

Psychobiology Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Psychobiology explores the intricate relationships between biological processes and behavior, focusing on how the brain, nervous system, hormones, and genetics influence cognition, emotion, and actions. Through an interdisciplinary approach combining psychology and biology, students examine topics such as neural communication, sensory systems, the biological basis of learning and memory, emotion regulation, and the effects of drugs and environment on behavior. The course emphasizes both theoretical foundations and current research findings, providing students with a comprehensive understanding of how physiological mechanisms underlie psychological phenomena.
Recommended Textbook
Discovering Behavioral Neuroscience An Introduction to Biological Psychology 4th Edition by Laura
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16 Chapters
2642 Verified Questions
2642 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: What Is Behavioral Neuroscience?
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146 Verified Questions
146 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4310
Sample Questions
Q1) Permanent lesions are usually produced by applying A) cold or chemicals.
B) heat or cold.
C) heat or chemicals.
D) magnetism or cold.
Answer: C
Q2) The analysis of evoked potentials is based on A) CT.
B) PET.
C) fMRI.
D) Electroencephalography (EEG).
Answer: D
Q3) The Neuron Doctrine pertains to the
A) use of electricity by neurons in communication.
B) localization of language to the left hemisphere.
C) separate pathways used for processing sensory and motor information
D) nervous system as a collection of separate cells.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System
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202 Verified Questions
202 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Katie has a tumor that is disrupting her ability to maintain her body temperature. Near which of the following structures is Katie's tumor most likely to be located?
A) hypothalamus
B) periaqueductal gray
C) locus coeruleus
D) raphe nuclei
Answer: A
Q2) The process by which some genes become more prevalent in subsequent generations due to reproductive success is known as:
A) natural selection
B) descent
C) abrupt change
D) genetics
Answer: A
Q3) The _____ nervous system is active during periods of arousal, stress, and emergency and prepares the body for "fight-or-flight." The _____ nervous system is active during times of calm and participates in the storage of nutrients and the repair of the body
Answer: sympathetic, parasympathetic
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Chapter 3: Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions of the
Cells of the Nervous System
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163 Verified Questions
163 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As much as 20 to 40 percent of the energy required by the brain is used by
A) sodium-potassium pumps.
B) calcium pumps.
C) anterograde transport within neurons.
D) retrograde transport within neurons.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the types of cytoskeleton fiber may be involved with structural changes in response to learning?
A) microfilaments
B) neurofilaments
C) tau proteins
D) microtubules
Answer: A
Q3) The amount of neurotransmitter released during exocytosis is largely determined by the amount of calcium entering the presynaptic axon terminal.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Psychopharmacology
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180 Verified Questions
180 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excess release of which neurochemical is toxic to neurons?
A) glutamate
B) GABA
C) dopamine
D) serotonin
Q2) ACh released into the synaptic gap is deactivated primarily by
A) diffusion away from the synapse.
B) absorption by astrocytes.
C) reuptake.
D) enzymes.
Q3) Curare causes muscle paralysis by
A) interfering with the synthesis of ACh.
B) preventing the release of ACh.
C) blocking ACh receptors.
D) blocking the action of AChE.
Q4) LSD produces
A) neither tolerance nor withdrawal.
B) tolerance but not withdrawal.
C) withdrawal but not tolerance.
D) tolerance and withdrawal.

Page 6
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Chapter 5: Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain
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147 Verified Questions
147 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spina bifida is a neurological disease that is correlated with a maternal vitamin deficiency. What is the cause of spina bifida and how is it manifested in a child?
Q2) Which of the following statements about radial glia is true?
A) They degenerate when migration is complete.
B) They differentiate into astrocytes.
C) They retain the ability to produce daughter cells.
D) They differentiate into neurons.
Q3) Completion of myelination in the CNS is one possible reason that
A) does not have observable behavioral effects, as the process is completed before birth in humans.
B) might account for the ability of children to learn to read and write.
C) coincides with the onset of puberty and children's ability to think in abstract terms.
D) might account for superior decision making in adults compared to teens.
Q4) The genetic instructions of an organism is known as the A) telomere.
B) genotype.
C) phenotype.
D) chromosome.

Page 7
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Chapter 6: Vision
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171 Verified Questions
171 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lens of the eye continues to grow throughout the lifespan.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The layer of pigmented cells supporting the photoreceptors in the retina and absorbing random light is known as the A) macula.
B) epithelium.
C) fovea.
D) ganglion layer.
