Psychological Assessment in Forensic Settings
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Course Introduction
This course explores the principles and practices of psychological assessment within forensic settings, emphasizing the application of various psychological tests and evaluation techniques to criminal, civil, and family law cases. Students will learn about the roles and responsibilities of forensic psychologists, the legal and ethical issues unique to forensic assessment, and standardized tools used to assess competency, criminal responsibility, risk of violence, malingering, and other forensic concerns. Through case studies and practical exercises, learners will develop critical skills in interpreting assessment data, writing forensic reports, and providing expert testimony, preparing them for practice in courts, correctional facilities, and related legal environments.
Recommended Textbook Forensic Psychology 4th Edition by Joanna
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Chapter 1: A: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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Q1) Which of the following is the correct pairing of psychologist to their work?
A)Munsterberg - On the Witness Stand
B)Varendonck - La Suggestibilite
C)Von Schrenck-Notzing - Measurements of Accuracy of Recollection
D)Cattell - retroactive memory falsification
E)Wigmore - Kriminal Psychologie
Answer: A
Q2) According to Sheldon's (1949)constitutional theory,which of the following are most likely to become involved with crime?
A)ectomorphs
B)mesomorphs
C)those with lesions in the temporal lobe
D)those having experienced maternal deprivation
E)men with two Y chromosomes
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 1: B: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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Q1) According to Haney (1980),there are three primary ways in which psychology and law relate to one another.Name,define,and provide an example of each.
Answer: a.Psychology and the law
-Psychology is viewed as a separate discipline to the law and is used to test various assumptions made by the law or legal system.
-E.g.,determining whether risk of violence can be accurately predicted using a specific assessment tool
b.Psychology in the law
-Psychological knowledge is applied directly within the context of the legal system as it operates.
-E.g.,the provision of expert testimony about factors that influence the accuracy of eyewitness identifications in a court case
c.Psychology of the law
-Psychology is used to study the law itself
-E.g.,a legal scholar examining whether certain laws have helped to reduce the crime rate
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4
Chapter 2: A: Police Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Taylor and Bennell (2006)__________ stressors are often ranked as the most stressful among police officers.
A)public
B)criminal justice
C)organizational
D)extrinsic
E)none of the above
Answer: C
Q2) An RCMP applicant is given a certain period of time to interview witnesses in a mock domestic disturbance case and complete an incident report.This scenario is most likely a component of:
A)an IPI
B)a situational test
C)a selection interview
D)an RPAT
E)a personality test
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: B: Police Psychology
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Q1) Name and describe two of the three most common types of police selection procedures.
Q2) Name four main sources of police stress and provide an example of each.
Q3) You are a police officer who has encountered a mentally ill person causing a disturbance.What are the three main options available to you in this situation? Identify a disadvantage associated with each.
Q4) In general,there are two stages involved in developing a valid police selection process.Name these stages and explain them briefly.
Q5) List four reasons why police discretion is necessary,as indicated by Sheehan and Cordner (1989).
Q6) What are the main conclusions from Butler and Hall's (2008)study of use of force using data from the Calgary Police Service?
Q7) Define "police discretion" and name three areas of policing in which discretion is often used.
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Chapter 3: A: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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Q1) In the United States,a suspect's legal rights in the context of an interrogation are often called:
A)Marianne rights
B)Monica rights
C)Miranda rights
D)Marissa rights
E)Melissa rights
Q2) An innocent suspect is interrogated for 18 hours without food or water.The suspect is told by the investigator that he can get up and leave once "he comes clean." The suspect is exhausted and confesses.What type of confession has just occurred?
A)a voluntary false confession
B)a coerced-compliant false confession
C)a compliant-internalized false confession
D)a coerced-internalized false confession
E)a confabulated false confession
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Chapter 3: B: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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Q1) List the two primary goals of a police interrogation.In addition,describe the three types of false confessions that can result from North American-style police interrogation techniques,making it very clear how they differ from one another.
Q2) What is the equation specified by Pinizzotto and Finkel (1990)that describes the process of criminal profiling? Define or explain each component of the equation.
