Professional Nursing Practice
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Professional Nursing Practice provides students with a comprehensive overview of the roles, responsibilities, and standards expected of registered nurses in healthcare settings. The course explores foundational concepts such as ethical and legal considerations, evidence-based practice, communication, leadership, and collaboration within interdisciplinary teams. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, cultural competence, patient safety, and lifelong learning as integral components of professional nursing. Through case studies and practical scenarios, students develop the skills necessary to deliver high-quality, patient-centered care while adhering to the core values and professional standards of nursing practice.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing 2nd Edition by Kathleen S. Osborn
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67 Chapters
1995 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Preparation for Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to a patient care area. The nurse has never provided care to a patient from this patient's culture before and is concerned. How should the nurse proceed?
A) Briefly review the patient's culture and its expectations of health care providers.
B) Have another nurse provide care to this patient.
C) Approach the care of this patient as with any other patient admitted to the care area.
D) Locate an interpreter to assist with communication.
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse practitioner (NP) has joined a practice focusing on family medicine. Which roles would the nurse fulfill in this practice?. Select all that apply.
A) Developing a comprehensive education program for clinic patients
B) Working with individual patients to promote their wellness
C) Discussing how to prevent illness with patients during regular visits
D) Managing the business office of the clinic
E) Providing expert care to younger patients while the clinic physicians care for older patients
Answer: A,B,C
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Chapter 2: Legal, Ethical, and Regulatory Aspects of Health
Care Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that her primary care provider wants her to see a specialist, but the specialist is out of the network and her deductible will be higher. The nurse realizes the patient is a member of which type of health care organization?
A) Medicare
B) Health maintenance organization (HMO)
C) Independent practice association (IPA)
D) Preferred provider organization (PPO)
Answer: D
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that he had money in the top drawer of his bedside table that is now missing. He is phoning his attorney and plans to press charges. The nurse realizes this patient is planning to implement which type of law?
A) Contract law
B) Tort law
C) Common law
D) Criminal law
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Research Foundations for Nursing Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which study titles would alert the members of an institutional review board (IRB) that the study sample may include vulnerable subjects?. Select all that apply.
A) Identification of Coping Patterns Among Pregnant Wives of Soldiers Involved in Combat
B) Development of Cancer in Persons Exposed to Passive Tobacco Smoke
C) Interventions to Delay Development of Alzheimer Disease in Persons with Down Syndrome
D) Weight Gain in Students during the First Two Semesters of Nursing School
E) Interventions to Decrease Feelings of Breathlessness in Terminally Ill Subjects
Answer: A,C,D,E
Q2) The nurse wants to study outpatient medical records to determine a specific pattern of care. Which part of HIPAA should this nurse initially consult to guide the study?
A) Disclosing data
B) Creating data
C) Destroying data
D) Accessing data
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Nursing Care Delivery Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse manager has been charged with evaluating whether the current system of team nursing is efficient and cost-effective for the unit. Which statement supports the cost-effectiveness of team nursing on this unit?
A) Team nursing is cost-effective because it allows for the use of unlicensed assistive personnel to provide care delegated by the registered nurse.
B) Research concludes that team nursing is the most cost-effective care delivery system.
C) Managed care organizations provide financial incentives to institutions that use team nursing as a means to decrease the high cost of registered nurse salaries.
D) The Institute of Medicine's 2004 report Keeping Patients Safe identified team nursing as the most cost-effective care delivery system.
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Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing care for a patient who is unhappy with the health care provider's care. The patient signs the Against Medical Advice (AMA) form and leaves the hospital against medical advice. What should the nurse include in the documentation of this event in the patient's medical record or on the AMA form?. Select all that apply.
A) Documentation that the patient was informed that he or she cannot come back to the hospital
B) Documentation that the patient was informed that he or she was leaving against medical advice
C) Documentation that the risks of leaving against medical advice were explained to the patient
D) Documentation of any discharge instructions given to the patient
E) Documentation indicating an incident report has been completed
Q2) Which statement represents a nursing diagnosis?
A) High risk for delayed maternal-infant bonding due to maternal-infant separation
B) Crohn's disease
C) Hypertension
D) Appendicitis
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Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) While conducting a health history, the nurse nods her head as the patient is talking. What is the nurse's primary rationale for this action?
A) It conveys acknowledgment of the patient's feelings.
B) It helps to reduce the patient's anxiety level.
C) It encourages the patient to continue talking.
