Psychological Disorders
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive overview of psychological disorders, exploring their symptoms, causes, and prevalence across populations. Students will examine major categories of mental disorders, including mood, anxiety, psychotic, personality, and neurodevelopmental disorders. The course addresses the history of mental illness classification, diagnostic methods such as the DSM, and the biopsychosocial factors that contribute to the onset and course of disorders. Emphasis is placed on current research, assessment techniques, and evidence-based approaches to intervention and prevention, equipping students with a foundational understanding necessary for further study or professional application in mental health fields.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 16th Edition by James N. Butcher
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Chapter 1: Abnormal Psychology: an Overview
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Q1) 1-63.Why is a representative sample desirable?
A)Such samples are random.
B)Hypotheses can only be tested on representative samples.
C)Only representative samples yield meaningful results.
D)The more representative a sample is,the more generalizable the data.
Answer: D
Q2) 1-66.A researcher interested in the health problems of people with schizophrenia interviews only those people diagnosed with the disorder who are in an inpatient facility.The most glaring weakness in this study is
A)the absence of correlational statistics.
B)the failure to use DSM-IV criteria for health problems.
C)having an inappropriate control group.
D)nonrepresentative sampling.
Answer: D
Q3) 1-14.What is a reason for classifying mental disorders?
A)A classification system allows information to be organized.
B)Then professionals won't need to look at as much information about a person.
C)Then professionals can make assumptions about people based on their diagnosis.
D)The diagnosis then often has an effect on peoples' behaviors.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior
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Q1) 1-95.A catharsis is
A)a type of hypnosis.
B)an emotional release.
C)the part of the brain where the unconscious exists.
D)a type of hysteria.
Answer: B
Q2) 1-45.Philippe Pinel
A)believed that mental illness was due to possession by demons and exorcism was the only useful treatment.
B)believed that mental patients needed to choose rationality over insanity,so treatment was aimed at making their lives as patients uncomfortable.
C)believed that mental patients were ill and needed to be treated as such - with kindness and caring.
D)believed that mental illness was purely a physiological phenomena,and could only be treated by physical means such as bloodletting.
Answer: C
Q3) 3-14.What is the central theme of the behavioral perspective?
Answer: The role of learning in human behavior.
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Chapter 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints
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Q1) 1-112.An elementary school principal wants to know the best predictors of juvenile delinquency and dropping out of school in high school so she can provide preventive interventions.Your best advice is:
A)"Look for kids who are very popular because they are class clowns."
B)"Silent,depressed,loners tend to be dropouts because they are often depressed."
C)"There is no way to predict juvenile delinquency as early as elementary school."
D)"The best predictor is aggression toward peers,which leads to peer rejection."
Answer: D
Q2) 1-35.Cortisol is a hormone that
A)is released by the hypothalamus and travels to the pituitary gland,causing it to respond.
B)the pituitary gland releases to stimulate the adrenal gland.
C)the adrenal gland produces that mobilizes the body to deal with stress.
D)reduces the reuptake of the monamine neurotransmitters.
Answer: C
Q3) A __________ is a person's total genetic endowment.
Answer: genotype
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Chapter 4: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
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Q1) 1-74.While the DSM is designed to be a categorical classification scheme,
A)in practice diagnoses are made on a dimensional basis.
B)the high rate of comorbidity makes categorization impossible.
C)the lack of objective criteria make accurate diagnosis impossible.
D)the existing criteria tend to lead to a prototypal approach.
Q2) 1-43.Which of the following statements about individually administered IQ tests is correct?
A)They typically take less than an hour to give and interpret.
B)They have low reliability.
C)Many settings and cases don't require the kind of detailed knowledge they give.
D)They are expensive.
Q3) 1-62.The text presented the case study of Andrea C,a twenty-one-year-old student from Colombia.The MMPI-2 computer-based report was typical of such reports because A)there was a large discrepancy between the report based on the MMPI and that based on the MMPI-2.
B)the report was invalid because Esteban is a member of an ethnic minority.
C)the report provided diagnostic and treatment considerations.
D)the report was not used appropriately in Esteban's treatment.
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Chapter 5: Stress and Physical and Mental Health
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Q1) In DSM-5,a new category has been added.What is this new category?
A)stress not specified
B)positive stressor disorders
C)stress and psychopathology
D)trauma- and stressor-related disorders
Q2) What are some of the reasons why political activists who were tortured were less affected by PTSD long term?
Q3) 1-15.According to the text,a factor that does not make one stressor more serious than another includes:
A)severity
B)chronicity
C)geographic region
D)how expected it is.
Q4) 1-47.Stress slows the healing of wounds by as much as ___ to ___ percent.
A)5; 10.
B)12; 15.
C)24; 40.
D)55; 70.
Q5) List four symptoms of PTSD.
Q6) What are two factors that can lessen the impact of a stressful situation?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Panic,anxiety,obsessions,and Their Disorders
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Q1) 1-89.Mark feels the need to tap everything within his arms reach twice.He doesn't have any particular thoughts associated with this,he just becomes anxious if he doesn't do it,because "something bad might happen." Mark A)does not have obsessive compulsive disorder.
