Project Management Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Project Management is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the fundamental principles, tools, and techniques necessary to successfully initiate, plan, execute, control, and close projects across various industries. Students will explore core concepts such as project life cycles, scope management, scheduling, risk assessment, budgeting, stakeholder communication, and team leadership. Through case studies, practical exercises, and the use of project management software, learners will develop the skills to coordinate resources, manage timelines, and deliver projects within defined constraints. Emphasis is also placed on ethical considerations, quality control, and adapting to dynamic project environments, preparing students for both certification exams and real-world project leadership roles.
Recommended Textbook
operations management an integrated approach 6th edition by r. dan reid
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Operations Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Operations management is the central core function of every company.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What are the three major functions through which every business is managed?
Answer: finance, marketing, and operations management
Q3) Which of the following concepts is linked the least with Henry Ford?
A) scientific management
B) mass production
C) mass customization
D) technology
E) interchangeable parts
Answer: C
Q4) What is the Hawthorne effect?
A) workers responding to the attention they are given
B) stopwatch time studies leading to time standards
C) the use of quantitative methods for solving management problems
D) the use of interchangeable parts
E) more lighting increases productivity
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Operations Strategy and Competitiveness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Federal Express subcontracts its work overload to other firms during peak demand periods.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Productivity gains in the service sector have been much lower than that of manufacturing.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Companies that compete based on flexibility often cannot compete on cost. A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q4) Facilities decisions are part of the production process infrastructure.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) Environmental scanning helps organizations recognize ________________________.
Answer: opportunities and threats.
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Chapter 3: Product Design and Process Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name a company that hurt its business success by changing its Operations Type.
Answer: Babcock & Wilcox is one example.
Q2) Why is delivery time longer for make to order than assembly to order processes that deliver similar products?
Answer: Processing time is part of delivery time for a make to order process but not for an assemble to order process.
Q3) During the final design and testing stage:
A) the product design idea is evaluated according to the needs of the major business functions.
B) design engineers hand the product over to the final design engineers.
C) the product specifications are drawn up.
D) marketing becomes involved for the first time.
E) the product achieves full production.
Answer: C
Q4) Triangle symbols are used in a process flowchart to represent decision points?
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Supply Chain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Global competition forces organizations to decrease their amount of product proliferation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a network internal to an organization called?
A) supernet
B) internet
C) intranet
D) supranet
E) internalnet
Q3) Logo, Inc. can transport its own goods for a $140,000 annual cost and $25 per unit. A logistics supplier offers a contract for a $100,000 annual cost at $30 per unit. What is the indifference point?
Q4) Yannis Corporation is trying to decide whether to produce its own subassemblies or outsource them. In-house production costs would include an annual fixed cost of $250,000, materials costs per unit of $7, and labor costs per unit of $5. Teshtown, Inc. has agreed to provide the subassemblies for an annual cost of $400,000 and a unit cost of $8 per subassembly. Over what ranges of demand is each option best?
Q5) What are the four causes of the bullwhip effect?
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Chapter 5: Total Quality Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Checklists are used to make sure all steps in a process are carried out and to
Q2) A quality circle is
A) An approach for the use of control charts
B) An award for quality improvements
C) An inspection stamp found on meat
D) A team of volunteer production employees and their supervisors who meet regularly to solve quality problems
E) A symbol used on flow charts
Q3) TQM philosophy focuses on seven basic concepts. What are they?
Q4) A checklist is a list of common defects and the relative importance of these defects.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the plan-do-study-act cycle, what is studied?
A) The plans made in the plan step
B) The previous action plan
C) The data collected in the do step
D) The evaluation of the current process
E) Procedure documentation
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Chapter 6: Statistical Quality Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the formula for the sample standard deviation?
Q2) Suppose that you want to monitor the average ounces of a process that fills beer cans. Which control chart would be appropriate?
A) x-bar chart
B) R-chart
C) p-chart
D) c-chart
E) OC chart
Q3) A p-chart is an example of what?
A) Traditional statistical tools
B) Fishbone diagramming
C) Acceptance sampling
D) Experimental design
E) Statistical process control
Q4) The Six Sigma approach is organized around a _______ plan known as ________.
A) four step, PDAC
B) four step, DMAC
C) five step PDACR
D) five step DMAIC
E) five step, DMCRA
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Chapter 7: Just-In-Time and Lean Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) By focusing on __________ processes, JIT is able to achieve high-volume production of high-quality, low-cost products.
A) downstream
B) upstream
C) change-over
D) gateway
E) value-added
Q2) In making specific changes to JIT manufacturing, which of the following steps should come first?
