics Anonymous ________
A) offers both group and person-to-person support.
B) is successful, but only with severe alcoholics who have "hit bottom."
C) uses primarily psychodynamic interventions, although advocates of AA would disagree.
D) has a low dropout rate.
Q3) Problematic drinking behavior commonly develops during ________
A) a period of great success in an individual's life.
B) old age.
C) crisis periods in a marriage or other intimate personal relationship.
D) the transition to middle age.
Q4) What do all abused substances have in common? What are some inherited factors that might lead to an increased vulnerability to substance abuse?
Q5) The most potent of the hallucinogens is__________.
Q6) Heroin is classified as a __________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions
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115 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is quite rare for pedophilia to ________
A) involve a female pedophile.
B) involve sexual penetration or violence.
C) occur in children between 8 and 11.
D) include manipulation of the child's genitals.
Q2) Why is it difficult to estimate the prevalence of incest?
Q3) What is the average duration of time to ejaculate in men who have premature ejaculation?
A) 1 hour
B) 1 minute
C) 20 minutes
D) 4 hours
Q4) The________ theory, which developed in the 1750s, centered on the idea that semen is necessary for physical and sexual vigor in men.
Q5) Most transsexuals ________
A) are autogynephilic.
B) had gender dysphoria as children.
C) are exclusively heterosexual.
D) derive their sexual gratification from cross-dressing in public.
Q6) Name and describe the four phases of the human sexual response.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders
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124 Verified Questions
124 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define positive and negative symptoms for schizophrenia. Give examples of each.
Q2) "Familial" does not mean the same thing as "genetic" because ________
A) families don't always share genes.
B) families share both genes and the environment.
C) genes are not expressed in every generation.
D) the strength of the correlations seen in familial concordance patterns does not allow any conclusions to be made.
Q3) The Finnish Adoptive Family Study of Schizophrenia determined that ________
A) the role of genes was found to be negligible.
B) index subjects were more likely to develop schizophrenia than the control subjects.
C) environment was found to be a more important determinant of psychological health than family history.
D) no significant effects were seen.
Q4) One of the primary manifestations of the stress response in humans is the release of the glucocorticoid ___________ from the ____________.
Q5) What is catatonia? Is catatonia a positive or negative symptom? Explain your answer.
Q6) What role does the family play in schizophrenia?
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Chapter 14: Neurocognitive Disorders
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109 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Extensive bilateral damage to the temporal lobes of the brain is most likely to result in ________
A) the inability to recognize familiar faces.
B) visual-motor coordination impairment.
C) the inability to retrieve long-term memories.
D) the inability to store new memories.
Q2) With a few exceptions, cell bodies and neural pathways in the brain ________
A) are destined for growing deficits caused by aging.
B) are remarkably plastic, quickly repairing damaged tissue.
C) do not appear to have the power of regeneration.
D) regenerate quickly in adults but not in children.
Q3) ___________is the second most common neurodegenerative disease.
Q4) Which of the following is most likely to be characteristic of a physically aggressive Alzheimer's disease patient?
A) History of violent behavior
B) Multiple psychotic breaks
C) Delirium tremens
D) Delusions
Q5) Describe delirium and dementia. What are the main differences?
Q6) Damage to the frontal areas of the brain is likely to have what sort of effects?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence (Neurodevelopmental Disorders)
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125 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a camp counselor, you are surprised when you hear that one of your young campers takes a hormone replacement drug intranasally to treat a psychological disorder. The disorder is most likely ________
A) enuresis.
B) autism.
C) somnambulism.
D) encopresis.
Q2) The diagnoses of depression and bipolar disorder in children and adolescents have __________ in number of the past few years, although diagnosing them has become controversial.
Q3) How many of the 15 symptoms of conduct disorder must be present to justify a diagnosis of CD?
A) 3
B) 7
C) 12
D) 15
Q4) What are the vulnerabilities specific to children that contribute to the development of psychological problems?
Q5) How does depression in a mother impact her child?
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Chapter 16: Psychological Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A major advantage of the atypical antipsychotic drugs is that ________
A) they work better than the conventional ones.
B) they work for more people than the conventional ones.
C) they have a low risk of movement-related side effects.
D) they last longer than the conventional ones.
Q2) What is a randomized clinical trial?
Q3) Suzanne is taking a benzodiazepine to treat her anxiety. She should be concerned that ________
A) mania is a relatively common side effect.
B) she may become physically dependent on the drug.
C) while her anxiety is likely to be diminished, her adaptive behaviors also are likely to become increasingly impaired.
D) when taken in high dosages, the drugs have potentially serious effects on a woman's reproductive ability.
Q4) Describe the process and purpose of Freudian dream analysis.
Q5) There is _______ evidence to support the idea that client and therapist should be matched for race and ethnicity for a successful therapeutic outcome.
Q6) What is rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT)? What kind of therapy is REBT?
Q7) What are the main objectives of client-centered therapy?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a sociocultural effort toward universal prevention of mental disorders?
A) Daycare.
B) Penal systems.
C) Private schools.
D) Social security.
Q2) While there is little research on the different substance abuse prevention programs, what there is on programs such as Project Northland suggests ________
A) they are extremely successful.
B) they are more effective when they use a multicomponent approach.
C) they are effective for children and adolescents who have not already started using.
D) they are effective for non-minority children and adolescents only.
Q3) Which of the following is a requirement for psychosocial health?
A) High socioeconomic status
B) Having sound moral judgment
C) Having a realistic view of oneself
D) Being a member of a religious organization
Q4) Discuss three of the six specific mental health risk factors in work situations.
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