Q3) Define what is meant by minimization and maximization techniques and provide one example of each technique.
Q4) What is the name of the interrogation model that is most often taught to police officers in North America? Briefly describe the model's three stages.
Q5) What does the acronym for the PEACE model of interrogation stand for? Briefly describe the primary goal of this model,and provide one example of how Canadian police officers are not adhering o the principles advocated by the PEACE model.
Q6) Define criminal profiling in general terms and provide four main goals of criminal profiling.
Q7) Distinguish between a retracted confession and a disputed confession.
Q8) State four general criticisms of criminal profiling.
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Chapter 4: A: Deception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recommendations concerning training programs for improving deception detection abilities in professionals include:
A)Utilizing new techniques such as thermal imaging and voice stress analysis.
B)Teaching professionals how to elicit cues to deception in interviewing.
C)Focusing on teaching both deception cues and truthfulness cues to counteract lie biases in professional populations.
D)Instructing police officers to go "back to the basics" and rely on their gut instincts in determining truthfulness.
E)Focusing on behavioural cues to deception and debunking myths about verbal cues.
Q2) What is one of the key components to malingering?
A)Symptoms are not intentionality produced.
B)There are only internal motivations for the production of symptoms.
C)There are external motivations for the production of symptoms.
D)Symptoms are produced in order to assume the sick role.
E)There is an absence of external incentives.
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Chapter 4: B: Deception
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Q1) Describe how event-related brain potentials (ERPs)have been used to detect deception.
Q2) Provide four criticisms of the Comparison Question Test (CQT).
Q3) What concern has been raised regarding use of brain-imaging evidence in court? Discuss research that has examined this concern.
Q4) Give two explanations for poor performance in deception detection.
Q5) What are the eight strategies that a person may employ when malingering identified by the Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)?
Q6) Your text identifies several cues of malingered psychosis.Identify three cues associated with hallucinations and three cues associated with delusions.
Q7) Describe the four phases of a Comparison Question Test (CQT).Make sure you identify the purpose of each phase.
Q8) Rogers (1990)describes three explanatory models of malingering.Name and define these three models.Which model is most highly supported?
Q9) According to your text,what are the two key components of malingering? List four reasons why an individual might be motivated to malinger.
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Chapter 5: A: Eyewitness Testimony
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Sample Questions
Q1) An eyewitness is exposed to a target-present lineup and identifies someone from the lineup that the police know did not commit the crime.What sort of decision has this eyewitness just made?
A)a correct identification
B)a false rejection
C)a foil identification
D)a correct rejection
E)none of the above
Q2) Julianne was attacked by a man that she described as short,blonde,and wearing a black hoodie.She is asked to come to the police station for an identification lineup,and the officer tells her the perpetrator may or may not be in the lineup.When she looks at the lineup members,she identifies #3 as the perpetrator as he has blond hair and all the other members of the lineup have dark brown or black hair.What type of bias is present in this lineup?
A)A suspect bias
B)A foil bias
C)A clothing bias
D)An instruction bias
E)A facial bias
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Chapter 5: B: Eyewitness Testimony
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Sample Questions
Q1) Distinguish between the cue-utilization hypothesis and the unusualness hypothesis as explanations for the weapon focus effect.
Q2) Distinguish between a system variable and an estimator variable as related to eyewitness research.Provide one example of each.
Q3) Define the misinformation effect within the context of eyewitness research.In addition,fully describe the three most common explanations for this effect
Q4) State two difficulties with the use of hypnosis in the eyewitness context.
Q5) List the correct decisions associated with both target-present and target-absent lineups.Also,list the potential errors that can be made in the lineup identification process and whether these errors are known or unknown to the police.
Q6) In general terms,how does the enhanced cognitive interview differ from the original cognitive interview? Name and define three of the five techniques specific to the enhanced cognitive interview.
Q7) Distinguish between a simultaneous and a sequential lineup.
Q8) List the five reasons why photo lineups are more common than live lineups.
Q9) Describe the three major types of biases that have been found to increase false positives in lineup identifications.