B)has obsessive compulsive disorder.
C)has an unusual type of specific phobia.
D)has no disorder.
Q2) Which of the following is one of the five primary types of anxiety disorders recognized in the DSM-5?
A)hypochondriasis
B)agoraphobia
C)dissociative fugue
D)bipolar disorder
Q3) One of the best behavioral treatments for specific phobias is __________ therapy.
Q4) The basic emotion that involves activation of the "fight-or-flight" response is
Q5) Discuss the findings of cross-cultural research on the anxiety disorders.Provide at least two examples of disorders that illustrate the role of culture.
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Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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Q1) 1-95.Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
A)were the first antidepressants to be developed.
B)are more effective than the tricyclic antidepressants.
C)may lead to sexual problems.
D)act to stabilize the mood swings of those with bipolar disorder.
Q2) 1-36.Which of the following is a brain area that has been found to exhibit abnormalities in depressed patients?
A)amygdala
B)basal ganglia
C)posterior cingulate cortex
D)medulla oblangata
Q3) Two types of mood disorders are __________ and bipolar depressive disorders
Q4) 1-35.Which of the following is most likely to be seen in children who are at risk for depression?
A)decreased left hemisphere activity
B)decreased right hemisphere activity
C)increased serotonin levels
D)increased GABA levels
Q5) Discuss the risk factors for adolescent suicide.
Q6) What changes in sleep are seen in depression?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders
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Q1) John and Ira eat dinner together after work.Several hours later,each starts to feel nausea and stomach pains.John is a hypochondriac,Ira is not.Most likely
A)both men will think that the food they ate made them sick.
B)John will think that he has stomach cancer and Ira will think the food he ate made him sick.
C)John will think the food he ate made him sick and Ira will not think anything at all.
D)Ira will think he has stomach cancer and John will think the food he ate made him sick.
Q2) 1-25.Which of the following was once viewed as form of "hysteria"?
A)conversion disorder
B)dissociative identity disorder
C)dissociative fugue
D)hypochondriasis
Q3) ______ involves a pattern in which symptoms or deficits affecting the senses or motor behavior strongly suggest that the patient has a medical or neurological condition.
Q4) Briefly describe somatization disorder.
Q5) What factors tend to be associated with the onset of conversion disorder?
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Chapter 9: Eating Disorders and Obesity
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Q1) 1-20.A common sign of bulimia nervosa is
A)lanugo.
B)intolerance to cold.
C)kidney failure.
D)damaged teeth and mouth ulcers.
Q2) 1-43.The influence of television on the attitudes toward eating in Fiji demonstrate that
A)biological factors play a minimal role in the etiology of eating disorders.
B)environmental factors can alter societal attitudes such that the risk of developing eating disorders is increased.
C)definitions of beauty are not changed over time.
D)there is no relationship between physical standards of beauty and desirable personality traits.
Q3) 1-69.In which of the following countries are at least one-third of adults obese?
A)China
B)Japan
C)United Kingdom
D)United States
Q4) What puts whites at higher risk for eating disorders as compared to non-whites?
Q5) Why is dieting a risk factor for the development of eating disorders?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Personality Disorders
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Q1) 1-70.In which of the following disorders is a comorbid diagnosis of depression most commonly seen?
A)Antisocial personality disorder
B)Obsessive compulsive personality disorder
C)Dependent personality disorder
D)Histrionic personality disorder
Q2) Which statement about personality disorders is accurate?
A)The category is broad and encompasses behavioral problems that vary widely in form and severity.
B)The personality disorders are considered situation-specific problems in behaving.
C)Most of the personality disorders are extreme reactions to stressful life events.
D)Even the milder cases of personality disorders produce severe impairments in social and occupational functioning.
Q3) Why does the person with a narcissistic personality disorder have many "friends" but few intimate relationships?
Q4) What does the five-factor model tell us about personality disorders?
Q5) Compare and contrast histrionic and narcissistic personality disorder.
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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Q1) 1-33.All drugs that people become dependent upon A)are socially acceptable.
B)act on pleasure pathways in the brain.
C)provide the user with renewed energy.
D)produce withdrawal symptoms when use is ceased.
Q2) 1-69.In contrast to some other treatment programs,Alcoholics Anonymous
A)offers both group and one-on-one support.
B)is successful,but only with severe alcoholics who have "hit bottom."
C)uses primarily psychodynamic interventions,although advocates of AA would disagree.
D)has a low dropout rate.
Q3) 1-96.Impaired memory and concentration,sluggishness,lack of motor coordination,and brain damage are side effects associated with excessive use of A)stimulants.
B)antihistamines.
C)sedatives.
D)antidepressants.
Q4) Identify and describe the disorders that an "addict" might be diagnosed with according to the DSM-5.
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Chapter 12: Sexual Variants,abuse,and Dysfunctions
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Q1) ____________is the paraphilia in which the person has recurrent urges to observe an unsuspecting person who is naked.
