Psychiatric Nursing: Assessment and Diagnosis Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of principles and practices involved in psychiatric nursing, emphasizing comprehensive assessment and accurate diagnosis of mental health conditions. Students will gain knowledge and practical skills in conducting mental status examinations, utilizing diagnostic tools, and applying evidence-based frameworks, such as the DSM-5, to interpret behavioral and psychological symptoms. The course also addresses the integration of cultural, developmental, and ethical considerations in the assessment process, preparing students to develop effective nursing care plans based on individualized patient needs and current best practices in mental health care.
Recommended Textbook
Psychiatric Advanced Practice Nursing 1st Edition by Perese
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19 Chapters
203 Verified Questions
203 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Theoretical Framework of Practice
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nobel Prize winner Eric Kandel demonstrated that the brain
A) Is plastic before birth but becomes hard-wired at birth
B) Has plasticity and can change during the first 3 years of life
C) Has plasticity that allows it to make new connections in response to learning
D) Is unable to make new connections after age 26
Answer: C
Q2) The primary relevance of Bowlby's attachment theory for psychiatric advanced practice nurses is that
A) Toddlers develop primitive defense mechanisms such as denial.
B) Toddlers develop an inner working model of how adults will respond to them.
C) Toddlers face the psychosocial task of autonomy versus shame.
D) Toddlers develop a fear of engulfment and enmeshment.
Answer: B
Q3) Brain plasticity, which refers to the brain's capacity to change in response to an event,
A) Is the same for all individuals
B) Involves physical changes of the brain
C) Is absent in older adults
D) Is independent of genetic influence
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Neurobiological Theory of Psychiatric Disorders:
Brain Functioning, Brain Development and Prenatal and
Perinatal Factors Disrupting Brain Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) On mental status examination, the patient's thoughts reveal lack of directedness, excessive details, and difficulty with closure. This pattern is called
A) Concrete thinking
B) Circumstantiality
C) Perseveration
D) Thought blocking
Answer: B
Q2) The brain structure that is believed to have a gating/filtering function and is the area of the brain through which all sensory information passes en route to various cortical areas is which of the following:
A) Brainstem
B) Reticular activating system
C) Thalamus
D) Hypothalamus
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Postnatal Influences on Development of
Psychopathology
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell synaptogenesis refers to
A) Birth of new neuronal cells
B) Migration of neurons
C) Programmed cell death
D) Establishment of connections between neurons
Answer: D
Q2) Following prenatal exposure to neurotoxic drugs, an adverse effect that is shared by many infants is
A) Abnormalities of finger ridges
B) High-steepled palate
C) Microencephaly
D) Curved little finger
Answer: C
Q3) It is known that childhood exposure to maltreatment
A) Is associated with increased rates of physical and psychiatric disorders
B) Occurs in 10% of U.S. children
C) Is most often exposure to sexual abuse
D) Usually involves a perpetrator who is unknown to the child
Answer: A
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Communicating, Interviewing and Assessing
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purposes of the psychiatric interview include all except
A) Gaining an understanding of the patient's illness
B) Obtaining information efficiently
C) Providing education about psychiatric disorders
D) Establishing a therapeutic alliance
Q2) In a biopsychosocial assessment, which of the following questions might be used to assess the social domain?
A) Did any medical conditions precipitate the psychiatric symptoms?
B) Did the patient have any childhood attentional problems or school phobia?
C) Has the patient ever attempted suicide or harmed himself?
D) Have the symptoms affected the patient's social and work functioning?
Q3) During an initial assessment, the relevant features of communication are its ability to
A) Promote a therapeutic alliance and increase understanding.
B) Prompt a disclosure of past successes and failures.
C) Bring about changes in behavior.
D) Educate the patient about what is important to disclose.
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Chapter 5: Case Formulation and Diagnosis, Differential
Diagnoses and Developing a Biopsychosocial Plan of Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a biopsychosocial case formulation, social contributions would be considered to be
A) Genetic influences and adverse circumstances of birth
B) Substance use and medical disorders
C) Cognitive deficits and dysregulation of emotions
D) Religious/cultural factors and living situations
Q2) In the problem-oriented method of case formulation, the patient's problems are defined as a solvable target of treatment. Which of the following is an example of a problem-oriented case formulation description?
A) "Lack of interpersonal communication skills"
B) "Due to early childhood conflicts"
C) "Due to use of immature defense mechanisms"
D) "Caused by stigma and discrimination"
Q3) The primary function of a biopsychosocial case formulation is to
A) Generate an understanding of the person as a whole
B) Identify comorbid medical illnesses
C) Assess the maturity of the patient's defense mechanisms
D) Determine patient's level of social support
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Chapter 6: Psychopharmacotherapy
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been treated for the past several years with fluphenazine (Prolixin). You notice that he is drooling and has a tremor and slight pill-rolling movement of the fingers. These are the extrapyramidal symptoms known as
A) Anticholinergic effects
B) Pseudoparkinsonism
C) Tardive dyskinesia
D) Dystonic reaction
Q2) Which of the following reactions is indicative of a dystonic reaction?