Page 12
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Chapter 6: A: Child Victims and Witnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low socioeconomic status and large family size are risk factors associated with what type of abuse?
A)physical abuse
B)sexual abuse
C)emotional abuse
D)neglect
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not a category of child maltreatment in Canada?
A)Sexual abuse
B)Neglect
C)Emotional maltreatment
D)Economic abuse
E)Physical abuse
Q3) Which of the following is not specified as a category of the narrative elaboration procedure?
A)criminal acts
B)participants
C)conversation/affective states
D)settings
E)consequences
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Chapter 6: B: Child Victims and Witnesses
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Q1) Describe the changes made to the competency inquiry with the enactment of Bill C-2 (2006).
Q2) Name and briefly explain the first five steps of the Step-Wise Interview.
Q3) Describe the four categories of child maltreatment defined by the Child Maltreatment Section (CMS)of Health Canada.
Q4) Discuss the short and long term effects of physical abuse as well as sexual abuse.
Q5) What are the five criteria identified by Lindsay and Read (1995)that should be considered when determining the veracity of a recovered memory?
Q6) What is Criterion-Based Content Analysis (CBCA)? Specify the assumption that underlies the CBCA and identify two potential problems with this method.
Q7) What is the narrative elaboration interview procedure? Describe how this procedure works and what the research on this procedure suggests in terms of its usefulness in interviewing children?
Q8) Name and briefly describe the two directions that have been taken to understand children's greater propensity toward suggestibility when recalling events (Bruck & Ceci,1999).
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Chapter 7: A: Juries: Fact Finders
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Q1) Note taking by jurors has been proposed as one possible way of improving juror comprehension.However,a number of researchers have pointed out potential problems with this comprehension aid.Which of the following has been proposed as a potential problem with juror note taking?
A)Jurors who have taken notes may exert an undue influence over those who haven't.
B)Note taking may distort perceptions of the case.
C)Note taking may be disruptive to other jurors.
D)Note taking may impede memory.
E)Note taking favours the defence.
Q2) You have been summoned as a prospective juror,and are being asked questions by the Crown and defence.When the defence finds out you are taking a course in forensic psychology,he argues that you should be excused on this basis and not eligible to be a juror in this case.What type of challenge is the defence council using in this situation?
A)Ex-post-facto challenge
B)Challenge for cause
C)Nullification challenge
D)Voir dire challenge
E)Peremptory challenge
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Chapter 7: B: Juries: Fact Finders
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Q1) List four functions of a jury.
Q2) What is meant by the juror characteristic of impartiality? What are two of the issues surrounding impartiality?
Q3) List two proposed advantages and two proposed disadvantages associated with the asking of questions by jurors as a courtroom comprehension aid.
Q4) List one advantage and one disadvantage of using simulation studies to investigate jury decision making.Briefly outline a simulation study to study the effects of victim characteristics in a sexual assault case on juror decision making.Make sure you clearly identify your independent variables (and/or person characteristics)and dependent variables.
Q5) In the context of jury decision making,identify two defendant characteristics that are most likely to result in guilty verdicts,and briefly explain each.
Q6) List four proposed reforms for judges' instructions aimed at facilitating juror understanding.
Q7) In the context of jury decision making,distinguish between the terms polarization,leniency bias,and black sheep effect.
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Page 16
Chapter 8: A: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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Q1) According to your text,two of the greatest predictors of future violence in offenders are:
A)schizophrenia and prior violence
B)prior violence and substance abuse
C)substance abuse and schizophrenia
D)major affective disorder and prior violence
E)schizophrenia and major affective disorder
Q2) The burden of proving unfitness is on:
A)the Crown
B)the defendant
C)the Defence
D)the judge
E)the party who raises the issue.
Q3) Of the few defendants that raise the insanity defence in the United States,about _______ are successful.
A)5%
B)10%
C)15%
D)20%
E)25%
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Chapter 8: B: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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Q1) You have been hired by a Canadian lawyer to assess a defendant for competency to stand trial.As a first step,you have decided to conduct a competency screener.Describe the screener that you will use and justify your choice.
