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Project Management for Information Systems explores the principles, methodologies, and tools essential for successfully managing technology projects within organizations. The course examines the life cycle of an information systems project from initiation and planning through execution, monitoring, and closure. Topics include requirements gathering, scheduling, budgeting, resource allocation, risk management, quality assurance, and stakeholder communication, all within the context of software and IT solutions. Emphasis is placed on both traditional and agile project management approaches, preparing students to address the unique challenges posed by rapidly changing technologies and dynamic team environments.
Recommended Textbook
Information Technology Project Management 5th Edition by Jack T. Marchewka
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12 Chapters
881 Verified Questions
881 Flashcards
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32944
Sample Questions
Q1) The Data Processing Era that began in the 1960's focused on automating many of the organizational transactions such as general accounting, inventory management, and production scheduling with the aid of a centralized mainframe or mini computers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) ____ can arise from the estimation process or the stability of the project team.
A) Internal risks
B) External risks
C) Assumptions
D) Cost overruns
E) None of these
Answer: A
Q3) According to the CHAOS studies, more IT projects are becoming increasing successful, but there is still a need to improve the likelihood of success.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32945
Sample Questions
Q1) Contract closure ensures that all of the deliverables and agreed upon terms of the project have been completed and delivered.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A methodology provides a systematic way to plan, manage, and execute projects.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Under PRINCE2, any proposed changes to the project that the user wants should be approved and included.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) <b>Describe the three important roles under Scrum, one of the Agile methods.</b>
Answer: Scrum master, product owner, and the development team. The Scrum master is similar to the project manager, while the product owner represents the business side and ensures that the most important features are included in the product. The development team is responsible for delivering a quality product or system.
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A project that increased profits would impact the _____area of an organization.
A) strategic
B) customer
C) financial
D) operational
E) social Answer: C
Q2) <b>What is organizational feasibility?</b>
Answer: Organizational feasibility considers the impact on the organization. It focuses mainly on how people within the organization will adapt to this planned organizational change.
Q3) A project that provided cleaner air would impact the _____area of an organization.
A) strategic
B) customer
C) financial
D) operational
E) social Answer: E
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32947
Sample Questions
Q1) Problems determining authority and responsibility, poor response time, and poor integration are disadvantages of:
A) The Functional Organization
B) The Matrix Organization
C) The Project Organization
D) The Informal Organization
E) The Formal Organization
Q2) Describe the functional organizational structure.
Q3) The project environment includes not only the physical space where the team will work, but also the project culture as well.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A single organizational structure is best for all organizations regardless of strategy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The project charter serves as an agreement for all the project stakeholders.
A)True
B)False
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94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32948
Sample Questions
Q1) In much the same fashion as the claim "you can never be too rich", when developing a WBS, one can never have too much detail in planning activities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the benefits of having scope control procedures?
Q3) _____ can be a very effective estimating technique by forcing examination of project risks so that specific budget or schedule targets can be achieved.
A) Guesstimating
B) Delphi Technique
C) Time Boxing
D) Top-Down Estimating
E) Bottom-Up Estimating
Q4) The scope statement defines the project boundary.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the estimation technique called Guesstimating.What are the strengths and weaknesses of this approach?
Page 7
Q6) Briefly describe the scope change control process.
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84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ provide valuable information about the logical sequence and dependencies among the various activities and tasks:
A) Work Breakdown Schedule
B) Gantt Charts
C) PART
D) Project Network Diagrams
E) Critical Path Analysis
Q2) Why should assumptions used in estimating be documented?
Q3) Why do many people inflate their estimates?
Q4) An activity being analyzed under PERT was judged to most likely have a duration of 40 days.When considering the time it would take to complete the activity if every relevant factor went well, it was estimated to be able to be doable in 20 days and even under the worst case imaginable, the task would be take 50 days.The estimates PERT duration of that activity is:
A) 36.67 days
B) 38.33 days
C) 37.50 days
D) 28.33 days
E) 32.67 days

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77 Verified Questions
77 Flashcards
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Q1) What are the potential advantages that qualitative approaches have over quantitative ones when it comes to risk analysis and assessment?
