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Project Management for IT introduces students to the concepts, methodologies, and tools used to effectively manage information technology projects. The course covers key topics such as project initiation, planning, execution, monitoring, and closure, with a strong focus on aligning IT project goals with organizational strategy. Emphasis is placed on risk management, resource allocation, scheduling, budgeting, team dynamics, stakeholder communication, and the use of project management software. Through case studies and real-world scenarios, students will develop practical skills in leading IT projects, addressing technical complexities, and ensuring project success within time and budget constraints.
Recommended Textbook
Information Technology Project Management 9th Edition by Kathy Schwalbe
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13 Chapters
1066 Verified Questions
1066 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _____ is an organizational group responsible for coordinating the project management function throughout an organization.
A) Project Management Office
B) Project Management Professional
C) Project Management Center
D) Portfolio Group
Answer: A
Q2) High-end tools in project management software have enterprise and _____ functions that summarize and combine individual project information to provide an enterprise view of all projects.
Answer: portfolio management
Q3) Effective program managers recognize that managing a project is much more complex than managing a program.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) _____ tools, a step up from low-end tools, are designed to handle larger projects, multiple users, and multiple projects.
Answer: Midrange
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Q1) In organizational culture, what does people focus refer to?
A) The degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment
B) The degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee and control employee behavior
C) The degree to which management's decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on employees within the organization
D) The degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking
Answer: C
Q2) The last phase of the traditional project life cycle is the implementation phase. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The same organization can have different subcultures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) A risk register is the output of _____.
Answer: risk management
Q2) The level of activity and length of each process group varies for every project.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) _____ are people involved in or affected by project activities and include the project sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, users, suppliers, and even opponents to the project.
Answer: Stakeholders
Q4) Decisions and actions taken in one knowledge area at a certain time rarely affect other knowledge areas.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) The executing process group generally requires the most resources.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which section of the project plan lists the planned dates for completing key deliverables?
A) schedule
B) closing
C) budget
D) objectives
Q2) NPV analysis is a method for making equal comparisons between cash flows for multi-year projects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n) _____ involves analyzing a company's strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats, and is used to aid in strategic planning.
Q4) _____ is the result of subtracting the project costs from the benefits and then dividing by the costs.
Q5) _____ factors include relevant government or industry standards, the organization's infrastructure, and marketplace conditions.
Q6) _____ involves identifying, evaluating, and managing changes throughout the project life cycle.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The format of the WBS dictionary is essentially the same for all projects.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List and briefly describe five approaches for creating work breakdown structures.
Q3) What is the main technique used in creating a WBS, which involves subdividing project deliverables into smaller pieces?
A) conglomeration
B) accumulation
C) decomposition
D) catalyzation
Q4) Which action involves defining and documenting the features and functions of the products produced during the project as well as the processes used for creating them?
A) Collecting requirements
B) Defining scope
C) Controlling scope
D) Validating scope
Q5) Subdividing the project deliverables into smaller pieces is known as _____.
Q6) What are some of the suggestions for improving the requirements process?
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Q1) Which is one of the main outputs of estimating activity resources process?
A) project documents update
B) milestone list
C) breakdown structure
D) activity duration estimate
Q2) Which law states that work expands to fill the time allowed?
A) Murphy's Law
B) Miller's Law
C) Parkinson's Law
D) Einstein's Law
Q3) In a network diagram, a(n) _____ is the starting and ending point of an activity.
Q4) In an AOA network diagram, what occurs when two or more activities follow a single node?
A) combinations
B) buffers
C) mergers
D) bursts
Q5) A(n) _____ is a schematic display of the logical relationships among project activities and?their sequencing.
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Q1) The primary output of the planning cost management process is a change request.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is an output of the process of controlling costs?
A) cost forecasts
B) project funding requirements
C) basis of estimates
D) scope baselines
Q3) _____ are revenues minus expenditures.
Q4) Estimates should become more accurate as time progresses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which process results in a cost baseline as a main output?
