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Project Management is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the fundamental principles, methodologies, and tools used to plan, execute, and oversee projects in a variety of fields. The course covers essential topics including project initiation, scheduling, budgeting, resource allocation, risk management, and quality control, as well as leadership and team dynamics. Students will learn to use industry-standard project management software and techniques to ensure successful project delivery within scope, time, and cost constraints. Emphasis is placed on both theoretical frameworks and practical applications through case studies and real-world project simulations, preparing students to manage complex projects effectively from inception to completion.
Recommended Textbook
Information Technology Project Management 8th Edition by Kathy Schwalbe
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96 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ tools, a step up from low-end tools, are designed to handle larger projects, multiple users, and multiple projects.
Answer: Midrange
Q2) The question, "What is the project's schedule?" is an example of a(n) _____ constraint.
Answer: time
Q3) The question, "What unique product does the customer expect from the project?" is an example of a(n) _____ constraint.
Answer: scope
Q4) The introduction of new software makes basic tools, such as Gantt charts and network diagrams, inexpensive and easy to create.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) Stakeholder analyses, work requests, and project charters are tools used in integration management.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Project managers and their teams must keep in mind the effects of any project on the interests and needs of the entire system or organization instead of focusing on the immediate concerns of the project.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Project managers have the most authority in a pure _____ organizational structure.
A)functional
B)project
C)matrix
D)circular
Answer: B
Q3) Internal stakeholders include groups affected by the project such as government officials or concerned citizens.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The _____ frame of an organization relates to the company's culture.
Answer: symbolic

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83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ are short descriptions written by customers of what they need a Scrum system to do for them.
Answer: User stories
Q2) _____ includes measuring progress toward project objectives and taking corrective action to match progress with the plan.
A)Planning
B)Montioring and controlling
C)Executing
D)Initiating
Answer: B
Q3) Organizational process assets update is the output of the closing process of _____.
A)project integration management
B)project quality management
C)project procurement management
D)project time management
Answer: A
Q4) If done well, the _________ can produce several releases of useful software. Answer: agile approach agile method
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ involves working with stakeholders to create the document that formally authorizes a project.
A)Developing the project charter
B)Developing the preliminary project scope statement
C)Developing the project management plan
D)Performing integrated change control
Q2) A _____ is a document that recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management.
A)stakeholder register
B)risk register
C)directive
D)project charter
Q3) As projects progress, the organization must reevaluate the need, funding, and will for each project to determine if the project should be continued, redefined, or terminated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a project charter? Discuss the inputs that can aid the development of a project charter.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) _____ is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defines its total scope.
Q2) A(n) _____ is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defines the total scope of the project.
A)project charter
B)business case
C)project scope statement
D)work breakdown structure
Q3) A unit of work should appear at only one place in the WBS.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ involves defining and documenting the features and functions of the products produced during the project as well as the processes used for creating them.
A)Collecting requirements
B)Defining scope
C)Controlling scope
D)Validating scope
Q5) PMI uses the term "_____" to describe each level of work in the WBS.
Q6) Describe the process of scope verification.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an output of schedule control?
A)Lessons-learned reports
B)Activity attributes
C)Resource requirements
D)Milestones list
Q2) A drawback of the project management software is that it does not have the capacity to calculate the critical path(s) for a project.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a(n) _____ relationship, the "from" activity must start before the "to" activity can be finished.
Q4) _____ is the number of workdays or work hours required to complete a task.
Q5) List and briefly describe the main processes involved in project time management.
Q6) Start-to-finish relationships are the most frequently used dependencies between activities.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A(n) _____ Gantt chart compares planned and actual project schedule information.
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Q1) Accountants define _____ as a resource sacrificed or foregone to to achieve a specific objective.
Q2) A cost management plan can include organizational procedures links, control thresholds, and process descriptions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first step in project cost management is:
A)to allocate project cost estimates to individual material resources.
B)to plan how costs will be managed.
C)to control project costs and monitor cost performance.
D)to develop several estimates of costs for different types of resources.
Q4) It is important for project managers to understand that every cost estimate is unique.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is true of earned value?
A)It is the actual cost plus the planned cost.
B)It is based solely on the total cost estimate to be spent on an activity.
C)It is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed.
D)It is also known as the planned value.

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Q1) Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the _____ subprocess of project quality management.
A)initiating
B)closing
C)monitoring and controlling
D)executing
Q2) Process improvement plan, quality metrics, and quality checklists are the outputs of the _____ process of project quality management.
A)controlling quality
B)planning quality management
C)quality certification
D)performing quality assurance
Q3) The _____ represents the number of units handled correctly through the process steps.
Q4) Reliability is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under deviant conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and briefly describe the three project quality management processes.
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Q1) In the Tuckman model, _____ involves the break-up of the team after it successfully reaches its goals and completes the work.
Q2) _____ is a technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks.
A)Resource loading
B)Resource leveling
C)Resource allocation
D)Resource histogram
Q3) What are the five stages of team development according to the Tuckman model? Briefly describe each stage.
Q4) _____ power is getting people to do things based on a position of authority.
Q5) Resource leveling results in fewer problems for project personnel and accounting departments.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Project managers must try to avoid conflict at all costs as all conflict within groups is bad.
A)True
B)False
Q7) _____ is the concept that the whole is equal to more than the sum of its parts.
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Q1) Geographic location and cultural background have no impact on communications.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _____ analysis includes information such as the contact person for the information, when the information is due, and the preferred format for the information.
Q3) Good information technology project managers must have strong technical and communication skills.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The main goal of controlling communications is to ensure the optimal flow of information throughout the entire _____.
Q5) The main goal of controlling communications is to ensure the optimal flow of information throughout the entire _____.
Q6) E-mail communication is most suited for:
A)assessing commitment to a project.
B)building consensus among disputing parties.
C)mediating a conflict between multiple parties.
D)communicating routine information.
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Q1) List and briefly describe the six major processes involved in risk management.
Q2) The _____ is the person who will own or take responsibility for the risk.
Q3) Identifying risks is a subprocess of the _____ process of project risk management.
A)planning
B)executing
C)monitoring and controlling
D)closing
Q4) _____ are numbers that represent the overall risk of specific events, based on their probability of occurring and the consequences to the project if they do occur.
Q5) The basic concept of the _____ technique is to derive a consensus among a panel of experts who make predictions about future developments.
Q6) A(n) _____ represents decision problems by displaying essential elements, including decisions, uncertainties, causality, and objectives, and how they influence each other.
A)risk breakdown structure
B)influence diagram
C)process flow chart
D)work breakdown structure
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Q1) Procurement audits are often done during contract closure to identify lessons learned in the entire procurement process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) _____ is a document used to solicit proposals from prospective suppliers.
A)RFQ
B)WBS
C)RFP
D)SOW
Q3) All contracts should include specific clauses that take into account issues unique to the project.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the four types of cost-reimbursable contracts? Briefly describe each type.
Q5) Reviewing performance records reduces the risk of selecting a supplier with a poor track record.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____ contracts are a hybrid of fixed-price and cost-reimbursable contracts.
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Q1) A(n) _____ is a tool that is used to document, monitor, and track problems that need resolution.
Q2) Groups representing consumer, environmental, or other interests can be identified as project stakeholders.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Project management software tools normally do not promote the use of Facebook as a forum to promote project activities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Doctors who have been co-opted to actively participate in a project related to using information technology for chronic health problems would be examples of _____ stakeholders.
A)supportive
B)leading
C)resistant
D)neutral
Q5) What must be the contents of the stakeholder management plan?
Q6) _____ can be classified as internal to the organization or external.
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