Q2) Project risk management focuses solely on the downside of risk that results from unexpected problems or threats.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why can identifying IT project risks be difficult?
Q4) _____ involves developing a probability distribution for understanding and responding to identified risks.
A) Plan Risk Management
B) Identify Risks
C) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D) Plan Risk Responses
E) Monitor and Control Risks
Q5) What is risk monitoring and control?
Q6) What is a contingency plan?
Q7) What is the Delphi Technique? How can this technique be used to identify IT project risks?
Q8) How is a Monte Carlo simulation conducted?
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32951
Sample Questions
Q1) What is Planned Value (PV)?
Q2) Briefly describe the common categories of project reporting.
Q3) What is Budget at Completion (BAC)?
Q4) Which of the following is not likely a characteristic of a good project metric?:
A) Understandable
B) Quantifiable
C) Cost Effective
D) Subjective
E) High Impact
Q5) Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value - ___________.
A) Budget at Completion (BAC)
B) Budgeted cost of remaining work (BCRW)
C) Schedule Variance (SV)
D) Actual Cost (AC)
E) None of these
Q6) One attribute of a good project metric is that it should be subjective so that a stakeholder can understand the project manager's personal opinion or insight as to how the project is progressing.
A)True
B)False

Page 10
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the characteristics of both a mature and an immature software organization. What qualities are possessed by a mature organization that are lacking in an immature organization?
Q2) The IT Project quality plan is built on five foundational ideas.Briefly describe the importance of each of these pillars.
Q3) What is PQM?
Q4) ________ is determining which quality requirements and/or standards are important for the project and the product and then documenting how compliance will be demonstrated.
A) Plan Quality
B) Perform Quality Assurance
C) Perform Quality Control
D) Project Quality Management
E) Quality Management Plan
Q5) Verification and validation of project deliverables should be carried out _____
A) at the beginning of the project
B) in the middle of the project
C) at the end of the project
D) throughout the project
E) there is no preferable time to complete these activities
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gift from a vendor could cause the following ethical dilemma _____.
A) Confidence
B) Human resource
C) Corporate resource
D) Conflict of interest
E) None of these
Q2) What is emotional intelligence?
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a traditional management activity?
A) Planning
B) Inspiring a vision
C) Controlling
D) Staffing
E) Evaluating
Q4) The pacesetting leadership style can be summarized as:
A) "Come with me"
B) "What do you think?"
C) "Try this"
D) "Do as I do, now!"
E) "Do as I say"
Q5) Describe the emotional intelligence competency called social awareness.
Page 13
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92 Verified Questions
92 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In your own words, define change management.
Q2) Sometimes when a cooling off period is a wise choice, a person would use _____.
A) Avoidance
B) Accommodation
C) Forcing
D) Compromise
E) Collaboration
Q3) Describe the interactionist view of conflict.
Q4) _____ requires a willingness to engage in good-faith problem-solving that facilitates open and honest communication.
A) Avoidance
B) Accommodation
C) Forcing
D) Compromise
E) Collaboration
Q5) What is a target? Why are targets important to a change initiative?
Q6) What is the forcing approach to dealing with conflict? When is it most useful? When is it not appropriate?
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Q7) Describe the traditional view of conflict.
Q8) What is a change agent? What role does a change agent play?
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79 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immediately after the implementation, the project's MOV can be determined.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why might an organization terminate a project prematurely? What are the risks?
Q3) _____ places more pressure on the project team.
A) Direct Cutover
B) Parallel
C) Phased
D) All of these
E) None of these
Q4) What is the purpose of the final project report?
Q5) _____ places more pressure on the user of the system.
A) Direct Cutover
B) Parallel
C) Phased
D) All of these
E) None of these
Q6) What is the purpose of evaluating the project's MOV?
Q7) What are the advantages and disadvantages of the direct cutover approach?
Q8) Discuss how a project should be closed.
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