A) cost controlling
B) cost estimating
C) cost budgeting
D) cost planning
Q6) The main outputs of the _____ process are activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates.
Q7) A cost management plan is a subsidiary of the _____ plan.
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Q1) Change requests and verified deliverables are the outputs of the controlling quality process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement is one of Juran's ten steps to quality improvement?
A) An organization should minimize top management involvement in the achievement of individual employee goals.
B) An organization should entrust improvement to individual employees rather than appointing teams or facilitators.
C) An organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement.
D) An organization should avoid "keeping score" in order to achieve an overall atmosphere of quality improvement.
Q3) _____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions.
Q4) The _____ ultimately decides if quality is acceptable.
Q5) _____ is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities.
Q6) The term _____ means a product can be used as it was intended.
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Q1) The main goal of _______ is to help people work together more effectively to improve project performance.
Q2) A RAM is used only to assign detailed work activities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n) _____ is a specific type of organizational chart that shows which organizational units are responsible for which work items.
Q4) Herzberg called factors that cause job satisfaction _____.
Q5) Which technique is used for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks?
A) resource loading
B) resource leveling
C) resource allocation
D) resource histogram
Q6) According to Herzberg, hygiene factors such as larger salaries, more supervision, or a more attractive work environment would motivate workers to do more if present.
A)True
B)False
Q7) _____ fill in for project managers in their absence and assist them as needed.
Q8) In the DISC profile, the letter "S" represents _____.
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Q1) According to research by Albert Mehrabian, which is NOT a way that information is communicated through face-to-face interaction?
A) body language
B) written content
C) spoken content
D) tone of voice
Q2) While trying to assess commitment of project stakeholders, a(n) _____ meeting or a Web conference might be the most appropriate medium to use.
Q3) What are the three main processes in project communications management? Briefly describe each process.
Q4) Which process involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders?
A) strategic planning
B) systems management
C) identifying stakeholders
D) planning communications
Q5) A(n) _____ forces meeting organizers to plan the meeting and gives potential participants the chance to decide whether they need to attend.
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Q1) Top Ten Risk Item Tracking is a quantitative risk analysis tool.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Unknown risks can be managed proactively.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ helps professionals to see the effects of changing one or more variables on an outcome.
Q4) _____ is the product of a risk event probability and the risk event's monetary value.
Q5) A risk-seeking person prefers outcomes that are more uncertain and is often willing to pay a penalty to take risks.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Risk utility rises at a decreasing rate for a(n) _____ person.
Q7) Which risks are direct results of implementing risk responses?
A) architectural
B) primary
C) residual
D) secondary
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Q1) Three types of cost-reimbursable contracts include cost plus incentive fee, cost plus fixed fee, and _____.
Q2) In project procurement management, which is an output of the planning process?
A) change requests
B) selected sellers
C) resource calendars
D) make-or-buy decisions
Q3) Which of the following is an output of the contract closure process?
A) procurement statements of work
B) open item resolution
C) resource calendars
D) work performance information
Q4) What is the first step in project procurement management?
A) closing procurement management.
B) controlling procurements.
C) conducting procurements.
D) planning procurement management.
Q5) If an SOW is used as part of a contract to describe only the work required for that particular contract, it is called a(n) _____.
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Q6) _____ contracts are a hybrid of fixed-price and cost-reimbursable contracts.
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Q1) _____ can be perceived as enemies or allies by stakeholders depending on the outcomes of a project.
Q2) After identifying and analyzing stakeholders, the project manager and team should develop a(n) ______ to help them effectively engage stakeholders and make sure that good decisions are made throughout the life of the project.
A) stakeholder engagement plan
B) stakeholder register
C) issue log
D) power/interest grid
Q3) What is a stakeholder register and what information must be included in it?
Q4) The stakeholder management plan is always a formal document.
A)True
B)False
Q5) You can create a(n) _____ to group stakeholders based on their level of authority (power) and their level of concern (interest) for project outcomes.
Q6) The project sponsor, project team and the support staff would be the _____ project stakeholders.
Q7) _____ can be classified as internal to the organization or external.
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