Q3) Chong is looking at the fine details of a beautiful painting in an art gallery. Most likely, he is relying on his ____ that give him ______ vision to stare at the picture.
A) rods; scotopic
B) cones; scotopic
C) rods; photopic
D) cones; photopic
Q4) Retinal disparity decreases with the distance of the object from the viewer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Nonvisual Sensation and Perception
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165 Verified Questions
165 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures are found in the outer ear?
A) the pinna and auditory canal
B) the pinna and the tympanic membrane
C) the auditory canal and the tympanic membrane
D) the auditory canal and the oval window
Q2) Reissner's membrane separates the _________, whereas the basilar membrane separates the _________.
A) vestibular canal and cochlear duct; tympanic canal and cochlear duct
B) tympanic canal and cochlear duct; vestibular canal and cochlear duct
C) vestibular canal and tympanic canal; cochlear duct and auditory canal
D) auditory canal and cochlear duct; vestibular canal and tympanic canal
Q3) Michael has decided to donate to a blood drive at his university. As the nurse prepares to insert a needle into Michael's arm, which of the following structures becomes more active in anticipation of pain?
A) Michael's intralaminar nuclei of the hypothalamus
B) Michael's anterior cingulate cortex (ACC)
C) Michael's posterior cingulate cortex (PCC)
D) Michael's somatosensory cortex
Q4) Describe the types of mechanoreceptors that provide information about touch.
Q5) Discuss some variations in sensitivity to smell that have been shown in humans.
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Chapter 8: Movement
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164 Verified Questions
164 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where should we look to find Ia sensory fibers?
A) at the neuromuscular junction where they are forming synapses with muscle fibers
B) wrapped around the middle sections of muscle spindle fibers
C) in the junctions between muscles and tendons
D) in joints and in the skin
Q2) Motor units that include Type IIb fibers
A) usually include Type IIa fibers as well.
B) produce about 100 times the force as units that include Type I fibers.
C) produce about one-third of the force produced by units that include Type IIa fibers.
D) are rarely found in humans.
Q3) What is the difference between a monosynaptic and polysynaptic reflex? Give examples of each.
Q4) Reciprocal inhibition is a simple type of _________ reflex.
A) monosynaptic
B) polysynaptic
C) flexion
D) withdrawal
Q5) How does recruitment work and why does our body do this?
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Chapter 9: Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward
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163 Verified Questions
163 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Professor Arevalo is teaching her class about _____ and gives them the example that humans need to maintain a body temperature around 98.6 degrees.
A) set points
B) drive states
C) homeostasis
D) motivation
Q2) Aldosterone signals the kidneys to
A) retain sodium.
B) excrete sodium.
C) increase urine production.
D) decrease urine production.
Q3) A physiological state of equilibrium or balance is called A) motivation.
B) a set point.
C) homeostasis.
D) drive.
Q4) When levels of _____ are low, cells in the arcuate nucleus release _______ and AgRP to communicate with the _______ (#2) and the PVN (#1).
Q5) What are the mechanisms for satiety?
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Chapter 10: Sexual Behavior
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159 Verified Questions
159 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The quantity of androgens produced by adult females is about _________ percent of the quantity produced by males.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 33
D) 50
Q2) How many pairs of chromosomes do human males and females have in common?
A) 20
B) 22
C) 25
D) 27
Q3) Testosterone levels appear to increase in anticipation of competition for
A) male college athletes only.
B) female college athletes only.
C) male and female college athletes.
D) neither male nor female college athletes.
Q4) Carla has been diagnosed with Turner syndrome. Discuss what symptoms she might experience and the specific genetics she inherited.
Q5) Discuss how the internal sexual organs develop differently from the gonads.
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Chapter 11: Sleep and Waking
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169 Verified Questions
169 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The body's internal "master clock" is A) the pons.
B) the occipital cortex.
C) the thalamus
D) the suprachiasmatic nucleus.
Q2) John travels frequently to distant parts of the globe. He believes that adjusting his mealtimes to the destination time zone is helpful in dealing with jet lag. After studying the material in your textbook, you tell John that
A) he's wasting his time, as adjusting his mealtimes will have little if any effect on jet lag.
B) he should expect some benefits, as his SCN is very responsive to changes in feeding patterns.
C) he should expect some benefits, as his peripheral clocks should respond to changes in feeding patterns.
D) this is a highly effective strategy, because both his SCN and peripheral clocks are highly sensitive to changes in feeding patterns.
Q3) Explain the role of a zeitgeber and give some examples including the most potent for humans.
