Psychological Assessment in Legal Contexts Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
This course examines the principles and practices of psychological assessment as they apply to legal settings, such as criminal and civil courts, correctional facilities, and forensic evaluations. Students will explore a range of assessment tools and techniques used to evaluate cognitive, behavioral, and emotional functioning in individuals involved with the legal system. Topics include competency evaluations, risk assessments, the assessment of malingering, child custody evaluations, and the ethical and legal considerations unique to forensic contexts. Through case studies and practical exercises, students will gain an understanding of the critical role that psychological assessment plays in informing legal decisions and ensuring justice.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic and Legal Psychology Psychological Science Applied to Law 2nd Edition by Mark Costanzo
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2
Chapter 1: Section 1: Psychology and Law: a Cautious
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Q1) Discuss why it might be difficult for a psychologist to maintain her impartiality as a scientist and still successfully fulfill her role as an expert testifying in court.
Answer: Main points:
The U.S. legal system is adversarial.
Often, experts are hired by either defense or prosecution, with the expectation of helping one side of the trial.
Lawyers tend to "shop around" for an expert who would testify the way the lawyer needs.
Expert herself may have ideals or convictions she wants to advocate for.
Being effective as an expert in court requires presenting a clear-cut, easy-to-understand picture.
At the same time, science is rarely clear-cut or simple, it requires objectivity and skepticism about your own findings; conflicting explanations for the same facts are not uncommon.
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3
Chapter 1: Section 2: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) According to the text, the term gatekeeper refers to:
A) securing the courtroom.
B) the sorting of various briefs for the purpose of finding relevant precedents.
C) the establishment of the tiers of fact.
D) the assessment of scientific validity of testimony before allowing it in trial.
Answer: D
Q2) During the trial, each side is trying to win the case. However, the goal of the legal system overall is to:
A) achieve justice.
B) achieve peace.
C) obtain compensation for all parties.
D) not be hampered by fairness.
Answer: A
Q3) Trial consultants may be hired to perform the following duties:
A) preparing witnesses and shaping trial strategy.
B) citing law and writing abbreviated briefs.
C) performing psychological evaluations and risk assessment
D) conducting research and advocating for reform
Answer: A
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Chapter 1: Section 3: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) Scientific studies evaluating the D.A.R.E. program found that the program _____ because "just say no" to drugs _____.
A) works well; is a highly effective slogan
B) is only effective in reducing social drug use; changes brain patterns
C) increases the use of alcohol and tobacco; creates an impression that substances other than drugs are not as bad in comparison
D) reduces not only the use of drugs but of alcohol and tobacco as well; easily translates into saying no to other harmful substances as well
Answer: C
Q2) The Daubert standard of admissibility _____, so two different judges _____ about what meets the Daubert standard.
A) is exceptionally clear and straightforward; would easily agree
B) leaves plenty of room for interpretation; may disagree
C) can be misinterpreted easily; may have to ask for appellate review
D) is reasonably understandable; can always arrive at the same conclusion
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 2: Section 1: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) What are some possible reforms that can be implemented in police interrogation procedures to reduce the risk of false confessions?
Q2) Describe some common types of false confessions, reasons behind them, and police tactics that lead to a higher incidence of false confessions.
Q3) What has been the U.S. Supreme Court's position on the use of deception by police during interrogations? How does the use of this technique compare with the use of deception during interrogations in other countries, such as England and Wales? What are some worrisome moral implications of the use of deception by police during interrogations?
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Chapter 2: Section 2: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) The tendency to attribute others' behavior to dispositional causes such as personality is referred to as:
A) fundamental attribution error.
B) functional fixedness.
C) frustration-aggression hypothesis.
D) false memory syndrome.
Q2) The ultimate goal of questioning suspects is to:
A) elicit a confession.
B) define parameters for search.
C) determine best search techniques.
D) provide a basis for DNA analysis.
Q3) Research in the field of social psychology has discovered that people tend to _____ the impact of situational forces, and this process is responsible for believing that suspects in police custody would _____ to the crime they did not commit.
A) overestimate; confess
B) overestimate; not confess
C) disregard; confess
D) disregard; not confess
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Chapter 2: Section 3: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of an exculpatory scenario?
A) "Did you plan this, or did it just happen on the spur of the moment?"
B) "Was this your own idea or did someone talk you into it?"
C) "I'm sure you took the money to help your family."