D) It allows the nurse time to observe the patient's nonverbal cues.
Q2) The nurse notices a patient has a strong, foul body odor. The patient tells the nurse he has trouble getting in and out of the bathtub. Which areas of the physical assessment does this information address?
A) Behavior and pain
B) Nutritional assessment, mental status, and behavior
C) Physical appearance, height, and weight
D) Functional assessment, physical appearance, and mobility
Q3) The nurse asks the patient, "What brings you to the hospital today?" What is the nurse's rationale for using this type of question?
A) It acknowledges agreement between the patient and the nurse.
B) It elicits specific information.
C) It is useful for introducing a subject in general terms.
D) It helps to clarify information.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the completion of genetic testing, it has been determined that a patient's baby will have Down syndrome. What should the nurse say to the patient after learning this information?
A) "I realize that this news is difficult for you. Is there anything I can do to help you at this time?"
B) "It's not too late to consider ending the pregnancy."
C) "You are young enough to be able to handle the baby's challenges."
D) "It does not matter if the baby has problems; all life is precious."
Q2) A fetus is found to have an autosomal recessive condition. After genetic testing is completed, both parents are found to have the same genetic alteration. Which statements by a parent indicate that further education is required?. Select all that apply.
A) "This condition is related to a genetic alteration of the X chromosome."
B) "This condition is a Mendelian condition."
C) "So we are carriers of this condition because we don't have any signs or symptoms of the condition."
D) "Our baby would have a better chance of living if we were both positive for an autosomal dominant condition."
E) "The problem is the result of an alteration of a single gene."
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a nutritional assessment, a patient asks why the waist circumference measurement is needed. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "It helps determine if the BMI is accurate."
B) "It is more reliable than skinfold measurements."
C) "It is the only tool that can reliably provide information on nutritional status."
D) "It helps in determining your risk for cardiovascular disease."
Q2) The nurse is caring for an elderly patient who recently experienced a cerebral vascular accident (CVA, or stroke). The nurse will evaluate which assessment findings as indicating dysphagia?. Select all that apply.
A) Drooling
B) Slurred speech
C) Pocketing of food in the cheeks
D) Anorexia
E) Frequent throat clearing
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10
Chapter 9: The Biophysical and Psychosocial Aspects of Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has determined that a patient hospitalized with severe anxiety is now in the panic stage. Which nursing assessments support this determination?. Select all that apply.
A) The patient's heart rate is 115 bpm sustained.
B) The patient cannot communicate needs in a clear manner.
C) The patient does not respond to events in the surroundings.
D) The patient is beginning to be restless.
E) The patient's hands begin to show tremors.
Q2) A patient is admitted after being bitten by a dog and tells the nurse he feels fine except for the bite. The nurse assesses that this patient is functioning within which phase of the general adaptation syndrome?
A) Transaction
B) Resistance
C) Alarm
D) Exhaustion
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Chapter 10: The Aging Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that she does not bother to bathe anymore and has no appetite, so she eats only a few times a week. The nurse would evaluate this statement as possibly indicating which type of mistreatment?
A) Abandonment
B) Physical abuse
C) Emotional abuse
D) Self-neglect
Q2) Upon discharge from the hospital, a patient is going home and will need medication injected weekly, assistance with meal preparation, and minor assistance with activities of daily living. The nurse would identify which community-based care service as appropriate for this patient?
A) Home care
B) Hospice care
C) Ambulatory surgical care
D) Long-term care
Q3) A nurse researcher is preparing to study a group of older adults and their response to a nursing intervention. To meet the legal definition of older adult, the study group should include persons _______ years of age or older.
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12
Chapter 11: Caring for the Patient at End of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The health care team has just given the family of a terminally ill patient an update on the patient's status. Thirty minutes later the patient's sibling says, "The family does not understand the last update the physician gave us." Which nursing actions are indicated? Select all that apply.
A) Repeat the information the physician provided.
B) Have the physician paged to talk to the family again.
C) Explain the information in a different way.
D) Offer to call the physician's answering service to leave a message for the family.
E) Have the unit supervisor talk with the family.
Q2) Several visitors are in the room of a terminally ill patient. The nurse enters the room to discuss the plan of care for the patient. Which actions should be taken?
A) Stand at the foot of the patient's bed and tell all present the best course of action.
B) Ask the patient which individuals he or she would like to have stay in the room.
C) Ask the other patient in the room to raise the volume of the television.