A) reduce lot sizes and lead times
B) switch to pull production
C) reorganize workplace
D) reduce setup times
E) implement layout changes
Q3) The broad view of JIT is now often termed __________________________.
A) vendor-managed inventory
B) business process reengineering
C) lean production
D) cycle time management
E) e-distribution
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Chapter 8: Forecasting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cycle is any data pattern that regularly repeats itself and is constant in length.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not considered to be one of the four basic patterns of time series data?
A) Horizontal
B) Trend
C) Vertical
D) Seasonality
E) Cycle
Q3) What value of the correlation coefficient implies that there is no relationship between the two variables of a linear regression model?
A) -1
B) 0
C) 0.5
D) 1
E) \(\infty\)
Q4) Multiple regression is a(n) ___________ of linear regression.
Q5) What are the 9 steps utilized in the most complete form of CPFR?
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Chapter 9: Capacity Planning and Facility Location
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scheduled machine maintenance is one of the determinants of effective capacity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the relation of capacity requirement and the supply chain.
Q3) Which of the following is not a measure of output capacity?
A) cars per shift
B) labor hours consumed
C) revenues per day
D) TVs sold per day
E) patients served per month
Q4) An example of an input measure of capacity is _____________________.
A) floor space in square feet
B) number of patients per month
C) number of pizzas per day
D) revenues per day
E) number of cars per shift
Q5) Capacity cushions can be helpful if sales need to be buffered from production.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How are capacity planning and location analysis similar?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Facility Layout
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Sample
Questions
Q1) The step, when Designing a Product Layout, whose goal is to design a product layout that can produce the desired number of units with the least amount of work centers and a balance of workload.
A) Compute efficiency, idle time & balance delay
B) Determine cycle time
C) Determine output rate
D) Assign tasks to workstations
E) Identify tasks & immediate predecessors
Q2) While traditional walls and doors provide privacy, they reduce _____________ and opportunities for ______________.
Q3) The first step in designing a layout is
A) identifying the facility
B) gathering information
C) selecting the correct layout software package
D) developing a REL chart
E) developing a from-to matrix
Q4) Explain the difference between paced and un-paced lines.
Q5) What is a table that gives the number of trips or units of product moved between any pair of departments called?
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Chapter 11: Work System Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Typically the job chosen for the time study will be ___________________.
A) a routine job that is labor intensive
B) a simple job performed by many different people
C) done primarily by machine
D) done only occasionally
E) insignificant
Q2) The first unit of a product took 180 hours to complete. A 70% learning curve is expected. (a) How long will the 19<sup>th</sup> unit take to complete? (b) How long will it take to complete the first 19 units?
Q3) Work measurement determines how long it should take to do a job.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the effect of an increase in the desired confidence level on the number of observations necessary in a time study?
A) increases
B) decreases
C) unchanged
D) may increase or decrease
E) impossible to say
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Chapter 12: Inventory Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider a periodic review inventory system with a lead time of two weeks and a review period of seven weeks. If the standard deviation of weekly demand is 200 and the desired cycle-service level is 86%, what should the safety stock equal?
A) 305
B) 516
C) 600
D) 648
E) 1944
Q2) Define periodic review system.
Q3) If the costs (S and H) and demands (D) are the same, which of the following is not true with regard to the EPQ model as compared to the EOQ model?
A) The EPQ model produces a lower total annual cost.
B) The maximum inventory level is lower under the EPQ model than under the EOQ model.
C) Both models use the same formula to compute annual ordering cost.
D) The inventory depletion rate is the same for both models.
E) Both models use the same formula to compute annual holding cost.
Q4) List some advantages of small order quantities.
Q5) What are the three major categories of holding costs?
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Chapter 13: Aggregate Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The master production schedule is a statement of upcoming demand.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Shifting demand makes sense when the company has ______________________.
A) lots of space for inventory
B) low inventory carrying costs
C) equipment that is highly flexible with respect to production volume changes
D) high fixed costs and low variable costs
E) excess capacity
Q3) In evaluating the current situation, the ____________ is the percentage of normal capacity at which the company is currently operating.
A) point of departure
B) amount of subcontracting needed
C) magnitude of the change
D) duration of the change
E) rated capacity
Q4) In the level production plan you do not add ______, _____ or ______ to meet peak demand.
Q5) What are the steps involved in developing the aggregate plan?
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Q6) ___________________ is an important advantage of level production plans.
