Promotional Strategy
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Promotional Strategy explores the principles and practices involved in designing and implementing effective promotional campaigns within the broader context of marketing. The course examines various tools of the promotional mix including advertising, sales promotion, public relations, direct marketing, and digital marketing and how these elements work together to achieve organizational objectives. Students will analyze target audiences, develop integrated communication plans, and assess promotional effectiveness through case studies and practical assignments. Emphasis is placed on strategic planning, creative message development, media selection, and the evaluation of promotional outcomes in both traditional and digital environments.
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Integrated Marketing Communications
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Q1) _____ advertising is targeted at individuals who influence the purchase of goods and services used to make other products.
A)Professional
B)Primary demand
C)Retail
D)Business-to-business
E)Direct-response
Answer: D
Q2) Analysis of the communication process may involve preliminary discussions on media-mix options and their cost implications.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Most consumers in generation Y are very receptive to traditional advertising.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Role of IMC in the Marketing Process
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Q1) Which of the following best defines branding?
A)It involves creating new product lines within a company in order to expand and develop the company's product portfolio.
B)It includes making use of more than one marketing channel to reach a huge number of customers and to cover a large geographical area.
C)It primarily involves marketing through a mobile device which assists the customers with personalized information.
D)It features building and maintaining a favorable identity and image of the company and/or its products or services in the mind of the consumer.
E)It involves taking the help of commercial market research agents to conduct a thorough market research before entering a market with unique products.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Organizing for Advertising and Promotion: The
Role of AD Agencies and Other Marketing Communication Organizations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A company often uses a decentralized organizational system when:
A)it has multiple divisions and many different products.
B)it does not facilitate a manufacturing or industrial operation.
C)it wants one advertising manager to handle the promotional activities of all the products.
D)it has a top management which is actively involved in day-today decision making.
E)it lacks the ability to handle multiple brands.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of media departments?
A)Their brief is primarily creative.
B)They lack the ability or the authority to negotiate prices.
C)They review information on demographics and radio listenership.
D)They are in charge of creating the clients' advertising message.
E)They are generally headed by an account planner.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Perspectives on Consumer Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a possible consequence of post purchase evaluation?
A)Brand extension
B)Purchase intention
C)Product differentiation
D)Cognitive resonance
E)Dissatisfaction
Q2) While watching a basketball game on television, Ryan leaves the room during commercial breaks and returns only when the live broadcast returns. If he deliberately avoids viewing commercials, Ryan is likely exhibiting _____.
A)selective attention
B)selective exposure
C)selective comprehension
D)selective retention
E)selective recall
Q3) Some products or services sought by consumers are not essential but are nonetheless desired.
A)True
B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Communication Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) Justin failed to understand the message in an ad for Smithline Catering in a daily newspaper as the newspaper print was unclear. With reference to the communication process, the unclear print would constitute:
A)an encoding hazard.
B)a sourcing block.
C)negative feedback.
D)a perceptive block.
E)noisE.In the above scenario, Justin encounters noise.Throughout the communication process, a message is subject to extraneous factors that can distort or interfere with its reception.This unplanned distortion or interference is known as noise.
Q2) _____ include consumers' reactions to ad factors such as the creativity of an ad, the quality of the visual effects, colors, and voice tones.
A)Source bolsters
B)Source derogations
C)Ad execution-related thoughts
D)Counterarguments
E)Ad dissonance thoughts
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Chapter 6: Source, Message, and Channel Factors
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Q1) An ad headline for Fantasia ice cream in a local newspaper reads, "How can you relive your childhood this summer?" The only other information in the ad is a list of locations of Fantasia ice cream parlors in the city. This ad is:
A)an example of a rational appeal.
B)designed to let the target audience draw their own conclusions.
C)an example of an appeal based on refutation.
D)designed to express a two-sided message.
E)effective irrespective of the context of the advertising medium.
Q2) For which of the following product ads would a marketer find a physically attractive model to be most effective?
A)Cattle feed
B)Bricks
C)Fertilizer
D)Cookies
E)Lipstick
Q3) Clutter levels in television are lowest during daytime programs.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Establishing Objectives and Budgeting for the Promotional Program
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Q1) Which of the following allocation methods makes use of a buildup approach to setting budgets?
A)Percentage-of-sales
B)Arbitrary allocation
C)Competitive parity
D)Objective and task
E)Affordable
Q2) Under the Defining Advertising Goals for Measured Advertising Results (DAGMAR) approach, an advertising goal involves a communications task that is specific and measurable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first task in the objective and task method of budgeting is to:
A)conduct a system analysis.
B)create an organizational budget.
C)isolate advertising objectives.
D)determine what tasks need to be accomplished.