D) Sit down next to the patient and discuss the plan.
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13
Chapter 12: Pain Assessment and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient with a fractured tibia and fibula who admits to regular heroin use. Which factor should be used to determine the presence of pain and need for pain medication?
A) The patient has taken an opiate already today.
B) The shift report indicates the patient has been sleeping on and off.
C) The patient is angry about being in the hospital.
D) The patient reports pain in the leg of an intensity of 10 out of 10 on the numeric rating scale.
Q2) The nurse, completing a pain assessment, would attribute which data to the affective dimension of pain?
A) The patient is pale and moaning. 10.
B) The patient rates the pain as 9 on a scale of 1 to
C) The patient states, "The pain comes in waves in my abdomen."
D) The patient states that the pain is "punishment for my misdeeds."
Q3) A patient who had abdominal surgery this morning is receiving opioid pain medication on a routine basis. The nurse would hold the medication if the patient's respirations fall below _____ per minute.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Substance Abuse Assessment and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is underweight and malnourished. Which drug may be prescribed to manage the patient's nutritional status?
A) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
B) Warfarin
C) Methadone
D) Narcan
Q2) A patient withdrawing from alcohol addiction has an order for diazepam (Valium), 10 mg every 4 hours for four doses, then 5 mg every 4 hours for four doses. The drug comes in a concentration of 5 mg/mL. The patient is given a total of ______ mL.
Q3) A patient comes to the emergency department with a PCP overdose. Which intervention can the nurse anticipate the patient will require?
A) Administering a benzodiazepine as prescribed
B) Inducing vomiting
C) Assisting with lavage
D) Administering Narcan as prescribed
Q4) A loading dose of magnesium sulfate 4 g is ordered for a patient. The concentration available is 4 g/250 mL to be given over 30 minutes. The IV pump rate will be set at _______ mL/h.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Infectious Process and Prophylaxis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient wants to know why he developed an infection after being cut on the leg with a piece of wood but his friend who was also cut did not. How should the nurse explain this phenomenon to the patient?
A) "Maybe the wood that cut your friend wasn't dirty and infected."
B) "You must have an autoimmune disorder."
C) "The organism found you more susceptible to infection."
D) "Your friend will get an infection too. It will just occur later."
Q2) A patient's assessment findings suggest infection by a rickettsiae organism. The nurse would ask about which history?. Select all that apply.
A) Tick bite
B) Exposure to a child with roundworms
C) Hyphae exposure
D) Exposure to animals with fleas
E) Exposure to someone with an upper respiratory infection
Q3) The nurse would assess that a patient is severely neutropenic if the absolute neutrophil count is less than ______ cells per cubic millimeter.
Q4) The nurse is performing hand hygiene with an alcohol-based product. The nurse should rub the hands together for at least ______ seconds.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Fluids, Electrolytes and Acid-Base Imbalance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with severe hyponatremia. The nurse realizes this patient will mostly likely need which precautions implemented?
A) Seizure precautions
B) Infection precautions
C) Neutropenic precautions
D) High-risk fall precautions
Q2) The nurse would assess specifically for metabolic alkalosis in which patient?
A) A patient admitted for treatment of bulimia
B) A patient who has been on dialysis for 2 months
C) A patient with a nonhealing venous stasis ulcer
D) A patient with newly diagnosed with COPD
Q3) A pregnant patient is admitted with excessive thirst, increased urination, and a medical diagnosis of diabetes insipidus. The nurse chooses which nursing diagnosis as most appropriate?
A) Risk for Imbalanced Fluid Volume
B) Excess Fluid Volume
C) Imbalanced Nutrition
D) Ineffective Tissue Perfusion
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17
Chapter 16: Fluid and Blood Infusion Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse inspects the intravenous catheter after removal. Documentation would include which information?. Select all that apply.
A) Length of catheter
B) Condition of access caps
C) Type of catheter
D) Condition of catheter
E) Size of catheter
Q2) The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient after infusing chemotherapy through an implanted port. What instructions for port care would the nurse provide?
A) Apply a nonadhering dressing weekly.
B) Apply a sterile dressing every 2 days.
C) Place a clean bandage daily.
D) No dressings are necessary.
Q3) Which technique should the nurse use when infusing fresh frozen plasma?
A) Administer slowly.
B) Give through a filter.
C) Agitate the bag periodically.
D) Give IV push.
