Psychiatric Assessment and Diagnosis Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive exploration of the principles and practices involved in the psychiatric assessment and diagnosis of mental health disorders. Students will learn to conduct thorough clinical interviews, utilize standardized assessment tools, and apply evidence-based diagnostic criteria such as those outlined in the DSM-5. Emphasis is placed on the integration of biological, psychological, and social factors in understanding mental illness, as well as considerations of cultural competence and ethical issues. Through case studies and practical exercises, students develop foundational skills for accurate identification and documentation of psychiatric conditions, which are crucial for effective treatment planning and interdisciplinary collaboration.
Recommended Textbook
Psychiatric Advanced Practice Nursing 1st Edition by Perese
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19 Chapters
203 Verified Questions
203 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Theoretical Framework of Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which attachment pattern is more likely to be found among children who have been abused?
A) Secure
B) Inhibited
C) Disorganized
D) Avoidant
Answer: C
Q2) Nobel Prize winner Eric Kandel demonstrated that the brain
A) Is plastic before birth but becomes hard-wired at birth
B) Has plasticity and can change during the first 3 years of life
C) Has plasticity that allows it to make new connections in response to learning
D) Is unable to make new connections after age 26
Answer: C
Q3) Freud's drive theory proposes that individuals are motivated by
A) Basic drives for survival and reproduction.
B) Need to reduce anxiety.
C) Need to resolve interpersonal conflicts.
D) Basic drives for altruism.
Answer: A
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Chapter
Brain Functioning, Brain Development and Prenatal and
Perinatal Factors Disrupting Brain Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure of the brain is involved in learning, processing information into memories, and assigning the time and the place to memories?
A) Hippocampus
B) Olfactory bulb
C) Limbic system
D) Occipital lobe
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following structures provides for communication between the two hemispheres of the brain?
A) Lateral ventricle
B) Basal ganglia
C) Corpus callosum
D) Hypothalamus
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Postnatal Influences on Development of
Psychopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Impairment of ability to self-regulate emotions is thought to be related to
A) A slow-to-warm-up temperament
B) An insecure pattern of attachment
C) Poverty and poor housing
D) An authoritarian style of parenting
Answer: B
Q2) In considering fetal exposure to prenatal risk factors, it is known that
A) Damage due to maternal stress is greatest during the third trimester.
B) Nutritional deficits can damage the brain as well as the spinal cord.
C) Radiation exposure has no effect on brain development during the first trimester.
D) There are safe periods of time for maternal consumption of alcohol.
Answer: B
Q3) It is known that childhood exposure to maltreatment
A) Is associated with increased rates of physical and psychiatric disorders
B) Occurs in 10% of U.S. children
C) Is most often exposure to sexual abuse
D) Usually involves a perpetrator who is unknown to the child
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Communicating, Interviewing and Assessing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Open-ended questions
A) Are useful in obtaining direct responses
B) Define the focus of interest
C) Are useful in the beginning of an interview
D) Define the boundaries of the therapeutic alliance
Q2) During an initial assessment, the relevant features of communication are its ability to
A) Promote a therapeutic alliance and increase understanding.
B) Prompt a disclosure of past successes and failures.
C) Bring about changes in behavior.
D) Educate the patient about what is important to disclose.
Q3) The purposes of the psychiatric interview include all except
A) Gaining an understanding of the patient's illness
B) Obtaining information efficiently
C) Providing education about psychiatric disorders
D) Establishing a therapeutic alliance
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6
Chapter 5: Case Formulation and Diagnosis, Differential
Diagnoses and Developing a Biopsychosocial Plan of Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mechanisms that maintain a problem are biopsychosocial causes or sources of the problem. Psychological causes might include
A) Poverty and social isolation
B) Impaired neural circuitry
C) Impaired ability to regulation emotions
D) Abnormalities of neurotransmission
Q2) The primary purpose of a biopsychosocial case formulation is to
A) Predict response to different treatment modalities
B) Organize key facts around a cause, the source of the problem
C) Provide information required for reimbursement
D) Determine the level of care required
Q3) In the problem-oriented method of case formulation, the patient's problems are defined as a solvable target of treatment. Which of the following is an example of a problem-oriented case formulation description?
A) "Lack of interpersonal communication skills"
B) "Due to early childhood conflicts"
C) "Due to use of immature defense mechanisms"
D) "Caused by stigma and discrimination"
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Chapter 6: Psychopharmacotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is receiving the typical antipsychotic medication haloperidol is stepping back and forth from foot to foot and says that he feels very restless. This could be a manifestation of
A) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
B) Akathisia
C) Increasing psychosis
D) An anticholinergic response
Q2) Antidepressants are used with caution in which of the following disorders?