D) "Have you done this type of thing before?"
Q2) Which of the following is NOT presented in Chapter 2 as a potential solution to the problem of false confessions?
A) Video recording of interrogations.
B) Retraining police departments on interrogation procedures.
C) Setting time limits on interrogations.
D) Having expert testimony on interrogations and confessions.
Q3) In the case of Colorado v. Connelly (1986), Supreme Court Justice Brennan considered _____ to be the strongest piece of evidence in a trial.
A) eyewitness testimony
B) scientific evidence
C) a confession
D) the defendant's prior record
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8
Chapter 3: Section 1: Lie Detection
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Q1) Compare and contrast the relevant-irrelevant test (RIT), the comparison question test (CQT), and the guilty knowledge test (GKT).
Q2) Discuss the scientific validity of the polygraph.
Q3) Discuss the limitations of fMRI studies in the detection of deception.
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Chapter 3: Section 2: Lie Detection
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Q1) The federal Polygraph Protection Act of 1988 prohibited the use of polygraph by:
A) all private employers for the purpose of hiring for a job.
B) most private employers for the purpose of hiring for a job.
C) all public employers including criminal justice agencies.
D) some public employers including national security agencies.
Q2) There are several problems with polygraph techniques that use the standard procedures like CQT. Which of the following is NOT one of these problems?
A) In some people, lying produces little physiological response.
B) There is lack of standardization and significant subjectivity in polygraph examiners' scoring.
C) People who do not have faith in the validity of the polygraph may not respond in the way examiners expect.
D) Polygraph techniques work especially well if a person believes the polygraph is nearly infallible.
Q3) _____ measures almost imperceptible changes in the heat of the human face.
A) Criteria-based content analysis
B) High-definition infrared thermal imaging
C) The electroencephlogram (EEG)
D) Laser doppler vibrometry (LDV)
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Chapter 3: Section 3: Lie Detection
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Q1) The 1993 U.S. Supreme Court decision in Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals:
A) ruled the polygraph inadmissible in all federal cases.
B) ruled the polygraph admissible in all federal cases.
C) ruled that polygraph admissibility could be determined on a case-by-case basis.
D) refused to hear arguments on the admissibility of the polygraph all together.
Q2) Experimental research has demonstrated that when actual interrogation training videos are used, training _____ the ability to detect deception and makes people _____ confident about their judgments.
A) improves; less
B) does not improve; more
C) improves; more
D) does not improve; less
Q3) In the comparison question test (formerly, control question test) of polygraph examination, comparison questions are designed to be _____ and compel people to _____ when answering them.
A) directly related to crime in question; tell the truth
B) uncomfortable but unrelated to crime in question; lie
C) outrageous and insulting; lose their temper
D) innocent-sounding but highly coercive; admit to committing the crime
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Q1) What type of influence do the CSI TV dramas have on jurors?
Q2) How can error rate be reduced in forensic investigations?
Q3) How does reliability differ from validity? Use examples to illustrate both.
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Chapter 4: Section 2: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace
Evidence
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Q1) Which of the following forms of forensic identification evidence is the most objective one?
A) DNA analysis.
B) Fingerprint analysis.
C) Bullet matching.
D) Handwriting analysis.
Q2) Shelly testifies in court that the DNA recovered at the crime scene is likely to come from the suspect because less than 0.0001% of population have this specific genetic marker. This type of identification is called:
A) simple match.
B) match plus statistics.
C) qualitative statement.
D) inconclusive.
Q3) A qualitative statement made by an expert when presenting evidence is:
A) a subjective statement corroborated by statistics.
B) a non-statistical statement about the strength of a match.
C) dependent on simple match standards of inquiry.
Page 13
D) supported by extensive research with peer review.
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Chapter 4: Section 3: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace
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Q1) In which of the following conditions would an analyst not know he or she is being tested?
A) Single blind.
B) Double blind.
C) Triple blind.
D) Experimental.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a source of bias in forensic identification procedures?
A) Trace evidence is almost always tested in labs closely affiliated with law enforcement and prosecution.
B) Forensic science is secretive and fears negative findings.
C) Forensic identification procedures are conducted in strictly controlled lab settings.
D) Most research on forensic identification techniques is sponsored by financially interested parties.
Q3) Who pioneered the use of fingerprints in establishing identity?