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18
Chapter 17: Preoperative Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing a preoperative plan of care for an older Hispanic patient who is scheduled for a hysterectomy. What does the nurse recognize as the priority initial intervention?
A) Teach the patient about turning, coughing, and deep breathing.
B) Discuss the patient's concerns about the surgery.
C) Explain that the patient's pain will be controlled during the postoperative time frame.
D) Determine if the patient understands English or if an interpreter is needed.
Q2) For which patient is the nurse most likely to request an order for a preoperative chest X-ray?
A) A 22-year-old with Down syndrome
B) A 50-year-old with a history of gallbladder disease
C) A 16-year-old with a history of abdominal pain
D) A 55-year-old current smoker with a recent productive cough
Q3) Which preoperative finding should the nurse report immediately to the rest of the health care team?
A) No prior patient history or family history of malignant hyperthermia
B) Patient's age greater than 70
C) Heart rate of 88 beats per minute
D) Latex allergy
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Intraoperative Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) After the anesthesiologist inserts the anesthetic agent into the patient's spinal column, the nurse assists the patient into a supine position with the neck flexed. What is the rationale for the nurse's action?
A) This position allows for better monitoring of the patient's blood pressure and pulse.
B) Positioning can help the anesthetic agent reach the appropriate level in the spinal column.
C) This position helps to ensure the patient's cardiac function will not be affected by the anesthesia.
D) The patient will be able to breathe more easily in this position.
Q2) A patient is being prepared for surgery on the right arm. Which actions should the nurse take to prevent brachial plexus nerve injury?. Select all that apply.
A) Align the arm at a 135-degree angle from the body.
B) Pronate the wrist.
C) Pad the table extension on which the arm is positioned.
D) Protect the arm from pressure exerted by operative equipment.
E) Consider intraoperative position changes if possible.
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Chapter 19: Postoperative Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient recovering from surgery reports a pain level of 6 on a 0 to10 pain scale but refuses additional pain medication to avoid becoming addicted. The nurse's response should focus on which concept?
A) The patient may not understand the importance of treating pain.
B) The patient may already have an addiction problem.
C) The patient might benefit from a placebo dose.
D) The physician should be notified to discuss pain management.
Q2) A potential research study focuses on identifying topics essential for inclusion in patients' discharge instructions. Such a study might provide insight into which question?
A) How can hospitalizations be reduced?
B) When should the patient be discharged?
C) In what ways can patients better manage their own recovery?
D) How might the nurse improve care provided in the hospital?
Q3) A child who weighs 30 kg is in the PACU. The nurse would collaborate with the child's health care provider if the child's urine output was less than ______ mL per hour.
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Chapter 20: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has upper motor neuron injuries. The nurse anticipates that what type of reflex is present?
A) Pathologic
B) Increased
C) Normal
D) Exaggerated
Q2) While assessing an unconscious patient's neurologic status, the nurse applies pain by pinching the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of the use of this technique?
A) "Pain will make abnormal motor responses observable."
B) "An unconscious patient's pain threshold is abnormally high."
C) "Response to pain is an indicator of cognitive function."
D) "The patient is most likely to respond to pain at that site."
Q3) When testing cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory), the nurse should ask the patient to perform which activity?
A) Shrug the shoulders and turn the head against resistance.
B) Stick out the tongue and move it from side to side.
C) Taste foods and distinguish sweet from sour.
D) Identify smells correctly with one side of the nares blocked.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Caring for the Patient With an Acute Brain or Cranial Nerve Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma. Which assessment finding supports that it is a nonfunctioning form?
A) 20/60 vision using a Snellen chart
B) A round, moon-shaped face
C) A protruding lower jaw
D) Report of insomnia
Q2) A 25-year-old female is diagnosed with tic douloureux. How should the nurse describe this disorder to the patient?. Select all that apply.
A) "This condition is also called Bell's palsy."
B) "You are the typical age for onset of this condition."
C) "More women than men have this condition."
D) "More testing will be necessary."
E) "The treatment for this condition is to allow it to run its course, which is typically 5 to 7 days."
Q3) A nurse is providing care to a patient with increased intracranial pressure following a closed head injury. The nurse would determine that adequate cerebral perfusion pressure exists if the CPP is at least ____.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Caring for the Patient With Cerebral Vascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been admitted with stroke-like symptoms. The nurse would report a serum potassium level of less than _____mEq/L as below the desired level.