Q2) Name two of the three changes to legislation resulting from Brian's Law (Bill 68).
Q3) In the context of a defendant found NCRMD,what are the four main criteria considered by courts and review boards when deciding a disposition? Explain the term capping and specify the consequence of capping for mentally ill offenders with respect to their dispositions.
Q4) What are three explanations proposed by Bland et al.(1990)for the high rates of mental illness in offender populations in Canada?
Q5) Distinguish between noninsane automatism and insane automatism.Discuss what dispositions are associated with each,and what circumstances have been recognized by Canadian courts in cases of noninsane automatism.
Q6) What are the four main objectives of mental health courts?
Q7) What is the relationship between recidivism rates and offenders with mental disorders,as studied by Rice and Harris (1992)?
Q8) What are the three dispositions that can be made following a finding of NCRMD?
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Chapter 9: A: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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Q1) Dr.Serin and colleagues developed an empirically-based framework for making parole decisions that has been adopted by the Parole Board of Canada.Research on the use of this framework has revealed that:
A)Higher rates of decision errors have occurred due to confusion over the model
B)Lower rates of decision errors have occurred across a range of situations
C)Lower rates of decision errors have occurred,but only for Aboriginal offenders
D)Higher rates of decision errors have occurred for special inmate populations (Aboriginal,youth,women)but errors have been reduced for the remainder of inmates
E)Use of this model does not result in significant differences when compared to traditional (unstructured)parole decision-making
Q2) Sylvia has served the first third of her sentence for assaulting her husband.What is the highest level of parole that she is now eligible for?
A)Statutory release
B)Day parole
C)Full parole
D)Temporary absence
E)Warrant expiry
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Page 19
Chapter 9: B: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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Q1) What is unwarranted sentencing disparity? List and describe the two major sources of unwarranted sentencing disparity.
Q2) Discuss the difference in success rates and parole failures across offenders released on day and full parole relative to those granted statutory release.
Q3) Identify and describe the five main sentencing options utilized in Canada.
Q4) Identify and describe the four major types of parole in Canada.
Q5) What is the Aboriginal overrepresentation problem in Canadian corrections? What factors contribute to this overrepresentation,and what measures have been taken in Canada to reduce this problem?
Q6) State the fundamental principle of sentencing as defined in Canada's Criminal Code.In addition,specify four other principles of sentencing.
Q7) Provide at least six of the factors that are available to be considered when the Parole Board of Canada assesses risk and parole options.
Q8) Many purposes of sentencing exist,including specific and general deterrence.State four additional purposes of sentencing.
Q9) Define the need principle,risk principle,and responsivity principle.
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Chapter 10: A: Risk Assessment
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Q1) Consisting of ten items,the ____________ is an actuarial scale developed for the prediction of sexual recidivism.
A)STATIC-99
B)VRAG
C)SARA
D)PCL-R
E)VRS
Q2) Compared to male offenders,female offenders are more likely to:
A)lack education
B)be younger
C)have extensive criminal histories
D)be victims of physical and sexual abuse
E)be on social assistance
Q3) Using the VRAG,which of the 12 predictors of violence listed below is the most predictive of violent recidivism?
A)Age at index offence
B)Diagnosis of schizophrenia
C)Psychopathy score
D)History of alcohol problems
E)Elementary school maladjustment
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Chapter 10: B: Risk Assessment
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Q1) What is desistance and why is age related to declines in criminal offending? What interpersonal moderators also have been proposed to aid in the transition between criminal offending and desistance?
Q2) Identify and explain the three main weaknesses of research on the prediction of violence.
Q3) Risk assessment is associated with both correct and incorrect prediction outcomes.Construct a 2 × 2 illustrating four possible prediction outcomes in risk assessment for violence.Identify who suffers the consequences of each decision error.
Q4) Identify and explain the three historical risk factors for violent/criminal behaviour discussed in your text.Be as specific as possible.
Q5) Name at least four ways in which female offenders differ from male offenders.
Q6) Name and define the two components of the risk assessment process.