A) Major depression with atypical features
B) Adjustment disorder with depression
C) Bipolar disorders
D) Dysthymia
Q3) TCAs are effective in treatment of depression because they block
A) Reuptake of serotonin and dopamine
B) Reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine
C) Action of monoamine oxidase enzyme
D) Histamine receptors
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Chapter 7: Psychotherapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following criteria would preclude the use of brief dynamic therapy?
A) Adequate ego strengths
B) Psychological problems in multiple domains
C) Use of mature defense mechanisms
D) Adequate ability to process information
Q2) Brief psychotherapy refers to a category of psychotherapies that brings about changes in patients through
A) Therapist-initiated, focused, emotionally corrective interventions
B) Helping patients to develop an understanding of childhood conflicts
C) Participation of family members in treatment sessions
D) Helping patients to develop insight through self-exploration
Q3) The primary purpose of psychotherapy is to facilitate changes by the patient in order to
A) Reduce symptoms of distress
B) Address identified problems
C) Reduce burden on the family
D) Improve vocational functioning
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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Support groups differ from self-help groups by
A) Use of a drop-in approach
B) Professional leadership
C) Theory of empowerment
D) Emphasis on mastery
Q2) As administrator of a mental health care agency, you know that augmenting pharmacotherapy with psychosocial interventions will produce better outcomes than pharmacotherapy alone. To target loneliness and social isolation, which of the following would be the most likely choice?
A) Psychological first aid
B) Psychoeducation
C) Compeer
D) Social rhythms therapy
Q3) Research has found that sleep therapy is effective in reducing symptoms of which of the following disorders?
A) Social anxiety disorder (nongeneralized)
B) Agoraphobia
C) Depression
D) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Response to Stressors: Bridging Normal
Responses and Psychiatric Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who use direct methods of coping strategies when confronted with a stressful event would likely engage in
A) Seeking to understand the value to be extracted from negative experiences
B) Following the steps of problem-solving
C) Increasing their sense of control over the situation
D) Asking other people to manage the situation
Q2) The fear/anxiety circuit of the brain includes which of the following brain structures?
A) Reticular activating system
B) Amygdala and hippocampus
C) Parietal lobe and cerebellum
D) Corpus callosum
Q3) The key feature of adjustment disorder is
A) An anxiety response to a social event such as speaking in public
B) The response to a known stressor that occurs within 3 months of the stressor
C) A response to an event that is catastrophic, such as witnessing a murder
D) Pervasive anxiety related to a fear of being trapped in an enclosed place
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Chapter 10: Phobias, Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Social
Anxiety Disorder and Panic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) In GAD, which of the following is true?
A) GAD is rare in older adults.
B) Worrying may be associated with the belief that it keeps the family safe.
C) Worrying is usually limited to one type of worry, such as locking doors.
D) Worrying is usually accompanied by ritualistic behaviors.
Q2) Regarding generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which of the following is true?
A) GAD is rare in older adults.
B) Comorbidity for major depression and other anxiety disorders is not common.
C) GAD is considered to be a chronic condition.
D) GAD is characterized by seasonal cycles.
Q3) It can be said that in the fear system, the amygdala
A) Serves as a response center for danger and fear
B) Imprints the time and place of an event
C) Evaluates the event in relation to memories of previous experiences
D) Releases hormones that start a cascade of neurohormones and neurotransmitters that prepare the body to respond to a threat
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Acute Stress Disorder and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The key feature of acute stress disorder is the presence of
A) Sleep disturbances
B) Symptoms of dissociation
C) Increased arousal
D) Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
Q2) Three days ago, a woman was raped by a man who drove her home from a party. She notified the police and the man was arrested. She has memory loss related to the rape and feels depressed and lethargic. Which of the following would be the most immediate beneficial intervention?
A) Providing an opportunity to confront her assailant
B) Providing medication
C) Referring her to a support group
D) Creating a safe environment
Q3) The brain structure that is involved with encoding the time and place of a trauma is the
A) Amygdala
B) Thalamus
C) Hippocampus
D) Hypothalamus
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Obsessive-Compulsive
Spectrum Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In selecting treatment for a patient with trichotillomania, which of the following evidence-based treatment options would be a logical first choice?
A) Reminiscence therapy
B) Monotherapy with clomipramine (Anafranil)
C) Habit reversal therapy
D) Exposure and ritual prevention therapy
Q2) In obsessive-compulsive disorder, patients are likely to experience
A) Obsessions as ego-syntonic
B) Extreme worrying about everyday concerns such as being late
C) Specific worries about the sight of blood
D) Obsessions of symmetry and need to have things just right
Q3) Obsessions are often accompanied by compulsive behaviors. Which of the following is not true?
A) Obsession of contamination is linked with excessive cleaning.
B) Obsession of pathological doubt is linked with hoarding.
C) Obsession of symmetry is linked with arranging things until they are perfect.
D) Somatic obsession is linked with checking the body for signs of illness.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Depressive Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Core symptoms of complicated grief include experiencing which of the following symptoms more than 6 months after the death?