A) Oculogyric crisis and spasms of the back muscles
B) Tongue thrusting and lip-smacking movements
C) Pill-rolling hand movement and mask-like facial expression
D) Urinary retention and orthostatic hypotension
Q3) A patient has been taking haloperidol (Haldol) IM, an antipsychotic drug, for years. You notice that he is grinding his teeth and smacking his lips frequently. You think that he may have
A) Tardive dyskinesia
B) Gustatory hallucinations
C) Spasms of the jaw
D) Parkinsonian symptoms
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Psychotherapies
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among factors believed to be involved in the development of psychopathology, which of the following factors is most amenable to psychotherapy?
A) Temperament
B) Genetic influenced brain development
C) Adverse circumstances of birth
D) Mastery of psychosocial tasks at different ages
Q2) Brief psychotherapy refers to a category of psychotherapies that brings about changes in patients through
A) Therapist-initiated, focused, emotionally corrective interventions
B) Helping patients to develop an understanding of childhood conflicts
C) Participation of family members in treatment sessions
D) Helping patients to develop insight through self-exploration
Q3) Which of the following criteria would preclude the use of brief dynamic therapy?
A) Adequate ego strengths
B) Psychological problems in multiple domains
C) Use of mature defense mechanisms
D) Adequate ability to process information
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9
Chapter 8: Psychosocial Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Remedial psychosocial interventions include
A) Psychological first aid and reminiscence therapy
B) Social rhythms therapy and sleep therapy
C) Case management and intensive case management
D) Cognitive restructuring and vocational rehabilitation
Q2) As administrator of a mental health care agency, you know that augmenting pharmacotherapy with psychosocial interventions will produce better outcomes than pharmacotherapy alone. To target loneliness and social isolation, which of the following would be the most likely choice?
A) Psychological first aid
B) Psychoeducation
C) Compeer
D) Social rhythms therapy
Q3) When considering how to increase a patient's social network, which of the following interventions provides training for volunteers in working with people with mental illnesses?
A) Self-help groups
B) Compeer
C) Mutual-help groups
D) Drop-in centers
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Chapter 9: Response to Stressors: Bridging Normal
Responses and Psychiatric Disorders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important evidence-based finding about adjustment disorder among adolescents and young adults is that
A) Pharmacotherapy is the frontline for treatment.
B) The course of adjustment disorder is brief, with good outcomes.
C) There is a short time between thoughts of suicide and carrying out suicide.
D) Academic functioning is well preserved.
Q2) Adjustment disorder is often associated with
A) Symptoms of dissociation
B) Time lost from work
C) Flashbacks and nightmares
D) Delusions of persecution
Q3) The fear/anxiety circuit of the brain includes which of the following brain structures?
A) Reticular activating system
B) Amygdala and hippocampus
C) Parietal lobe and cerebellum
D) Corpus callosum
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11
Chapter 10: Phobias, Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Social
Anxiety Disorder and Panic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Types of specific phobias include all of the following except
A) Blood, injury, or injection
B) Public speaking
C) Situational phobias-elevators, bridges
D) Environmental phobias-storms, water
Q2) In considering maintenance treatment for a patient with GAD who is anxious, agitated, and irritable and has sleep problems, which medication(s) might you select?
A) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
B) A dopamine agonist
C) Paroxetine (Paxil) or sertraline (Zoloft)
D) Alprazolam (Xanax)
Q3) Medical disorders that should be considered as differential diagnoses of panic disorder include all of the following except
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Mitral valve prolapse
D) Hyperparathyroidism
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Acute Stress Disorder and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which mental status variation are you most likely to expect for a client diagnosed as having post-traumatic stress disorder?
A) Thought: delusions of grandeur
B) Perceptual: derealization and depersonalization
C) Memory: impaired recent memory
D) Mood: inappropriate, silly
Q2) Three days ago, a woman was raped by a man who drove her home from a party. She notified the police and the man was arrested. She has memory loss related to the rape and feels depressed and lethargic. Which of the following would be the most immediate beneficial intervention?
A) Providing an opportunity to confront her assailant
B) Providing medication
C) Referring her to a support group
D) Creating a safe environment
Q3) The key feature of acute stress disorder is the presence of
A) Sleep disturbances
B) Symptoms of dissociation
C) Increased arousal
D) Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
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Obsessive-Compulsive
Spectrum Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obsessions are often accompanied by compulsive behaviors. Which of the following is not true?
A) Obsession of contamination is linked with excessive cleaning.
B) Obsession of pathological doubt is linked with hoarding.
C) Obsession of symmetry is linked with arranging things until they are perfect.
D) Somatic obsession is linked with checking the body for signs of illness.