A) Alphonse Bertillon
B) Francis Galton
C) James Watson
D) Charles Darwin
Page 14
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Chapter 5: Section 1: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) What is the purpose of a psychological autopsy and when would it be used?
Q2) Compare and contrast criminal profiling, geographic profiling, and behavioral investigative advice (BIA).
Q3) How is profiling used in criminal investigations? Is it effective?
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Chapter 5: Section 2: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) One of the characteristics thought to be indicative of childhood maladjustment has been identified among quite a few serial killers. It is:
A) cruelty to animals.
B) mental illness.
C) extroversion.
D) temper tantrums.
Q2) One of the most serious _____ of profiles is that _____ profiles may direct the police to look at the wrong suspects.
A) problems; misleading B) uses; accurate
C) inconsistencies; correct D) enhancements; additional
Q3) Which of the following is a correct statement?
A) Profiling has been extensively tested in scientific studies.
B) Research on profiling seems to prove its effectiveness.
C) Stories and case studies found profiling helpful to investigators.
D) There is very little systematic research on profiling.
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Chapter 5: Section 3: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) According to the text, easily observable characteristics such as race SHOULD NOT be used for the purpose of classifying people as suspects because:
A) large groups of innocent people are likely to be harassed as a result.
B) suspects may mask themselves to obscure or alter visible characteristics.
C) these characteristics can change over time.
D) these characteristics are listed in identifying documents.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of an organized murderer as hypothesized by the organized/disorganized distinction?
A) Average or above average intelligence.
B) Sexually incompetent.
C) Controlled mood during crime.
D) Geographic mobility.
Q3) Psychological autopsies are typically used in cases involving:
A) serial murder.
B) equivocal death.
C) mass murder.
D) unequivocal death.
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Page 17
Chapter 6: Section 1: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) How effective is scientific jury selection?
Q2) Explain the voir dire process.
Q3) Explain how the role of money in trial consulting may affect trial outcomes. Are there any possible solutions to the problems you have identified?
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Hannah is a trial consultant hired to assemble a shadow jury in a high-stakes trial. She may ask the shadow jury to perform all of the following tasks EXCEPT:
A) sit in the courtroom during trial.
B) hear a condensed version of testimonies.
C) watch a videotape of courtroom proceedings.
D) observe actual jurors in the deliberation room.
Q2) The one day or one trial system is used to:
A) increase guilty pleas.
B) reduce the time defendants spend in jail.
C) turn criminal into civil cases.
D) reduce the number of hardship exemptions.
Q3) A challenge for cause is _____, whereas a peremptory challenge _____.
A) based on possible biasing factors; allows lawyers to dismiss a person with no reason given
B) not required to have to explain the reason; is based on the possibility of prejudice
C) based on possible biasing factors; requires the judge to agree
D) not a matter of judge's approval; requires the judge to agree
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) A juror that scores high on measures of authoritarianism would be least likely to convict:
A) a gang member accused of killing another gang member.
B) a police officer accused of using excessive force.
C) a college student accused of stealing.
D) a politician accused of corruption.
Q2) Studies testing the effectiveness of judge's instructions to the jury to disregard pretrial publicity have found:
A) no effect of such instructions on jurors' decision-making in passing a guilty verdict.
B) that jurors were able to completely ignore the media accounts they had been exposed to.
C) jurors able to disregard pretrial publicity in civil cases only.
D) jurors able to disregard pretrial publicity in murder cases only.
Q3) An attorney may use a peremptory challenge to:
A) dismiss a potential juror because of bias or prejudice.
B) dismiss a potential juror without giving a reason.
C) request a change of venue or a retrial.
D) find evidence inadmissible at trial.
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Chapter 7: Section 1: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Describe three research findings regarding improving eyewitness accuracy.
Q2) Describe the post-identification feedback effect and give an example. What is the role of cognitive dissonance in this process?
Q3) How does human memory operate? How is it different from a video recording? If people are sure they remember the situation well, does it mean their memories are more accurate than memories of those who are not as sure?
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Memory is not a perfect procedure. Errors can take place at any given point in the process and memories may not last forever. _____ is the term used to describe the biochemical representation of our experiences within the brain.
A) Heuristics
B) Bottom-up processing
C) Top-down processing
D) Memory trace
Q2) The term _____ is part of memory processing. It entails gathering information and putting it into a form that can be retrieved later on.