Q7) Describe the coping-relapse model of criminal recidivism proposed by Zamble and Quinsey (1997),including the four levels of the model that can lead to criminal behaviour.
Q8) Within the context of violence prediction,distinguish between a static risk factor,a dynamic risk factor,and a protective factor.Provide an example of each.
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Chapter 11: A: Psychopaths
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Q1) Gerald is classified as a sexual offender and is considered to be a part of the sex offender group that has been found to have the lowest psychopathy scores.What type of sex offender is Gerald?
A)Sexual homicide offender
B)Mixed sexual offender
C)Child molester
D)Rapist
E)Exhibitionist
Q2) Recent studies suggest that psychopathic traits may be high for a subset of people belonging to which particular occupational group?
A)Doctors
B)Dentists
C)Professors
D)Corporate managers
E)Police officers
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23
Chapter 11: B: Psychopaths
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Q1) Identify the ten myths associated with psychopathy.
Q2) List the five recommendations identified by Quayle (2008)to use when interviewing a psychopathic suspect.
Q3) Name and describe the most widely used assessment tool for measuring psychopathic traits in adults.
Q4) Explain how psychopaths differ from nonpsychopaths and more specifically how psychopaths' use of violence differs from nonpychopathic offenders.
Q5) Discuss several of the reservations that have been raised concerning applying the label of psychopath to children and adults,and what research has found regarding these concerns.
Q6) Explain who Clifford Olson is and why he is famous.What changes have been made to Canadian legislation as a result of his request?
Q7) Explain why most researchers believe psychopaths cannot be treated.Describe one well-known study that lends support for this notion.
Q8) Describe the cognitive and affective models of psychopathy in terms of the two predominant theories about the development of psychopathy.
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Chapter 12: A: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Q1) What is not considered an individual risk factor for behavioural problems in youth?
A)impulsivity
B)parent's history of ADHD
C)mother's use of drugs or alcohol during pregnancy
D)resilience
E)difficult temperament
Q2) According to the Ontario Child Health Study,approximately what percentage of children between the ages of 4 and 16 were found to experience conduct disorder,hyperactivity,emotional disturbance,or a combination of these?
A)1%
B)20%
C)30%
D)40%
E)50%
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25
Chapter 12: B: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Q1) Name the three childhood psychiatric disorders that occur with frequency in young offenders.Provide two characteristics of each.
Q2) Name the two types of adolescent offenders described by Moffitt.Provide two characteristics associated with each type of adolescent offender.
Q3) What is the relationship between youth gang involvement and delinquency? Discuss using research to back up your points.
Q4) State three main objectives of the Youth Criminal Justice Act.
Q5) Define "resilient" and identify four ways that protective factors are effective.
Q6) Compare the key changes to the youth criminal justice system associated with the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA),the Young Offenders Act (YOA)and the Youth Criminal Justice Act (YCJA).
Q7) Describe the Offender Risk Assessment and Management System,including the two scales that are used within this system to assess risk with young offenders.
Q8) Three childhood psychiatric diagnoses occur with some frequency in young offenders.Identify the three disorders,describe each,and discuss the relationship between these disorders (i.e.,is diagnosis with one type likely to result in the diagnosis with another?).
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Chapter 13: A: Intimate Partner Violence
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Q1) Which type of treatment for male offenders was found to be most effective in the meta-analysis conducted by Babcock,Green,and Robie (2004)?
A)Duluth model
B)cognitive-behavioural
C)couples therapy
D)feminist group therapy
E)none of the above
Q2) In the survey by Ewing and Aubrey (1987)examining domestic violence myths,which of the following statements were women more likely to agree with than men?
A)The woman can rely on the police to protect her.
B)Battering is an isolated event.
C)The woman can prevent battering by seeking counselling.
D)The battered woman could simply leave her battering husband.
E)The female victim "bears at least some responsibility".
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Chapter 13: B: Intimate Partner Violence
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Q1) Holtzworth-Munroe and Stuart (1994)developed a typology of male batterers based on the severity of violence,generality of violence,and personality disorder characteristics.Name and define each of the three types of batterers.