Q2) A patient's initial assessment revealed blood pressure 128/70, pulse 68, respirations 20, and pupils equal and reactive. The patient is awake and responding to verbal stimuli but demonstrating weakness on the left side. A medical diagnosis is presumptive stroke. Two hours later the patient is not awake but is easily aroused, has a blood pressure of 140/70, pulse 52, respirations 18, and the left pupil now reacts more slowly to light than the right pupil. Which complication is likely to have occurred?
A) Reperfusion injury
B) Normal stabilization poststroke
C) Increased intracranial pressure
D) Impending brain death
Q3) Which assessment data alerts the nurse to the fact that the patient is at risk for an embolic stroke?
A) Blood sugar of 110 mg
B) Right partial lung lobectomy 6 months ago
C) BP 108/68
D) History of atrial fibrillation
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Chapter 23: Caring for the Patient With Chronic and Degenerative Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is discussing the future with a patient recently diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The patient asks about the possibility of continuing to work at the family's construction business. How should the nurse respond?
A) "Can you do work that is less strenuous?"
B) "Is there a way you can switch over to the office side of the business?"
C) "This is a progressively debilitating disease. You need to think of ways to conserve your energy, not expend it."
D) "Work as long at your job as you feel capable of keeping up with the demands it makes on you."
Q2) A patient who is newly diagnosed with Huntington's disease asks the nurse whether this disorder can be passed on to his future children. How should the nurse respond?. Select all that apply.
A) "There may be genetic concerns that should be discussed with the physician."
B) "Your children will not be affected by the disease."
C) "The disease is passed only through the mother's blood line."
D) "Each child will have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene."
E) "There is a strong chance that your children will be carriers, but they will only develop the disease if their mother is also a carrier."
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Chapter 24: Caring for the Patient With Spinal Cord Injuries
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Q1) The nurse recognizes that the rehabilitation goal for a patient who has experienced a spinal cord injury (SCI) is to assist the patient in which activities?. Select all that apply.
A) Adapting to the realization of the patient's limitations
B) Providing the emotional support required for this adjustment
C) Reaching the patient's highest potential for independence
D) Managing the physical pain such injuries cause
E) Assimilating back into the patient's home environment
Q2) The nurse witnesses a motor vehicle accident (MVA) while off duty. Upon approaching the scene, the nurse observes a victim lying on the ground after being ejected from the vehicle. Beginning with the action the nurse must first take, place the actions in the correct order. All options must be used.
A) Check the victim's breathing.
B) Check the victim's pulse.
C) Check the victim's airway.
D) Immobilize the victim's spine.
E) Check for responsiveness.
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Chapter 25: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With
Respiratory Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a preexisting pulmonary illness is being seen in the clinic for a routine assessment. The patient says, "My family and I are going skiing for our next vacation." What information should the nurse provide?
A) "Going to high altitudes is not a good idea for your health."
B) "You should be watchful for any respiratory problems while you are there."
C) "You should go to the seashore instead."
D) "Be certain to fly directly to the resort if possible."
Q2) The nurse anticipates that a patient with multiple fractured ribs is at risk for which condition?
A) Decreased lung expansion
B) Increased respiratory rate
C) Prolonged expiratory phase
D) Low arterial carbon dioxide level
Q3) During an assessment, a patient begins to cough. How would the nurse evaluate this finding?
A) The patient has a cold.
B) The patient is nervous.
C) Something other than air was entering the larynx.
D) The patient is not fully conscious.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Caring for the Patient With Upper Airway Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a patient with a temporal bone fracture and notices drainage from the right nostril. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse document as priority?
A) Risk for Pain
B) Risk for Impaired Sensory Input
C) Ineffective Airway Clearance
D) Potential for Infection
Q2) When preparing for a maxillary resection, the nurse should provide the patient and family with which instruction?
A) "It will be at least 3 to 4 days after surgery before you will be allowed out of bed."
B) "It is important to keep objects within reach and in the same place at all times."
C) "You will be given pain medication whenever you need it, so pain should not be a concern."
D) "Your speech will not be affected, so communication will not be a problem."
Q3) The nurse, suctioning a patient's tracheostomy, plans for each suctioning attempt to last no longer than _____ seconds.
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Chapter 27: Caring for the Patient With Lower Airway Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78631
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with a femur fracture is experiencing sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, syncope with movement, cyanosis, tachycardia, and tachypnea. What should be the nurse's first action?
A) Raise the head of the bed (HOB).