A) storage
B) retrieval
C) encoding
D) heuristics
Q3) Cross-racial identifications are generally _____ accurate than/as same-race identifications.
A) somewhat more
B) less
C) as
D) a great deal more
22
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) When it comes to translating science into practice, there are two main obstacles outlined in the text: one is the researchers' uncertainty about how much research evidence should be accumulated before practical recommendations are made and the other one is _____ practices.
A) the resistance of law enforcement personnel to reforming their B) the difficulty of passing legislation that would mandate changes in C) prosecutors' misunderstanding of what research studies mean for their D) the slow speed of translating scientific evidence into
Q2) One promising technique for improving the ability of an eyewitness to remember important information accurately is to relax the eyewitness and mentally reinstate the context surrounding the crime. This approach is known as a: A) regulatory focus.
B) guided recognition. C) hypernesia interview. D) cognitive interview.
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Chapter 8: Section 1: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) What does research show about the competencies of children and adolescents? Should there be specific requirements for competency to stand trial for juveniles as different from the ones for adults?
Q2) Explain what is malingering and why some defendants might be compelled to resort to it. Would it be in their best interests? Why or why not?
Q3) Explain why competency to stand trial (CST) is a legal and not a psychological term. What are the key elements of CST?
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Competency to stand trial (CST) has two basic components to its definition. The first component refers to the accused individual's _____. The second component refers to the accused individual's _____.
A) mental state; chances of being tried in a court where the native language is spoken B) ability to interact rationally with an attorney; understanding how the court process works
C) awareness of how the crime was committed; ability to interact rationally with an attorney
D) willingness to perform necessary functions; past and current mental state
Q2) When performing competency evaluations within an institution, collateral sources of information can be gathered regarding the defendant's behavior. Some of the individuals that might be able to provide this additional information include:
A) prison guards, nurses, and mental health professionals.
B) prison guards, sisters, and the minister.
C) nurses, ministers, and siblings.
D) mental health professionals, prison guards, and family members.
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Some forensic psychologists argue that all of the following conditions should trigger an automatic competency evaluation for juveniles EXCEPT:
A) history of developmental disability.
B) family history of mental illness.
C) low or "borderline" intelligence.
D) age 12 or younger.
Q2) According to the textbook, all of the following are common mental health problems diagnosed in defendants found to be incompetent to stand trial EXCEPT:
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B) bipolar disorder.
C) schizophrenia.
D) intellectual disability.
Q3) The modern conception of competency to stand trial was defined by the Supreme Court in the case of:
A) Miranda v. Arizona (1966).
B) United States v. Charters (1988).
C) Dusky v. United States (1960).
D) Godinez v. Moran (1993).
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Chapter 9: Section 1: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) Why is it difficult to evaluate insanity? What factors make it different from the evaluation of competency to stand trial?
Q2) How do jurors view the insanity defense?
Q3) What major changes were instituted to the insanity defense after the trial of John Hinckley?
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) The concept that individuals with issues relating to impaired cognitive understanding should not be held culpable was used as early as the Roman Empire. Roman law classified those individuals to be non compos mentis, or:
A) not quite all there.
B) mentally competent.
C) without mastery of mind.
D) mens rea.
Q2) On several occasions, Andrea Yates tried to kill _____, and still the jury at her first trial found her _____.
A) her children; not guilty
B) herself; guilty
C) her husband; not guilty
D) her parents; not guilty
Q3) According to the text, postpartum psychosis that Andrea Yates suffered from includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) severe depression.
B) feelings of overwhelming anxiety.
C) acute headaches.
D) being out of touch with reality.
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) In legal terminology, the guilty mind that must accompany the wrongful behavior is known as:
A) actus reas.
B) habeas corpus.
C) mens rea.
D) the Magna Carta.
Q2) Successful insanity pleas are associated with all of these psychiatric illnesses EXCEPT:
A) psychosis.
B) mental retardation.
C) personality disorders.
D) mood disorders.
Q3) What happens to defendants who are found guilty but mentally ill?
A) They are released.
B) They are routinely sent to prison.
C) They are sent to a psychiatric hospital.
D) There are no clear rules on dispositions for these defendants.
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Chapter 10: Section 1: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) What are the advantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q2) What are rape shield laws and when do they not apply in court? Can expert testimony be problematic in this regard?