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Chapter 12: Learning and Memory
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168 Verified Questions
168 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4321
Sample Questions
Q1) Jonah required surgery on both of his temporal lobes. Following the surgery, Jonah suffered from severe anterograde amnesia and had great difficulty in
A) learning the name of the new occupational therapist assigned to his case.
B) learning to use his new cell phone.
C) remembering the details of his high school graduation.
D) remembering how to find the square root of a number.
Q2) The emotional and declarative aspects of a memory for a stressful event
A) are both a result of activity in the hippocampus.
B) are both a result of activity in the amygdala.
C) are the result of independent activity in the amygdala and hippocampus, respectively.
D) result when activity in the hippocampus inhibits activity in the amygdala.
Q3) The process of __________ is probably dependent on LTP.
A) language learning
B) spatial learning
C) formation of flashbulb memories
D) habituation
Q4) The brain changes as we age. Explain the changes in brain activity involved in processing memories that occur with an aged brain.
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Chapter 13: Cognition
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168 Verified Questions
168 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Grandma Salicetti came to the United States from Italy when she was 18. She learned English but not very fluently. She recently had a stroke, and although she can still speak, she is having some difficulty. Which of the following is the most likely outcome?
A) She will still be able to speak English fluently but not Italian.
B) She will still be able to speak Italian fluently but not English.
C) She will have trouble speaking both languages equally fluently.
D) She will still be able to speak both languages fluently but not understand either.
Q2) In dichotic listening tasks,
A) most right-handed people will repeat the information heard by the left ear.
B) most right-handed people will repeat the information heard by the right ear.
C) 50 percent of right-handed people will repeat the information heard by the left ear.
D) most left-handed people will repeat the information heard by the left ear.
Q3) In the work to teach language to great apes, teaching sign language has
A) been more successful than efforts to teach spoken language.
B) been about as successful as efforts to teach spoken language.
C) been less successful than efforts to teach spoken language.
D) not been successful at all.
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Chapter 14: Emotion, Aggression, and Stress
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160 Verified Questions
160 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4323
Sample Questions
Q1) For a lab project, Rachel wants to correlate autonomic states, as measured by skin conductance, with emotions produced by watching a video. It is most likely that Rachel will observe
A) clear differences in autonomic measures between emotions like anger and fear.
B) strong differences between different negative emotions, like anger and fear, but fewer differences between positive and negative emotions in general.
C) strong differences between different negative emotions, but no differences between different positive emotions.
D) stronger autonomic responses to negative emotions, such as fear or anger, than to positive emotions, like happiness and pride.
Q2) Which sensory modality is most likely to involve processing by the anterior cingulate cortex (ACC)?
A) olfaction
B) taste
C) pain
D) hearing
Q3) Describe the strategies people use in emotion regulation.
Q4) What is the relationship between stress and health?
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Chapter 15: Neuropsychology
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151 Verified Questions
151 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4324
Sample Questions
Q1) Partial seizures are frequently accompanied by an aura, but generalized seizures typically occur without an aura.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The World Health Organization (WHO) establishes grading for tumors from Grade I to Grade IV. Explain these grades, the hallmarks of cancer seen for each grade, and differences in prognosis based on grade.
Q3) Symptoms that occur following a concussion
A) are only seen when subdural bleeding has occurred.
B) are always seen.
C) occur in some but not all cases of open head injury.
D) occur in some but not all cases of concussion.
Q4) Neurocysticercosis results from an infection by A) a fungus.
B) the larvae of the pork tapeworm.
C) a type of bacteria.
D) a virus.
Q5) PrPC stands for ____________________, whereas PrPSC stands for

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Chapter 16: Psychopathology
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166 Verified Questions
166 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should we interpret the correlation between schizophrenia and birth complications?
A) Birth complications clearly cause schizophrenia in the mother.
B) Birth complications clearly lead to the later development of schizophrenia in the child.
C) Infants who will later develop schizophrenia are difficult to carry and deliver.
D) Birth complications may trigger schizophrenia, or an infant who is vulnerable to schizophrenia may be difficult to carry and deliver, or both.
Q2) Supplementation with omega-3 fatty acids has _________ people with bipolar disorder.
A) had no effect on B) clearly improved the behavior of C) produced a worsening of symptoms in
D) produced mixed results in improving the behavior of
Q3) Kym is worried that she might have a mental disorder. What are the general criteria that she must meet if she were to be diagnosed?
Q4) Lala has been diagnosed with MDD. What treatments options are available to her?
Q5) Discuss the correlations between brain activity and antisocial behavior.
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Page 18