B) Administer oxygen per nasal cannula for the cyanosis and dyspnea.
C) Provide reassurance and keep the patient calm by staying with the patient.
D) Evaluate urinary output to assess cardiac output.
Q2) Which patients would the nurse identify as being at risk for developing cor pulmonale?. Select all that apply.
A) Patient with left ventricular heart failure
B) Patient experiencing a massive pulmonary embolism
C) Patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D) Patient with sickle cell anemia
E) Patient with deep vein thrombosis
Q3) The nurse would anticipate alpha-1 antitrypsin (ATT) levels to be drawn on all patients ______ years of age or younger who demonstrate assessment findings of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Caring for the Patient With Complex
Respiratory Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78630
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being mechanically ventilated with SIMV at a rate of A) The rate could be too high for this mode.
B) The patient will be more comfortable with a different mode.
25. The nurse would question this order for which reason?
C) The patient is not receiving enough sedation.
D) SIMV is always used in combination with PEEP.
Q2) A patient who is septic is restless and agitated. The chest X-ray results indicate bilateral patchy infiltrates. As the patient's condition continues to deteriorate, which finding would raise the nurse's concern that the patient is developing ARDS?
A) Hypertension
B) Hyperventilation
C) Decreasing HCO<sub>3</sub>
D) Refractory hypoxemia
Q3) A patient who has cardiogenic pulmonary edema is receiving intravenous dopamine at a rate of 195 mcg/min. The patient weighs 65 kg. The nurse would increase surveillance for tachycardia and dysrhythmias if the dopamine rate must be increased to a rate greater than ________ mcg/min.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With
Cardiovascular Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78629
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient presents to the emergency department (ED) complaining of chest pain, fatigue, and dyspnea. What is the nurse's priority assessment?
A) Medications
B) Airway and oxygen status
C) Activity tolerance
D) Chest pain
Q2) The nurse assesses changes in the patient's fingers. The fingertips look swollen, and the nails seem to angle downward. How should the nurse proceed?
A) Request an X-ray of the patient's hands.
B) Ask the patient if an injury occurred to the hands.
C) Review the patient's history for pulmonary disorders.
D) Ask if the patient has diabetes.
Q3) While completing the health history of a patient with a suspected cardiac disorder, the nurse would ask about which childhood illnesses?
A) Rheumatic fever and strep throat infections
B) Rubella and chickenpox
C) Asthma and bronchitis
D) Otitis media and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
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Chapter 30: Car-Ing for the Patient With Dysrhythmias
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78628
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is having elective synchronized cardioversion. Place the steps of the procedure in the correct order.
A) Verify patency of IV access.
B) Administer sedative per physician prescription.
C) Set cardioverter to "synchronize" mode.
D) Charge the cardioverter to the selected energy level.
E) Ensure that personnel are not in physical contact with the bed or patient.
Q2) The patient is experiencing frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). The nurse plans this patient's care based on which understanding of the clinical significance of PVCs?. Select all that apply.
A) PVCs show that the rhythm is regular.
B) PVCs can be a life-threatening cardiac rhythm.
C) PVCs could become the dominant pacemaker.
D) PVCs are neither significant nor dangerous.
E) PVCs can indicate myocardial ischemia and injury.
Q3) The nurse count
3.5 large squares between two R waves on the patient's cardiac monitor tracing. The nurse calculates the patient's heart rate as _______ beats per minute. (Round to the nearest whole beat.)
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Hemodynamic Monitoring
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78627
Sample Questions
Q1) The intensive care unit nurse would expect pulmonary artery (PA) catheter monitoring to be used with a patient in which situation?
A) Cannot tolerate hemodynamic monitoring
B) Requires a peripheral intravenous catheter for vasoactive medication administration
C) Needs a central catheter for total parenteral nutrition
D) Requires evaluation of left ventricular pressures each shift
Q2) A family member of a critically ill patient is verbalizing the purpose of hemodynamic monitoring. Which statement indicates that the family member needs more education?
A) "The hemodynamic monitor can measure how much blood is in the arteries and veins."
B) "The hemodynamic monitor can measure how much blood comes out of the heart each minute."
C) "The hemodynamic monitor can measure how much oxygen is left in the blood after it circulates through the body."
D) "The hemodynamic monitor can measure how much pressure is in the heart."
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Chapter 32: Caring for the Patient With Coronary Artery Disorders
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78626
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse considers which information when planning care for a patient with left anterior descending (LAD) artery occlusion?