Q3) What are the disadvantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
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Chapter 10: Section 2: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) Because BWS and RTS are often difficult for the prosecution to integrate into a trial, many have advocated for testimony about posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) instead. One reason why the use of this diagnosis proves to be more helpful in cases in which the victim kills the batterer is that:
A) no one understands BWS.
B) RTS has not been documented.
C) PTSD is better established as a mental disorder.
D) victims of PTSD have public support.
Q2) Statistics noted in the text indicate that serious violence perpetrated by intimate partners is _____ to happen against women.
A) more likely
B) less likely
C) equally as likely
D) unlikely
Q3) Men are _____ women to seriously injure/kill their intimate partners.
A) more likely than B) less likely than C) equally as likely as
D) rarely able compared with
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Chapter 10: Section 3: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) According to the text, the original study of battered women by Dr. Walker was criticized for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:
A) not all women in her sample experienced all the hypothesized stages of the cycle of abuse.
B) a comparison group of non-battered women was absent from her study.
C) the experimenters who collected the data knew about the study hypotheses and could inadvertently influence the results.
D) the sample in her study was too small.
Q2) Studies that analyzed verdicts reached in cases of battered women who killed their husbands or partners, found that _____ of the women were convicted, and expert testimony on BWS _____.
A) very few; made a substantial impact on jurors
B) the vast majority; did not have much influence
C) about half; was crucial
D) none; made all the difference
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Chapter 11: Section 1: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Should anatomically detailed dolls be admissible in court? Why or why not?
Q2) Which allegations of recovered memories should be suspect?
Q3) How are child witnesses perceived by jurors? What kind of measures do the courts take to protect child witnesses?
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Testifying about what someone else said outside of court is called:
A) unsubstantiated rumor.
B) hearsay testimony.
C) always non-admissible evidence.
D) admissible evidence.
Q2) In the 2000s, claims of recovered memories ______, mostly in response to _____.
A) slowly decreased; research showing that false memories can be easily implanted
B) decreased drastically; successful lawsuits against therapists who had created false memories
C) have stabilized; realizations that false memories bring more pain than relief to the victims
D) had increased; new legislation awarding substantial sums of money to the victims
Q3) Much research has demonstrated that most victims of traumatic events _____ memories of the episode.
A) have vivid
B) have few
C) completely repress their
D) first repress, then recover their
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) All of the following are the reasons for underreporting of child sexual abuse EXCEPT:
A) very young children may not be able to talk and explain what happened.
B) young children may not interpret what's happening as sexual abuse.
C) children's allegations of sexual abuse are not taken seriously.
D) children may fear retaliation of the abuser.
Q2) In sexual abuse cases, jurors are more likely to believe _____ because younger children _____.
A) younger children than adolescents; are less likely to lie or make things up
B) younger children than adolescents; seem unsophisticated about sexual matters
C) adolescents than younger children; tend to easily mix reality and fantasy
D) adolescents than younger children; could have been easily misled by adults
Q3) Researchers analyzed interviews with actual child victims of sexual abuse, which revealed that the presumed child sexual abuse accommodation syndrome (CSAAS) is largely not confirmed in abused children: Most children disclose abuse _____ and _____ later recant that the abuse ever occurred.
A) in the first or second interview; very often
B) only after multiple interviews; very often
C) only after multiple interviews; rarely
D) in the first or second interview; rarely
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Q1) How does legal custody differ from physical custody? Which custody arrangement are common and which are not?
Q2) How do the best interest of the child standard (BICS) and the tender years doctrine differ?
Q3) What are the advantages of mediation over litigation? Who is more likely to seek litigation?
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Juries and Judges As Decision
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Q1) A projective test measures an individual's response to:
A) well-defined stimuli.
B) objective material.
C) ambiguous stimuli.
D) an interview.
Q2) Research that follows subjects and collects data over a longer period of time is referred to as:
A) cross-sectional.
B) naturalistic.
C) observational.
D) longitudinal.
Q3) The purpose of mandatory mediation laws is to:
A) free up time for the opposing lawyers.
B) relieve an overburdened court system.
C) reduce emotional trauma for the family.
D) provide for a therapeutic outcome.
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Chapter 12: Section 3 Juries and Judges As Decision Makers
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Q1) To circumvent the vagueness of the best interest of the child standard, many states have adopted:
A) the joint legal custody standard.
B) the primary caretaker rule.
C) preferred custody arrangements.
D) the approximation rule.
