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Psychological Assessment and Diagnosis provides an in-depth exploration of the principles, methods, and ethical considerations involved in evaluating psychological functioning. The course covers a variety of assessment tools including structured and unstructured interviews, intelligence tests, personality inventories, and specialized clinical instruments. Students learn how to select, administer, score, and interpret psychological tests, and integrate test results with clinical observations and background information to arrive at accurate diagnoses in accordance with current classification systems such as the DSM and ICD. Emphasis is placed on cultural competence, the impact of bias, and the importance of collaboration in forming assessment-based intervention plans.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology An Integrated Approach 6th Edition by David H. Barlow
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16 Chapters
2512 Verified Questions
2512 Flashcards
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152 Verified Questions
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Q1) Realizing that patients were often unaware of material previously recalled under hypnosis,Charcot,Breuer,and Freud hypothesized the existence of ___________,a concept considered one of the most important developments in the history of psychopathology.
A) neurosis
B) the unconscious mind
C) the Electra complex
D) catharsis
Answer: B
Q2) The warring id and superego cause anxiety as a result of A) intrapsychic conflict.
B) displacement.
C) conscience judging the ego ideal.
D) defense mechanisms.
Answer: A
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Q1) The fact that a disorder can be caused by a variety of factors illustrates the principle of _______.
A) equifinality
B) isolation
C) equilibration
Answer: A
Q2) The neurotransmitter associated with regulation of mood,behavior,and thought processes is ______.
A) GABA
B) norepinephrine
C) serotonin
D) dopamine
Answer: C
Q3) Children who are resistant to stress are considered to be _______________.
A) resilient
B) reliant
C) resistant
D) reactive
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) An intelligence test is a measure to
A) determine a person's intelligence.
B) predict academic success.
C) determine a person's creativity.
D) all of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Hysteria,a "female" condition characterized by physical complaints without medical basis,was thought to result from a(n)_______________.
A) displaced ovary
B) wandering uterus
C) enlarged womb
D) missing cervix
Answer: B
Q3) The ABCs of observation refer to the ___________ sequence.
A) affect-behavior-cognition
B) antecedent-behavior-cognition
C) antecedent-behavior-consequence
D) affect-behavior-consequence
Answer: C
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Q1) The directionality issue in correlation refers to A) whether two variables are correlated positively or negatively. B) which factor causes the other to occur.
C) whether conclusions based on data are true or false.
D) the strength of a correlation.
Q2) Epidemiological research is useful because it
A) directly identifies the causes of disorders.
B) tells researchers the relationship between two variables.
C) provides examples of cases when treatment was effective.
D) tells the extent of a disorder in the population.
Q3) Confounds,or factors that make it difficult to interpret accurately the results of a study,directly affect A) reliability.
B) external validity.
C) internal validity.
D) whether the results are published.
Q4) Describe each of the four components of informed consent for research participants.Explain why it may be difficult to satisfy informed consent when research participants are mentally retarded adults.
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Q1) The anxiety disorder called social phobia,involving anxiety about being evaluated or criticized,usually begins during ________.
A) childhood
B) adolescence
C) young adulthood
D) middle age
Q2) The study most common obsession is related to ___________.
A) aggression
B) sex
C) contamination
D) symmetry
Q3) Research by Lundh (1996)and Mgg (2004)demonstrated that social phobics presented with pictures of faces were more likely to remember ________ expressions.
A) smiling and pleasant
B) critical and angry
C) sad and tearful
D) blank, meaningless
Q4) Describe posttraumatic stress disorder and acute stress disorder,and discuss the difference between the two.
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Q1) One reason that DID can be misdiagnosed as psychosis is that
A) auditory hallucinations are common in both disorders.
B) both disorders are in the same DSM-IV category.
C) mental health professionals generally do not believe that dissociation is possible.
D) substance abuse makes it difficult to differentiate these disorders.
Q2) With regard to evidence for the scientific validity of dissociative identity disorder (DID),the most accurate statement is
A) most DID patients are faking.
