Project Leadership in IT Final Exam
Course Introduction
Project Leadership in IT explores the principles and best practices essential for effectively leading technology-driven projects. The course examines the roles, responsibilities, and competencies of IT project leaders, focusing on leadership styles, team dynamics, stakeholder management, and communication strategies. Students will learn to navigate the complexities of IT environments, manage project risks, address conflict, and inspire high performance within technical teams. Through case studies and practical exercises, the course emphasizes the integration of leadership theories with real-world project management tools, preparing students for the challenges of delivering successful IT solutions in dynamic organizational settings.
Recommended Textbook
Information Technology Project Management 5th Edition by Jack T. Marchewka
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12 Chapters
881 Verified Questions
881 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Information Technology Projects
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51 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organizational variables can influence the selection of IT projects?
A) culture
B) environment
C) politics
D) strategy
E) all of these
Answer: E
Q2) <b>Describe the different roles and skill sets needed for a project.</b>
Answer: The roles and skill sets required for a typical project may include:
-Project Manager with team leadership and oversight skills
-Project Sponsor with the ability to marshal resources and direction and champion the project
-Subject Matter Expert(s) (SME) who have the specific knowledge, expertise, or insight into the functional areas that support the project
-Technical Expert(s) who have the requisite technical skills to accomplish the project. These skills may include such areas as systems analysis, networking, programming, graphic arts, and training.
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Chapter 2: Project Methodologies and Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) <b>What are product-oriented processes? Give one example.</b>
Answer: Product-oriented processes are those which focus on the tangible results of the project. They require specific domain knowledge, tools, and techniques in order to complete the work. An example would be the creation of a software application package.
Q2) Project Quality Management
A) focuses on coordinating the project plan's development, execution, and control of changes.
B) includes identifying the project phases and activities and estimating, sequencing, and assigning resources.
C) focuses on planning, developing, and managing the quality environment allowing the project to meet or exceed stakeholder expectations.
D) focuses on identifying and responding appropriately to risks that can impact the project.
E) is concerned with acquiring project resources that are outside the organization.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Measurable Organizational Value and the Business Case
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The overall goal and measure of project success is:
A) the project's MOV.
B) the project's NPV.
C) the project's technical competency.
D) the project's adherence to budget and schedule.
E) the project's end-user acceptance.
Answer: A
Q2) In general, riskier project alternatives will have a lower breakeven point than less risky project alternatives.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The net present value method of project valuation takes into account all relevant cash flows as well as the company's required rate of return.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Project Planning: the Project Infrastructure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Project isolation, duplication of effort, and projectitis are disadvantages of:
A) The Functional Organization
B) The Matrix Organization
C) The Project Organization
D) The Informal Organization
E) The Formal Organization
Q2) Briefly describe the nature of the project organization and the strengths and weaknesses that it brings to the execution of information technology projects.
Q3) Describe the attributes of a good project manager.
Q4) Within the Project Charter, _____ focuses on the knowledge areas, processes, and controls that will support the project and are separate subplans or strategies.
A) Project description
B) Statement of Work
C) MOV
D) Project Scope
E) Project Administration
Q5) Describe the functional organizational structure.
Q6) What is Project Scope and how should it be managed?
Q7) What is a project's infrastructure?
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Chapter 5: Project Planning: Scope and the Work
Breakdown Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe product-oriented scope and the tools that are available to support it.
Q2) The scope boundary establishes both what is, and what is not part of the project work to be completed by the project team.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is project-oriented scope and what are some of the commonly used tools to support it?
Q4) An estimation technique characterized by schedule and cost estimates of how long something should take or should cost.
A) Guesstimating
B) Delphi Technique
C) Time Boxing
D) Top-Down Estimating
E) Bottom-Up Estimating
Q5) Describe top-down estimating.What are some advantages and disadvantages of top-down estimating?
Q6) What is meant by project scope?
Q7) Explain why people who do the work on a project should be involved in developing the project plan?
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Chapter 6: The Work Breakdown Structure and Project
Estimation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Three team members are given the task of estimating activity durations.Mr.Optimist estimates the activity to take 2 days to complete.Ms.Pessimist estimates the activity to take 5 days.Mrs.Realist claims that the most likely estimate is 4 days.What should their PERT analysis assign as an expected duration for the activity and what are the benefits and implications of deploying this tool?
Q2) Construct an Activity on the Node (AON) network diagram with at least 5 tasks that illustrate predecessors, successors and parallel activities.Label the nodes appropriately and assuming your tasks show estimated durations in days, state the estimated time for completing your project.