Q2) All of the following instruments are commonly used by psychologists in child custody evaluations EXCEPT the:
A) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Second Edition (MMPI-2).
B) Rorschach Inkblot Test.
C) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale, Fourth Edition (WAIS-IV).
D) Millon Multiaxial Personality Inventory, Third edition (MCMI-III).
Q3) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that "custody decisions cannot turn on racial considerations?"
A) Painter v. Bannister
B) Palmore v. Sidoti
C) Myers v. Otto
D) Boswell v. Boswell
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Chapter 13: Section 1: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) What kind of reforms would you suggest to improve the jury trial process?
Q2) How does inadmissible evidence influence juror decision making?
Q3) How does the mathematical model of jury decision making differ from the story model of jury decision making?
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Unanimity is required by _____ states in capital murder trials.
A) 25
B) 30
C) 45
D) all 50
Q2) When jurors are instructed to disregard the inadmissible evidence, they sometimes feel there is no good reason for such an instruction. Instead, they give that evidence an even greater weight. This process is assumed by _____.
A) relativity
B) parallel processes
C) inferiority
D) reactance
Q3) According to extensive research, the best predictor of what the verdict will be is the _____ of relevant evidence.
A) strength
B) description
C) review
D) discussion
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Chapter 13: Section 3: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Which of the following states requires judges to pre-instruct juries?
A) Arizona.
B) California.
C) New Mexico.
D) New York.
Q2) Research on inadmissible evidence indicates that:
A) judges are able to disregard inadmissible evidence better than are jurors.
B) jurors are able to disregard inadmissible evidence better than are judges.
C) both judges and jurors are able to disregard inadmissible evidence.
D) neither judges nor jurors are able to disregard inadmissible evidence.
Q3) Compared with 12-person juries, 6-person juries:
A) deliberate longer.
B) generate more arguments.
C) are less predictable.
D) recall evidence more accurately.
Q4) Which of the following represents the leniency bias in jury decision making?
A) All-female juries are more lenient.
B) All-minority juries are more lenient.
C) More diverse juries are likely to acquit.
D) Evenly split juries are more likely to acquit.
Page 41
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Q1) How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment?
Q2) What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment?
Q3) What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) The length of civil confinement is:
A) specified.
B) determined by the legal system alone.
C) determined by psychiatrists alone.
D) not specified.
Q2) To hospitalize someone against his or her will, most states now require that certain conditions be met. Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions?
A) Presence of a severe mental disorder.
B) A severe mental disorder affects the person's functioning.
C) Substantial possibility of causing significant harm to self or others.
D) A documented history of recent dangerous behaviors.
Q3) Researchers have determined three broad categories of predictors of risk for future violent behavior:
A) clinical, actuarial, and mixed methods.
B) historical, dynamic, and risk management markers.
C) nomothetic, idiographic, and dialectical approaches.
D) ex post facto, false positives, and false negatives.
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Chapter 14: Section 3: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) The rate at which an event occurs in a given population is called the _____ rate.
A) actuarial
B) statistical
C) base
D) occurrence
Q2) What three states have been responsible for over half the total executions in the United States since 1976?
A) Florida, Georgia, and Alabama
B) California, Mississippi, and Nevada
C) South Carolina, Arkansas, and Florida
D) Texas, Oklahoma, and Virginia
Q3) Most studies show that sex offenders have lower reoffense rates than other types of criminals. All of the following could be valid reasons for this finding EXCEPT:
A) many sexual offenses go unreported.
B) self-reports might underestimate the incidence of sex crimes.
C) sex offenders only commit sex offenses when they recidivate.
D) follow-up time periods for calculating reoffense rate are relatively short.
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Chapter 15: Section 1: Predicting Violent Behavior: the
Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) What do studies show about racism in the United States? How does the modern-era racism differ from the older forms of racism?
Q2) What steps can be taken to reduce prejudice?
Q3) What is psychological injury as it applies to sexual harassment? Which standards of injury are currently applied in sexual harassment cases?
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Chapter 15: Section 2: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) As a result of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) and the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), discrimination based on which of the following characteristics is illegal?
A) Age.
B) National origin.
C) Disability.
D) All of these are legally protected against discrimination.
Q2) When determining whether a particular behavior is offensive, a judgment needs to be made as to whether others in the same situation would have considered the environment as hostile. This standard is referred to as the:
A) consensual relationship agreement.