A) An occlusion in the LAD often results in death.
B) The patient may have atrial dysrhythmias.
C) Occlusion of this vessel will result in an inferior wall MI.
D) Occlusion of this vessel damages the aorta.
Q2) Aspirin has been prescribed for a patient following a myocardial infarction. What should the nurse include in teaching about this drug?
A) Watch for signs of bleeding, such as bruising.
B) Report any itching that develops after 7 days of taking the drug.
C) Take aspirin as a substitute for clopidrogrel (Plavix).
D) Do not skip any scheduled appointments to have blood drawn for labs.
Q3) A patient is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction. The nurse realizes that the final extent of cardiac damage depends on which factor?
A) Reperfusion of the ischemic zone
B) Patient's ethnicity
C) Patient's gender
D) Development of heart block
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Chapter 33: Caring for the Patient With Cardiac
Inflammatory Disorders
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78625
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy. The nurse would design interventions to meet which primary collaborative treatment goals for this patient?. Select all that apply.
A) Preventing sudden cardiac death
B) Preventing renal failure
C) Preventing pulmonary damage
D) Preventing heart failure
E) Preventing liver failure
Q2) The nurse, caring for a patient diagnosed with cardiac tamponade, prepares to participate in which initial treatment?
A) Antidysrhythmic drugs and oxygen
B) Oxygen and rest
C) Pericardiocentesis
D) Antibiotics
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Chapter 34: Caring for the Patient With Heart Failure
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78624
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is considering employment in a heart failure management clinic. The nurse would expect to work primarily with patients having which underlying disease processes?. Select all that apply.
A) Hypertension
B) Renal failure
C) Coronary artery disease (CAD)
D) Dilated cardiomyopathy
E) Pneumonia
Q2) A patient with heart failure is facing the end of life. Which intervention would the nurse prioritize with this patient?
A) Have the health care provider discuss end-of-life topics with the patient.
B) Tell the patient that the family should be the primary source of support, but that nursing staff will be glad to substitute if necessary.
C) Be as honest as possible about the progression of the disease and the support needed.
D) Reassure the patient that death will be painless.
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Chapter 35: Caring for the Patient With Peripheral Vascular Disorders
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78623
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes that a patient with Raynaud's disease is more anxious than usual and states, "I don't understand why my hands keep turning colors. It seems to happen when I get upset." What is the nurse's most appropriate action?
A) Discuss how stress can cause the vasospasms in Raynaud's disease and develop a plan to manage stress.
B) Discuss using hot water to warm up the patient's hands and keep them warm.
C) Discuss how Raynaud's can impact the patient's health.
D) Implement a no-visitor policy to keep the patient calmer.
Q2) A patient has the nursing diagnosis Impaired Physical Mobility related to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. To address this nursing diagnosis, the nurse should instruct the patient to walk for at least 30 minutes at least _______ times a week.
Q3) A patient's visit to the health care clinic reveals a blood pressure of 142/
A) Notify the physician or primary health care provider immediately.
B) Identify medications the patient has been taking.
C) Discuss the diagnosis of hypertension with the patient.
D) Check the patient's record for the past several blood pressure readings.
90. What is the nurse's next step?
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With
Gastrointestinal, Renal, or Urinary Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78622
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reports epigastric pain that occurs after meals and often awakens the patient at night. The nurse would ask additional assessment questions about which disorder?
A) Urinary tract infection
B) Duodenal ulcer
C) Gastric ulcer
D) Intussusception
Q2) The nurse would recommend avoiding ginger as complimentary therapy for gastrointestinal distress in which individuals?. Select all that apply.
A) A patient with peptic ulcer disease
B) Persons younger than 30 years of age
C) Persons taking anticoagulants for atrial fibrillation
D) Women
E) Patients with documented sun sensitivity
Q3) Arrange the four parts of abdominal assessment in the order the nurse should follow.
A) Percussion
B) Inspection
C) Palpation
D) Auscultation
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Chapter 37: Caring for the Patient With Gastrointestinal Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78621
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with a jejunostomy tube. Which statement by the nurse indicates the need for additional information to safely manage the medical intervention?
A) "I will keep the patient on bed rest until the tube can be removed."
B) "It's my habit to irrigate the jejunostomy tube just prior to administering the patient's sleeping medication."
C) "A pH of 5 or less indicates the tube is in the stomach, not the intestine."