B) research suggests that faking dissociative experiences is possible.
C) it is virtually impossible to fake the types of changes that occur in dissociative identity disorder.
D) objective tests can always determine which patients are faking dissociative identity disorder.
Q3) Without treatment,it is expected that DID will last ___________.
A) 10 years
B) a lifetime
C) several months
D) 20 years
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Sample Questions
Q1) Negative cognitive styles are associated with a vulnerability to subsequent depression
A) in people in general.
B) in people who have already been depressed.
C) only in people who are currently depressed.
D) only in women.
Q2) All of the following are longitudinal course specifiers for recurrent mania or depression EXCEPT
A) previous history of dysthymia.
B) presence of psychotic features.
C) previous history of cyclothymia.
D) full recovery between manic and depressive episodes.
Q3) Which of the following is not a stage of interpersonal therapy?
A) Negotiation stage
B) Impasse stage
C) Resolution stage
D) Treatment stage
Q4) Discuss the symptoms,causes and treatments for seasonal affective disorder.
Q5) Compare and contrast the symptoms of major depressive episode,a manic episode,dysthymic disorder,and hypomania.
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Q1) Adolescents tend to shift toward a
A) biologically determined later sleep schedule.
B) culturally determined earlier sleep schedule.
C) biologically determined earlier sleep schedule.
D) culturally determined later sleep schedule.
Q2) While a patient sleeps,a polysomnographic evaluation collects data on all of the following characteristics EXCEPT _________.
A) respiration
B) muscle movements
C) brain waves
D) metabolic rate
Q3) One major difference between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is A) people with bulimia do not use exercise as a way to burn calories.
B) people with anorexia actually lose too much weight.
C) bulimic individuals tend to be overweight.
D) anorexics do not have psychological or medical consequences to their dieting.
Q4) Discuss possible reasons for the current obesity epidemic seen in the US and other countries and the relative efficacy of currently available obesity treatment options and preventions.
Q5) Describe primary insomnia and contrast it to hypersomnia and narcolepsy.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main branches of the immune system are
A) the B cells and the leukocytes.
B) the humoral and the macrophages.
C) the humoral and the cellular.
D) the bacteria, viruses, and parasites.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true?
A) Group psychotherapy always prolongs life in cancer patients.
B) Group psychotherapy seems to decrease depression in cancer patients.
C) Group psychotherapy may prolong life in some cancer patients.
D) Mothers of children with cancer benefit form therapy.
Q3) The only effective prevention strategy currently available for reducing the spread of AIDS appears to be _______________.
A) a vaccine
B) medications
C) changing high-risk behavior
D) educating people about the risk of the disease
Q4) Discuss chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)and chronic pain.Relate CFS to the condition known as neurasthenia.What psychological factors are thought to maintain chronic pain?
Q5) Define and describe the new fields of behavioral medicine and health psychology.
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Q1) The major aspect(s)involved in the assessment of sexual behavior include(s)________________.
A) interviewing
B) thorough medical evaluation
C) psychophysiological assessment
D) all of the above
Q2) The definition of a fetish is sexual _______________.
A) dysfunction
B) attraction to inappropriate individuals
C) attraction to nonliving objects
D) desire that dominates the personality
Q3) Data from research studies on gender differences in human sexuality (Peplau,2003)reflect all of the following themes EXCEPT
A) men show more sexual desire and arousal than women.
B) men emphasize committed relationships more than women.
C) men's self-concept is characterized in part by power, aggression, and independence.
D) women's sexual beliefs are more influenced by cultural, social, and situational factors.
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Q1) In the impulse control disorders,the individual feels ____________ prior to carrying out the act.
A) relaxed and calm
B) tense and aroused
C) spaced out
D) angry and aggressive
Q2) ________ is a method in which a drug with a similar chemical makeup is given in place of an addictive drug,and ________ are used to block the effects of psychoactive drugs.