Q2) In obsessive-compulsive disorder, patients are likely to experience
A) Obsessions as ego-syntonic
B) Extreme worrying about everyday concerns such as being late
C) Specific worries about the sight of blood
D) Obsessions of symmetry and need to have things just right
Q3) It can be said of the obsession of hoarding that it is associated with
A) A fear of making a wrong decision in discarding things that might be needed in the future
B) Abnormalities of the fear/anxiety circuitry
C) A feeling that hoarding is ego-syntonic
D) Less severe symptoms and impairment of functioning than other obsessions
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Depressive Disorders
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Post's theory of depression states that early experience may make the brain more sensitive to future stressors and to recurrence of depressive episodes. This theory is often referred to as
A) Kindling theory
B) Dysregulation theory
C) Anger turned inward theory
D) Learned helplessness theory
Q2) A young adult who works as a court reporter describes herself as being depressed most of the time and says she has been that way since her teens. She denies any weight loss or sleep disturbances. She describes problems with concentration, difficulty making decisions, and lack of energy that are causing her problems at work. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Dysthymia
B) Major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern
C) Major depressive disorder with atypical features
D) Major depressive disorder with melancholic features
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15
Chapter 14: Bipolar Disorder
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) On clinical evaluation, patients with bipolar disorder have been found to have impairment of
A) Balance
B) Executive functioning
C) Production of speech
D) Spatial functioning
Q2) Disruptions of social rhythms
A) Are related to changes of zeitgerbers (time givers)
B) Occur after the onset of bipolar disorder
C) Are related to anticipation
D) Occur rarely in the general population
Q3) In the prodromal phase of bipolar disorder, patients' behaviors often include
A) Putting their affairs in order
B) Sleeping more than usual
C) Increased talkativeness
D) A decrease of social activities
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Chapter 15: Schizophrenia and Schizoaffective Disorder
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has just been started on Haldol 5 mg po bid is complaining of a sudden painful stiff neck and jaw muscles. This is most likely
A) Akinesia
B) Akathisia
C) Dystonia
D) Somatization
Q2) Which of the following features is associated with positive outcome among patients with schizophrenia?
A) Younger age of onset
B) Male gender
C) Living in an industrialized country
D) Having positive symptoms
Q3) It has been suggested that reduced volume of the temporal lobe is related to
A) Persistence of negative symptoms
B) Severity of auditory hallucinations
C) Deficits in working memory
D) Impairment of motor coordination
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17
Chapter 16: Delirium and Dementia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding alcohol withdrawal delirium or delirium tremens, which of the following is true?
A) Symptoms may include hypersomnia and lack of energy.
B) Symptoms may include agitation and abnormal perceptions.
C) Symptom onset often begins with elevated mood.
D) Symptoms often begin within 12 hours of cessation of drinking.
Q2) In mild cognitive impairment there is likely to be
A) Social and vocational disability
B) Impairment of activities of daily living
C) Deficits of memory
D) Wandering and disorientation
Q3) Which of the following is classified as a subcortical dementia?
A) Dementia of Alzheimer's type
B) Dementia due to Pick's disease
C) Dementia due to Parkinson's disease
D) Dementia due to vascular dementia
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18
Chapter 17: Dual Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal
A) Are most severe 8 to 10 hours after last drink
B) Are most severe 24 to 28 hours after last drink
C) Include hallucinations among 50% of individuals
D) Are evidenced as delirium tremens 2 weeks after the last drink
Q2) The clinical effects and withdrawal symptoms of amphetamines are similar to those of
A) Heroine
B) Alcohol
C) Cocaine
D) Marijuana
Q3) It is known that high levels of alcohol consumption
A) Exacerbate psychiatric symptoms
B) Improve circulation
C) Reduce the risk for developing dementia
D) Reduce the risk of suicide among older adults
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Chapter 18: Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Temperament, which is one component of personality,
A) Has a 50% heritability
B) Achieves stability by age 16 years
C) Includes the trait of spirituality
D) Is associated with insight learning
Q2) In which of the following personality disorders would there likely be a lower rate of soft neurological signs?
A) Schizotypal
B) Dependent
C) Antisocial
D) Borderline
Q3) With regard to the biological markers for schizotypal personality disorder, all of the following have been reported except
A) Increased ventricles
B) Increased cerebrospinal fluid
C) Impaired smooth pursuit eye movements
D) Impaired of executive functioning
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Chapter 19: Prevention of Psychiatric Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A factor that has frequently been associated with children's increased risk of experiencing maltreatment is
A) Having two or more children in the family
B) Having a parent with mental illness and substance abuse
C) Having grandparents living with the family
D) Having a limited family budget for leisure activities
Q2) Evidence suggests that prevention of psychiatric disorders should focus on which of the following stages of life?
A) Middle age (ages 35 to 45 years)
B) Young adulthood (ages 20 to 30 years)
C) Adolescence
D) Early childhood
Q3) Among older adults, evidence suggests that the risk for developing dementia can be reduced by which of the following interventions?
A) Cognitive remediation
B) Identifying and treating hearing loss
C) Cognitive restructuring
D) Identifying and treating symptoms of depression
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