E)reevaluate objectives.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Creative Strategy: Planning and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ads for products such as fashionable clothing, jewelry, and liquor often provide specific product information rather than relying on visual images to deliver their message.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Observations made on trends, developments, and happenings in the marketplace are part of general preplanning input.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In an advertising agency, who among the following is usually responsible for preparing the creative brief?
A)The account manager
B)The media buying director
C)The art director
D)The illustrator
E)The media planner
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Chapter 9: Creative Strategy: Implementation and Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of image advertisements?
A)They are transformational in nature.
B)They are designed to transfer the image of a company to its brand.
C)They are typically utilized in radio advertisements.
D)They are not suitable for print media.
E)They typically utilize emotional integration.
Q2) A copywriter can determine how much space she has to work with and how much copy to write after seeing a print advertisement's:
A)trademarks.
B)artwork.
C)body copy.
D)layout.
E)illustration.
Q3) _____ are catchy songs about a product or service that usually carry the advertising theme and a simple message.
A)Headlines
B)Taglines
C)Voice-overs
D)Jingles
E)Needledrops
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Chapter 10: Media Planning and Strategy
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Q1) Media planners measured listenership of Volatile Heat FM during the months of February, July, and October to set the advertising rates. These audience measures conducted at specific time periods are known as:
A)sweeps periods.
B)GRP flighting periods.
C)frequency estimates.
D)availabilities.
E)upgraded media scheduling.
Q2) _____ refers to the relationship between the price paid for advertising time and the size of the audience delivered and is also used to compare media vehicles.
A)Net contribution margin
B)Net cost
C)Absolute cost
D)Relative cost
E)Cost per media (CPM)
Q3) One of the advantages of direct mail advertising is that it is clutter-free.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Evaluation of Media: Television and Radio
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Sample Questions
Q1) During ad breaks in TV programs, some viewers change channels to avoid commercials. This practice is known as:
A)multiplexing.
B)zapping.
C)narrowcasting.
D)time shifting.
E)zipping.
Q2) The price for commercial time charged by a television network is largely a function of a program's:
A)average frequency.
B)commercial clutter competence.
C)audience size and composition.
D)zipping and zapping effect.
E)comprehensive layout.
Q3) In network advertising, the advertiser has to deal with only one party or media representative to air a commercial nationwide.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Evaluation of Media: Magazines and Newspapers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asea is a publication that provides information on world trends and technology to offshore oil and gas operations. This is an example of a(n) _____ publication.
A)general business
B)trade
C)professional
D)industrial
E)consumer-oriented
Q2) James regularly borrows a magazine from Lily, who subscribes to it. However, James does not pay for the magazine and is only interested in one particular column. In this scenario, Lily is considered to be a(n):
A)ancillary reader.
B)pass-along subscriber.
C)primary reader.
D)secondary subscriber.
E)total reader.
Q3) Newspapers and magazines are referred to as low-involvement media.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Support Media
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Q1) Of all out-of-home media, _____ advertising enjoys the highest outdoor billings.
A)transit
B)blimp
C)airport
D)billboard
E)in-store
Q2) Skywriting is a form of:
A)billboard advertising.
B)transit advertising.
C)digital advertising.
D)blimp advertising.
E)aerial advertising.
Q3) Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with movie theater advertising?
A)Lack of emotional attachment
B)Low audience exposure
C)Possible irritation to audience
D)Extensive clutter
E)Limited segmentation
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15
Chapter 14: Direct Marketing
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Q1) Direct marketing is typically restricted to small companies seeking business.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an objective of direct marketing?
A)To make use of celebrity endorsements
B)To maintain customer satisfaction
C)To engage in social responsibility initiatives
D)To make innovative products
E)To increase market diversification
Q3) The two-step approach to direct marketing:
A)urges customers to make an immediate purchase.
B)uses the first effort to screen potential buyers.
C)is commonly found in direct sales.
D)is typically followed by a sweepstakes contest.
E)is similar to missionary selling.
Q4) Direct marketing is synonymous to direct-response media.
A)True B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Internet: Digital and Social Media
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of QR codes?
A)They are primarily WEB 1.0 applications.
B)They are considered a part of augmented reality.
C)They are used to reflect the writings of a business or a corporation.
D)They are web-based publications consisting primarily of periodic articles.
E)They are being threatened by near field communication.
Q2) Banner ads may be used for creating awareness or recognition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is true of e-commerce?
A)It is typically considered an ancillary sales medium.
B)It cannot be used as a business-to-business medium.
C)It is a direct sales strategy.
D)It is synonymous with "brick-and-mortar" stores.
E)It is a primary component of C2C marketing.