Q2) 1-11.Kellogg's cornflakes were designed to be anti-masturbation food because it was believed that
A)eating meat increased sexual desire.
B)the amount of time it took to eat them would help distract people from sexual interests.
C)the effort it took to eat them would make people too tired to be interested in sex.
D)cereals and grains caused impotence.
Q3) _____________is discomfort with one's sex-relevant physical characteristics.
Q4) 1-47.The most recent studies of satisfactory outcome from sex reassignment surgery find
A)most individuals are satisfied
B)few individuals are satisfied
C)satisfaction depends upon whether the operation involves a male-to-female or a female-to-male change.
D)satisfaction depends on the length of time that individuals live as the gender they wish to become prior to the surgery.
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Chapter 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders
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Q1) 1-40.What is the major difference between a diagnosis of schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder?
A)The presence of delusions and hallucinations
B)The age of the person when they develop the disorder
C)The degree of emotional instability and disconnection from other people
D)The duration of symptoms
Q2) 1-44.In genetic studies,a "proband" or "index case" is someone who
A)is related to someone with the disorder of interest.
B)shows signs of the disorder of interest.
C)shares at least 25 percent of his or her genes with an affected subject.
D)has the disorder of interest.
Q3) 1-80.What is a stressor that has been found to increase the risk of developing schizophrenia?
A)Being an identical twin
B)Being raised in an isolated rural area
C)Being a recent immigrant
D)Living alone
Q4) Define positive and negative symptoms for schizophrenia.Give examples of each.
Q5) Explain and give examples of positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
Q6) The most important neurotransmitter implicated in schizophrenia is __________ .
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Neurocognitive Disorders
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Q1) 1-15.Damage to the ________ lobes of the brain is most associated with memory loss; damage to the ________ lobes of the brain is most associated with passivity or impulsiveness.
A)temporal; frontal
B)parietal; occipital
C)frontal; temporal
D)parietal; temporal
Q2) 1-57.Caregivers of patients with Alzheimer's disease
A)experience "social death."
B)are at extraordinarily high risk for depression.
C)show high levels of ApoE,even if they do not show any outward anxiety symptoms.
D)are likely to show signs of cognitive deterioration.
Q3) 1-40.Which of the following is most likely to be characteristic of a physically aggressive Alzheimer's disease patient?
A)History of violent behavior
B)Multiple psychotic breaks
C)Delusions of reference
D)Delusions of persecution
Q4) How can a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease be definitively made?
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Chapter 15: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence
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Q1) 1-81.In autistic children,head banging,spinning in circles,and rocking are behaviors that
A)are exceedingly rare.
B)are common forms of self-stimulation.
C)are believed to be ways of communicating without language.
D)are used because these children find repetitive routines very aversive.
Q2) Suppose you were the director of a mental health center that provided treatment for children.Based on research,you would expect that
A)more girls would be diagnosed with disorders than boys.
B)the most common disorders diagnosed would be eating disorders and posttraumatic stress disorder.
C)the average age of your child clients would be around 5 or 6.
D)more boys would be diagnosed with maladjustment disorders than girls.
Q3) Children with ADHD that have symptoms of hyperactivity
A)are usually well liked by their peers because they are always active.
B)are usually well liked by their peers because they become "class clowns."
C)are usually viewed negatively by their peers because of their behaviors.
D)are usually viewed negatively by their peers because they are socially withdrawn.
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Chapter 16: Therapy
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Q1) What is usually used as a placebo in a study of psychosocial treatments?
A)A sugar pill
B)A wait list
C)Self-help meetings
D)Group therapy
Q2) What do lithium carbonate,carbamazepine (Tegretol),and valproate (Depakote)have in common?
A)They are benzodiazepines.
B)They are used in the treatment of anxiety disorders.
C)They are atypical antipsychotic drugs.
D)They are all mood-stabilizing drugs.
Q3) Psychotherapy is best viewed as
A)a set of tools.
B)a system of ethics.
C)a means of keeping society "sick."
D)a form of mind control.
Q4) The major problem with benzodiazepines is that people can become __________ and physiologically dependent upon them.
Q5) What are the main objectives of client-centered therapy?
Q6) What is a randomized clinical trial?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology
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Q1) Efforts to counterbalance the social factors that entice adolescent binge drinking are examples of
A)selective interventions.
B)crisis interventions.
C)indicated interventions.
D)social-learning programs.
Q2) Why has the attempt to reduce the drug supply from other countries not reduced the rate of adolescent substance abuse?
A)Most smugglers are still able to find a way to bring drugs in.
B)Local residents account for most of the illegal drug traffic.
C)The drugs most abused by adolescents are alcohol and tobacco,which are easily available.
D)Drug abusers are traveling to other countries to obtain their supply.
Q3) The Tarasoff rule usually applies
A)anytime a client threatens to do a violent act.
B)only to violent acts against people.
C)only if the target of violence is clearly identifiable.
D)only if the client has given an informed consent.
Q4) What are aftercare programs? Who is least likely to benefit from such programs?
Q5) Discuss the three requirements for psychosocial health.
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