B) disparate treatment standard.
C) interpersonal justice standard.
D) reasonable person standard.
Q3) Studies have shown that the most likely targets of harassment are:
A) attractive young men.
B) young, unmarried women.
C) divorcees.
D) minorities.
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Chapter 15: Section 3: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) Studies show some clear signs that modern forms of racism do exist. For example, one study finds that:
A) subjects report liking Black people slightly less than liking White people, and their facial muscles confirm this reality.
B) even though subjects report liking Black people slightly more than liking White people, their facial muscles reveal that the opposite is true.
C) even though subjects report liking Black people slightly more than liking White people, their facial muscles reveal that they like Black people significantly more than they report.
D) subjects report liking Black people much less than liking White people, but their facial muscles reveal that the opposite is true.
Q2) Studies conducted on desegregation after the Brown v. Board of Education ruling in 1954 found that:
A) desegregation had no effect on prejudice.
B) desegregation led to an increase in prejudice of Whites toward Blacks.
C) desegregation led to a decrease in prejudice of Whites toward Blacks.
D) desegregation only decreased prejudice in schools but not in the workplace.
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Q1) What was the goal of determinate sentencing and how does it work? What are the main problems with mandatory sentencing in general and with one of its versionsthree-strikes laws - in particular?
Q2) Describe the four goals of imprisonment.
Q3) Discuss three alternatives to prison.
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Chapter 16: Section 2: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) Three-strikes laws have been criticized for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) three-strikes laws increase gender disparity in sentencing for violent crimes.
B) there are much cheaper and equally effective alternatives to imprisonment.
C) three-strikes laws are often imposed for relatively minor, nonviolent offenses.
D) longer prison sentences are handed down to offenders who are "aging out of" crime.
Q2) The assimilation of new inmates into the values system, norms, and language of prison is referred to as:
A) prisonization.
B) deinstitutionalization effect.
C) incarceration manner.
D) integrating into the system.
Q3) One way that criminals were punished in the American colonies was through _____, which included being placed into stocks.
A) imprisonment
B) work release
C) public shaming
D) probation
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Chapter 16: Section 3: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) The rate of HIV/AIDS among state and federal prisoners is about _____ times higher than the rate for the general population.
A) 2
B) 5
C) 7
D) 12
Q2) The largest single group of inmates in federal prisons, constituting almost half of all federal prisoners, consists of individuals who have been convicted of:
A) murder.
B) drug offenses.
C) bank robbery.
D) tax evasion.
Q3) The average cost of imprisonment for prisoners over the age of 55 is over _____ per year.
A) $30,000
B) $50,000
C) $80,000
D) $100,000
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Chapter 17: Section 1: The Death Penalty
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Q1) What are Americans' views on the death penalty? Why is it important to consider public opinion on this issue?
Q2) Discuss the racial disparities in administering the death penalty.
Q3) Is the death penalty an effective deterrent to murder?
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Chapter 17: Section 2: The Death Penalty
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Q1) The purpose of the death penalty is seen as deterrence. However, many studies in the United States, as well as in other countries, have found _____ evidence to support the idea that capital punishment decreases the murder rate.
A) some
B) convincing
C) no clear
D) a great deal of
Q2) Excluding federal crimes, the only crime punishable by death is: A) incest.
B) manslaughter.
C) aggravated murder.
D) aggravated rape.
Q3) More than 3,000 individuals are now on death row in the United States. It is most likely that the majority of them will: A) be executed.
B) die of injuries sustained in prison.
C) die from lethal injection.
D) die of natural causes.
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Chapter 17: Section 3: The Death Penalty
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Q1) The brutalization effect refers to the:
A) tendency of juries to give more weight to aggravating factors in capital cases.
B) conclusion that executions increase murder rates.
C) suggestion that brutal methods of execution like the electric chair decrease murder rates.
D) likelihood that repeat offenders are more likely to be sentenced to death.
Q2) In Lockhart v. McCree (1986), the Supreme Court reviewed the research on death qualification and:
A) dismissed it as irrelevant and outlawed the use of death-qualified juries.
B) dismissed it as irrelevant and upheld the use of death-qualified juries.
C) agreed with the findings and outlawed the use of death-qualified juries.
D) disagreed with the validity of the findings and upheld the use of death-qualified juries.
Q3) How many states have NO death penalty?
A) 18
B) 29
C) 31
D) 37
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