Q4) Web 1.0 ended with the "bursting of the dot-com bubble."
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Sales Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Promotional activities designed to accelerate the purchase process and generate an immediate increase in sales without communicating information about a brand's unique features or benefits are known as:
A)consumer franchise-building promotion.
B)nonfranchise-building promotion.
C)vertical integration marketing.
D)image promotions.
E)evangelism marketing.
Q2) Cross-cuff coupons are redeemable on the purchase of a different product, usually one made by the same company but occasionally through a tie-in with another manufacturer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a limitation of using on-package sampling?
A)It will not reach nonusers of the carrier brand.
B)It cannot be used by multiproduct firms.
C)It is highly expensive.
D)It can be used only for food products.
E)It requires extensive product guarantees.
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Chapter 17: Public Relations, Publicity, and Corporate Advertising
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Sample Questions
Q1) An oil company in the United States develops an advertisement that promotes offshore oil-drilling in the country. The ad states the availability of oil resources and stresses the importance of reducing dependence on foreign oil sources. The ad's goal is to get members of the public to support offshore drilling. This is an example of:
A)image advertising.
B)trade promotion.
C)direct-response advertising.
D)event sponsorship.
E)advocacy advertising.
Q2) It is often difficult to measure the effectiveness of corporate advertising activities.
Which of the following measures would be most useful in this effort?
A)Tying PR activities directly to sales
B)Timing the amount a sponsored logo appears on television
C)Conducting studies relating to corporate advertising and stock prices
D)Computer simulations
E)Measuring effectiveness of the sales promotional tools instead
Q3) Ads themselves can be the focus of publicity.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Measuring the Effectiveness of the Promotional Program
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Q1) The major advantage of a day-after recall test is that it:
A)is cost-efficient.
B)offers unlimited samples.
C)provides a realistic response profile.
D)is highly secure.
E)provides a uniform recall score for the same brand.
Q2) One way to determine the validity of the portfolio method is to:
A)compare the psychological measures used in print and broadcast methods.
B)ask consumer juries to rate a selection of layouts presented in pasteups on separate sheets.
C)correlate its results with readership scores once an ad is placed in a field.
D)use the order of merit or paired comparison methods.
E)use the Flesch formula to assess readability of an copy.
Q3) The results of readability tests indicate that a copy is best comprehended when:
A)sentences are long and descriptive.
B)impersonal references are drawn.
C)the words used have no connotations outside their dictionary definitions.
D)the receiver is unknown.
E)words are concrete and familiar.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: International Advertising and Promotion
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Q1) Brands or messages that can be adapted for a visual appeal are best suited for worldwide ad campaigns.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Public relations activities are:
A)not effective for dealing with local or regional governments.
B)not applicable on a global scale.
C)used to communicate with the general community.
D)usually expensive.
E)a popular form of advertising.
Q3) Which of the following is a component of a country's political/legal environment?
A)Cultural norms
B)Population density
C)National sovereignty considerations
D)Values, religious beliefs, and traditions
E)Language and dialects
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21
Chapter 20: Regulation of Advertising and Promotion
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Q1) According to the Federal Trade Commission (FTC), _____ occurs when qualifying information necessary to prevent a practice, claim, representation, or reasonable belief from being misleading is not disclosed.
A)misinterpretation
B)affirmative disclosure
C)coercion
D)misleading omission
E)fraud
Q2) The U.S. Postal Service has regulations that affect advertising.
A)True B)False
Q3) Federal law requires that advertisers possess substantiation for their advertising claims before the claims are published.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 21: Evaluating the Social, Ethical, and Economic Aspects
of Advertising and Promotion
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Q1) If a marketer for an established company believes that potential entrants to the marketplace must overcome established brand loyalty and spend relatively more on advertising, then he or she is likely to believe that advertising equals _____.
A)market power
B)ethics
C)information
D)empowerment
E)equality
Q2) As a result of advertising, the products or services of large advertisers are perceived as unique or better than competitors' products. This is referred to as _____.
A)diversification
B)scalability
C)economies of scale
D)innovation
E)differentiation
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Personal Selling Online
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Q1) Which of the following is a criterion for evaluating personal selling that considers aspects such as the use and dissemination of promotional brochures and providing feedback on the effectiveness of promotional programs?
A)Provision of promotional intelligence
B)Attainment of communications objectives
C)Provision of marketing intelligence
D)Program implementations
E)Follow-up activities
Q2) Personal selling is a more appropriate tool than advertising when the objective is to:
A)ask for a sale.
B)minimize the cost per lead.
C)provide information.
D)create awareness.
E)create brand appeal.
Q3) Personal selling is typically controlled by the advertising department.
A)True
B)False
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