A) Antagonist substitution; agonist drugs
B) Agonist substitution; antagonist drugs
C) Relapse prevention; agonist drugs
D) Relapse prevention; antagonist drugs
Q3) The field of research that studies how genes work to affect addiction is called _______.
A) behavior genetics
B) the genome project
C) functional genomics
D) genetic cross-transformation
Q4) Discuss the various component treatments for substance abuse.
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Q1) The data regarding treatment outcome for individuals with paranoid personality disorder
A) indicate no evidence for treatment success.
B) suggest that treatment can only be successful if the patient remains in therapy for a minimum of one year.
C) indicate that cognitive therapy is effective in most cases.
D) demonstrate that strict behavioral approaches are effective.
Q2) DSM-IV-TR divides personality disorders into ___ distinct clusters.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q3) George lives every day on a strict schedule.He must have everything perfect and organized,and is excessively devoted to his work.However,he has difficulty completing projects.Which personality disorder is he likely to be diagnosed?
A) Paranoid
B) Obsessive-compulsive
C) Dependent
D) Borderline
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Q1) Second-generation or atypical antipsychotics may
A) help patients who were previously unresponsive.
B) have fewer side effects than traditional antipsychotics. C) be less likely to be discontinued by the patient.
D) are no longer used to treat schizophrenia.
Q2) Which of the following is the best description of schizophrenia?
A) Schizophrenia is characterized by symptoms common to everyone with the diagnosis.
B) Schizophrenia is characterized by multiple personalities.
C) Schizophrenia is characterized by behavior and symptoms that aren't necessarily common to everyone with the diagnosis.
D) The course of schizophrenia is always predictable.
Q3) Individuals with __________ tend not to have flat affect or anhedonia,but may become socially isolated because of their suspicions of others.
A) brief psychotic disorder
B) schizophreniform disorder
C) schizophrenia, disorganized type
D) delusional disorder
Q4) Discuss the other psychotic disorders.
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Q1) The study of how your genetic makeup influences your response to certain drugs is called _____________.
A) behavior genetics
B) psychopharmocology
C) psychopharmocogenetics
D) psychogenetics
Q2) Given the available intervention strategies for learning disorders,the method that probably has the best chance of actually removing the learning disorder is
A) development of better study skills.
B) efforts to develop compensating cognitive skills.
C) systematic instruction and teaching for mastery.
D) improving overall intelligence.
Q3) ADHA is found in about _________ of the child populations across all regions of the world.
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 8%
D) 10%
Q4) Discuss the possible causes of autism.
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Q1) Impaired consciousness and cognition during the course of several hours or days defines _______________.
A) delirium
B) dementia
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) amnestic disorder
Q2) Substance-induced delirium is often treated with A) cold turkey withdrawal.
B) psychostimulants.
C) antidepressants.
D) benzodiazepines.
Q3) The progression of Alzheimer's type dementia is
A) slow during early stages and late stages, and rapid during middle stages.
B) rapid during early and late stages, and slow during middle stages.
C) slow and progressive throughout the individual's life.
D) slow in the early stages and rapid during late stages.
Q4) Explain how Alzheimer's type dementia is usually treated.Include information about medication and psychosocial therapies.How would you characterize the success of the currently available treatment options for Alzheimer's type dementia?
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Q1) In terms of civil commitment,"grave disability" refers to A) having a mental illness and needing treatment.
B) fear of controversy.
C) being unable to care for oneself.
D) possibility that a person will be harmed by others.
Q2) You have read an article in the newspaper about a rapist who was convicted under a "sexual predator law." You know that this person will be A) hospitalized immediately in a psychiatric institution that has a sexual offenders unit. B) sentenced to an indefinite term in a prison that has a separate section for rapists. C) hospitalized for treatment and then imprisoned if the treatment is not effective.
D) incarcerated for a specific term and then civilly committed if judged still dangerous.
Q3) Explore the consequences of the policy known as "deinstitutionalization," noting specifically the effect on homelessness.Compare the intended outcome of this policy with the actual outcome.
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