Q2) Name and briefly describe the three-phase cycle of abuse proposed by Lenore Walker (1979).Discuss what happens at each phase.
Q3) Kropp,Hart,and Lyon (2002)have formulated a typology that classifies stalkers into four categories based on their relationships with their victims.Name and describe the key characteristics of all four categories.
Q4) According to Rosenfeld (2004),what variables are significantly related to violence amongst stalkers (relative to those who pose a low risk of behaving violently)? What two factors are specifically associated with the greatest risk for continuing stalking behaviour after release from prison?
Q5) The Conflict Tactics Scale (CTS; Straus,1979)and the updated CTS2 (Straus et al.,1996),a scale used to measure domestic assault,has been criticized on many grounds.List the four criticisms specified in your text.
Q6) Name and briefly describe the three components included in Albert Bandura's Social Learning Theory of intimate violence.
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Chapter 14: A: Sexual Offenders
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Q1) According to Groth's rapist typology,which type of rapist is not motivated primarily by sexual gratification?
A)anger
B)vindictive
C)power
D)sadistic
E)both a and c
Q2) Which of the following types of sexual assault has the most serious maximum penalty?
A)simple sexual assault
B)aggravated sexual assault
C)voyeurism
D)exhibitionism
E)sexual assault with a weapon
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the features of the fixated child molester?
A)Their sexual interest in children begins in adolescence and is persistent.
B)Their offences are planned.
C)Male children are their primary targets.
D)They are emotionally immature.
E)They usually have a history of alcohol or drug abuse.
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Chapter 14: B: Sexual Offenders
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Q1) Identify and discuss the five main myths associated with sexual assault discussed in your text,including facts that challenge these false beliefs.
Q2) Groth (1979)proposed a threefold rapist typology.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's goals,the amount of force used,and the primary motivations.
Q3) List the four types of female sexual offenders identified by Atkinson (1996).Describe each in terms of their offending behaviour and their backgrounds.
Q4) According to Finkelhor's (1984)theory of child molesting,what are the four preconditions in order for sexual abuse to occur?
Q5) Knight and Prentky (1990)developed the Revised Rapist Typology (MTC: R3)which consists of five primary subtypes of rapists.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's motivational differences.
Q6) List four characteristics of the fixated child molester and four characteristics of the regressed child molester.
Q7) Describe the primary method used to assess deviant sexual interests,as well as two approaches used to treat deviant sexual interests.
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Chapter 15: A: Homicidal Offenders
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40529
Sample Questions
Q1) Carson arrived home from a business trip to find his girlfriend Sonya in bed with his best friend Jake.He flies off the handle,grabs a gun from the closet,and shoots them both.What type of homicide would Carson most likely be guilty of?
A)Manslaughter
B)First-degree murder
C)Spousicide
D)Second-degree murder
E)Instrumental homicide
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true about the characteristics of homicide in Canada?
A)The amount of gang-related homicides is decreasing.
B)Gun-related homicides are on the increase.
C)The rate of female homicide victims is increasing.
D)Homicide rates are highest in the Atlantic provinces.
E)All of the above
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Chapter 15: B: Homicidal Offenders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40530
Sample Questions
Q1) Distinguish between a reactive and an instrumental homicide.
Q2) Describe the General Aggression Model (GAM),including the inputs,the internal states they influence,and behavioural outcomes.
Q3) Differentiate between filicide,familicide,femicide,and mariticide.
Q4) Identify the two types of familicide murderers described by Wilson,Daly,and Daniele (1995),and discuss the features of both.
Q5) Identify the three categories of juvenile homicide offenders outlined by Cornell,Benedek,and Benedek (1987)and describe the circumstances of their offending.Which type is the most common among youth killers?
Q6) Distinguish between serial,mass,and spree murderers.Discuss the key elements that distinguish these types of multiple murderers from one another.
Q7) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers,with one being a hedonistic serial murderer.What motivates a hedonistic serial murderer? List the three subtypes of the hedonistic serial murderer and distinguish between them.
Q8) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers.Describe the four major types of serial murderers and their motivations.
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