Chapter 14: Resource Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Selection of the lot size rule to be used should be based on minimizing
A) the order size
B) late shipments
C) total processing time
D) quality problems
E) the sum of ordering and carrying costs
Q2) The three criteria for selecting an ERP system include _____________, ________________, and _______________.
Q3) Different lot size rules determine the quantity of the order and __________________.
A) the quality
B) change the frequency of replenishment orders
C) how projected available is calculated
D) the lead time
E) the backorder cost
Q4) _______________ assumes that we make enough of everything to build the required quantity, ignoring beginning inventory.
Q5) Name some lot size rules.
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Chapter 15: Scheduling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eli Goldratt's bottleneck scheduling system is called _____________.
Q2) The process batch should:
A) match the transfer batch.
B) exceed the transfer batch.
C) be smaller than the transfer batch.
D) be fixed.
E) be variable.
Q3) What does makespan measure?
A) WIP inventory
B) due-date performance
C) the amount of time it takes to finish a batch of jobs
D) job tardiness
E) job lateness
Q4) If using slack per remaining operations (S/RO) as the scheduling rule, the job with the least slack per remaining operations has the highest priority.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Based on the definition in the ninth edition of the APICS Dictionary, what is operation sequencing?
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Chapter 16: Project Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the critical chain approach, the focus is on _______________________.
A) deliverables
B) making activity times certain
C) project milestones
D) the final due date of the project
E) individual activities
Q2) Discuss how to develop the critical path variance.
Q3) Consider a project activity that has an optimistic time of 3 weeks, a most likely time of 10 weeks, and a pessimistic time of 25 weeks. What is the expected time for that activity?
Q4) In critical path scheduling, slack is computed as the difference between ______________________.
A) latest and earliest times
B) optimistic and pessimistic times
C) mean and modal times
D) finish and start times
E) observed and predicted times
Q5) Every project has a ____________________.
Q6) Deterministic time estimate makes a _______________ time estimate for each project ___________.
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Chapter 17: Spreadsheet Modeling: An Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many seemingly complex spreadsheet models really comprise only a handful of truly distinct formulas.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How do you know that you have a relative reference in Excel?
Q3) Describe how a Data Table functions in Excel.
Q4) In the custom footer box, which of the following is the command to insert the worksheet name?
A) &[worksheet]
B) &[tab]
C) &[work]
D) &[sheet]
E) &[page]
Q5) What does it mean when the formula result of the MATCH function in Excel equals 2?
A) Two items matched the Lookup_value.
B) The item labeled "2" matched the Lookup_value.
C) The Lookup_value was found in the second position of the Lookup_array.
D) An error occurred.
E) The closest item to the Lookup_value was within two units of that value.
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Optimization
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Sample Questions
Q1) All mathematical programs should include non-negativity constraints.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The four steps to setting up an optimization problem with Excel Solver are easy if you have previously completed the algebraic formulation and spreadsheet model.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In Linear Programming models, what do you want to do with the objective?
A) upsize or downsize
B) rightsize or wrongsize
C) maximize or minimize
D) memorize
E) popularize
Q4) Discuss how the Solver Sensitivity Report is fundamentally different than the other reports.
Q5) In Excel Solver, the Decision Cells correspond to the decision variables in the algebraic model.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Waiting Line Models
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an assumption of the waiting line models presented in the textbook?
A) the customers are patient
B) customers come from an infinite population
C) customer arrival rate is described by a Poisson distribution
D) service times are described by a Normal distribution
E) the waiting line priority rule is first-come, first-served
Q2) A single-line, multiple-server system has _____ ______ in terms of waiting times than the same system with a line for each server.
A) poorer performance
B) similar performance
C) better performance
D) comparable performance
E) reduced performance
Q3) System server capacity is a function of ______ and _______.
A) phase, lines
B) time, lighting
C) facilities, management
D) facilities, proficiency
E) utilization, proficiency
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Chapter 20: Master Scheduling and Rough-Cut Capacity Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the rows in an MPS record?
A) time period (e.g., week)
B) forecast
C) planned orders
D) MPS
E) projected available
Q2) What is the formula for calculating the ATP quantity at future replenishment periods?
A) MPS shipment - customer orders between the current MPS shipment and the next scheduled replenishment
B) beginning inventory + MPS shipment - (the greater of the period's forecast or the actual customer orders promised for delivery that period)
C) beginning inventory + MPS shipment - forecasted demand
D) beginning inventory + MPS shipment - customer orders between the current MPS shipment and the next scheduled replenishment
E) beginning inventory + MPS shipment - customer orders that period
Q3) CPOPF is the acronym for Capacity Planning (using) Overall Promising Factors.
A)True
B)False
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