Q3) An activity being analyzed under PERT was judged to most likely have a duration of 40 days.When considering the time it would take to complete the activity if every relevant factor went well, it was estimated to be able to be doable in 20 days and even under the worst case imaginable, the task would be take 50 days.The estimates PERT duration of that activity is:
A) 36.67 days
B) 38.33 days
C) 37.50 days
D) 28.33 days
E) 32.67 days
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Managing Project Risk
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identifying what you know, what you think you know, and things you need to find out would be activities most closely associated with:
A) Learning Cycles
B) Brainstorming
C) Nominal Group Technique
D) Delphi Technique
E) Cause-and-Effect Diagrams
Q2) The concept of expected value rests on the notion of a probability-weighted summation of component parts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Failure to follow a formal risk management plan will often cause organizations to be reactive and find themselves in a state of perpetual crisis, a condition known as crisis management.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why can identifying IT project risks be difficult?
Q5) What is the Delphi Technique? How can this technique be used to identify IT project risks?
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Chapter 8: Managing Project Stakeholders and Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) One attribute of a good project metric is that it should be subjective so that a stakeholder can understand the project manager's personal opinion or insight as to how the project is progressing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The schedule variance (SV) shows the difference between the current progress of the project and its original or planned value.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not likely a characteristic of a good project metric?:
A) Understandable
B) Quantifiable
C) Cost Effective
D) Subjective
E) High Impact
Q4) Why is communications among project stakeholders so important?
Q5) What is the purpose of a project communications plan? What kinds of things should this plan address?
Q6) Why is effective and efficient communication vital to a project?
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Chapter 9: Managing Project Quality
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Sample Questions
Q1) A list of 14 points for quality is associated with A) Deming
B) Juran
C) Crosby
D) Capability Maturity Model (CMM)
E) Ishikawa
Q2) Earned Value (EV) would be an example of a
A) Process Metric
B) Product Metric
C) Project Metric
D) Project Standard
E) None of these
Q3) A _____ is best developed by brainstorming with a learning cycle approach to identify and correct a particular problem.
A) statistical chart
B) flow chart
C) pareto diagram
D) control chart
E) fishbone diagram
Q4) Describe verification. What activities support verification?
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Chapter 10: Leading the Project Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) A capability that outlines a specific set of competencies associated with emotional intelligence is:
A) Self-awareness
B) Self-management
C) Social awareness
D) Social skills
E) All of these are capabilities associated with emotional intelligence
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a traditional management activity?
A) Planning
B) Inspiring a vision
C) Controlling
D) Staffing
E) Evaluating
Q3) Socialization can take place through formal means such as training or mentoring and through less formal ones such as interaction with peers and supervisors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What role does culture play in making ethical decisions?
Q5) What is socialization?
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Chapter 11: Managing Organizational Change, Resistance, and Conflict
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are assimilation and a change threshold?How are these ideas related?
Q2) The view that conflict is an important and necessary ingredient for performance is the
A) Polarity Management View of Conflict
B) Contemporary View of Conflict
C) Change Resistance View of Conflict
D) Traditional View of Conflic
E) Interactionist View of Conflict
Q3) _____ requires a willingness to engage in good-faith problem-solving that facilitates open and honest communication.
A) Avoidance
B) Accommodation
C) Forcing
D) Compromise
E) Collaboration
Q4) Why is having a change management plan important?
Q5) Describe Force Field Analysis.
Q6) In your own words, define change management.
Q7) Describe the traditional view of conflict.
Q8) Describe the interactionist view of conflict. Page 13
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Project Completion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the sponsor's acceptance of the project important to project closure?
Q2) What are some of the realities that the text discusses that occur instead of the normal closure with happy sponsors and customers and a successful achievement of the project MOV?
Q3) Describe some of the steps for administrative closure.
Q4) What are the advantages and disadvantages of the direct cutover approach?
Q5) Having the team review the project scope, schedule, budget, and quality objectives would most likely occur in the:
A) Individual Performance Review
B) Postmortem Review
C) Project Audit
D) MOV Evaluation
E) None of these
Q6) The parallel implementation approach is generally considered to be the riskiest implementation approach.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Discuss how a project should be closed.
Page 15
Q8) Why might an organization terminate a project prematurely? What are the risks?
Q9) What are the advantages and disadvantages of the phased approach?
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Page 16