A) Feeling that life has no meaning without the deceased
B) Prominent self-blaming thoughts for not having prevented the death
C) Dissociative states in which the deceased is believed to be present
D) All of the above
Q2) A patient who has been taking venlafaxine (Effexor) for major depressive disorder with melancholic features says that suddenly he can't sleep and spends hours writing to his congressman with his ideas of how to reduce the national debt. The psychiatric advanced practice nurse considers all of the following but selects which one as the most likely explanation for the change in his clinical presentation:
A) Nonadherence with venlafaxine
B) Emergence of symptoms of hypomania
C) Emergence of symptoms of a personality disorder
D) Increasing severity of symptoms of depression
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Chapter 14: Bipolar Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The heritability of bipolar disorder is
A) Very low, 25% to 30%
B) Low, 45% to 60%
C) Moderate, 65% to 75%
D) High, 80% to 90%
Q2) On clinical evaluation, patients with bipolar disorder have been found to have impairment of
A) Balance
B) Executive functioning
C) Production of speech
D) Spatial functioning
Q3) Manic episodes of bipolar disorder are thought be related to A) Changes in diet
B) Disruption of sleep-wake cycles
C) Female gender
D) Advanced age, over 60 years
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Chapter 15: Schizophrenia and Schizoaffective Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) It has been suggested that reduced volume of the temporal lobe is related to
A) Persistence of negative symptoms
B) Severity of auditory hallucinations
C) Deficits in working memory
D) Impairment of motor coordination
Q2) When used for treatment of a patient with schizophrenia, typical antipsychotics could be expected to be most effective for which of the following symptoms?
A) Social isolation
B) Ineffective individual coping
C) Hallucinations
D) Lack of ability to make decisions
Q3) Abnormalities of motor function characterized by a marked lack of motion or remaining in one posture are most characteristic of which subtype of schizophrenia?
A) Paranoid
B) Catatonic
C) Disorganized
D) Undifferentiated
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Chapter 16: Delirium and Dementia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medications that are frequently used for patients with dementia are
A) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
B) Selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
C) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
D) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
Q2) In mild cognitive impairment there is likely to be
A) Social and vocational disability
B) Impairment of activities of daily living
C) Deficits of memory
D) Wandering and disorientation
Q3) In the early stages of dementia, frontal-temporal dementia is more likely than Alzheimer's-type dementia to be characterized by
A) Deficits in executive functioning
B) Problems with memory
C) Personality changes
D) Losing things
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18
Chapter 17: Dual Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The areas of the brain considered to be most involved in the development of substance abuse are the
A) Brainstem and reticular activating system
B) Thalamus and hypothalamus
C) Ventral tegmental area and nucleus accumbens
D) Cerebellum and olfactory bulb
Q2) The action produced by cocaine that can cause symptoms of paranoia and hallucinations similar to symptoms of schizophrenia is related to
A) Increase of dopamine
B) Decrease of dopamine
C) Increase of norepinephrine
D) Decrease of glutamate
Q3) Current treatment approaches for dual diagnosis or co-occurring disorders focuses on
A) Identifying primary disorders and treating them first
B) Treating psychiatric disorders and substance-related disorders separately
C) Treating all co-occurring disorders as primary disorders
D) Treating psychiatric disorders first
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19
Chapter 18: Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The personality disorder that is the most socially sensitive to the influence of culture is
A) Paranoid
B) Narcissistic
C) Schizotypal
D) Schizoid
Q2) Narcissistic personality disorder is more likely to occur in families that
A) Teach children to put family and community ahead of personal desires.
B) Encourage children to develop problem-solving skills.
C) Teach children that they are special and entitled to the best in life.
D) Encourage resilience in the face of adversity.
Q3) Avoidant personality disorder is distinguished from schizoid personality disorder by which of the following characteristics?
A) Desire to socialize with others but fear of rejection
B) Lack of desire to socialize with others
C) Disregard for social norms and the rights of others
D) Focus on rules, orderliness, and perfectionism
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Chapter 19: Prevention of Psychiatric Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some childhood disorders persist in the same form into adulthood, but some may increase the risk for other psychiatric disorders. Which of the following childhood disorders increases risk for other psychiatric disorders?
A) Anxiety disorder
B) Depression
C) Oppositional-defiant disorder
D) Specific phobias
Q2) Among older adults, evidence suggests that the risk for developing dementia can be reduced by which of the following interventions?
A) Cognitive remediation
B) Identifying and treating hearing loss
C) Cognitive restructuring
D) Identifying and treating symptoms of depression
Q3) Among adults, promoting daily reward experiences that create positive emotions has been found to be associated with
A) Reexperiencing of traumatic memories
B) Reduction of symptoms of depression
C) Improvement of cognition
D) Reduction of sleep disturbances
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Page 21