D) "I plan to assess the patient's abdomen for distention at regular intervals."
Q2) The nurse is preparing to instruct a patient who is newly diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about dietary considerations. What should the nurse include in these instructions?. Select all that apply.
A) "Avoid peppermint."
B) "Meals should be small and more frequent."
C) "Avoid eating within 4 hours of bedtime."
D) "Be sure to eat at least one citrus fruit per day."
E) "Alcohol should be limited to two drinks per day."
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Chapter 38: Caring for the Patient With Hepatic and Biliary Disorders
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78620
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The health care provider has indicated that there is a chance that the procedure may need to be done as an open cholecystectomy. The nurse knows that if the patient has an open procedure, what is more likely?
A) The patient may have an increase in bowel movements.
B) The patient may notice more fatty food intolerance.
C) The patient may experience faster recovery.
D) The patient may have a T-tube that will allow drainage of bile.
Q2) A patient with pancreatitis asks the nurse, "Why are my stools so frothy and smell so bad?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "This is a sign of malnutrition."
B) "This indicates your stools have more fat in them."
C) "This is a sign of peptic ulcer disease."
D) "You may be developing diabetes mellitus."
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Chapter 39: Caring for the Patient With Renal and Urinary Disorders
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78619
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with postrenal acute renal failure. Which finding is associated with this type of renal failure?
A) An enlarged prostate
B) Hypovolemia
C) Sepsis
D) Drug toxicity
Q2) A male patient with a urinary stoma says, "I looked at it while you were out of the room. It's not so bad." How should the nurse evaluate this statement?
A) The patient is making progress with coping.
B) The patient is in denial.
C) The patient has not grieved for his body image.
D) The patient is angry.
Q3) Which intervention would be appropriate for a patient with Fluid Volume Excess related to chronic glomerulonephritis?
A) Weigh daily on the same scale.
B) Document energy level.
C) Schedule activities to conserve energy.
D) Assess for signs of infection.
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Chapter 40: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With
Reproductive Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78618
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a menstrual cycle of 28 days asks about the timing of ovulation. The nurse would respond that ovulation would most likely occur on which days?
A) 14 to 16
12.
B) 20 to 22
C) 10 to
D) 1 to 2
Q2) A patient presents to the emergency department with swelling and pain in his scrotum. The nurse anticipates dysfunction in which structures?. Select all that apply.
A) Testes
B) Vas deferens
C) Epididymis
D) Seminal vesicle
E) Prostate
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Chapter 41: Caring for the Patient With Female
Reproductive Disorders
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78617
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been experiencing premenstrual syndrome (PMS) reports to the clinic with a diet diary she has kept over the past several weeks. The nurse should suggest the patient make a dietary modification based on which entry in this diary?
A) Daily intake of caffeine-free soda
B) Daily intake of low-fat yogurt
C) Daily intake of foods rich in magnesium
D) Daily intake of white bread
Q2) A couple has come to the health care provider's office with concerns about infertility. While collecting data, the woman questions the nurse about who is at fault for the inability to conceive. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate at this time?
A) "As long as you get pregnant, there is no need to place blame."
B) "The causes of infertility are varied. Determining the cause in each case requires further investigation."
C) "Unfortunately, infertility is usually the fault of the woman."
D) "Most causes of infertility are never explained."
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Chapter 42: Caring for the Patient With Male Reproductive Disorders
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78616
Sample Questions
Q1) An 86-year-old patient has just been diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). While discussing the condition with the nurse, the patient shakes his head and states, "I thought this disease was more common in middle-aged men." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "I understand how you feel."
B) "No one really knows why this happens in older men."
C) "This disease is most common in men between the ages of 40 and
D) "This condition is seen in about 90% of men your age." 55."
Q2) Laboratory testing is ordered for a 61-year-old patient suspected of having chronic prostatitis. The nurse anticipates preparing the patient for which procedure?
A) CT scan
B) IVP
C) Serum sodium level
D) Urinalysis
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44
Chapter 43: Caring for the Patient With Sexually
Transmitted Diseases
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78615
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient diagnosed with a chlamydial infection denies any symptoms and asks when she contracted the disease. What information should be provided to the patient?
A) The patient has most likely had the infection for about 1 to 3 weeks.
B) The infection has been in her body for less than 1 month, as no symptoms are present.
C) The infection might have been in her body for an indefinite period of time.
D) Symptoms typically begin a few months after infection.
Q2) A female patient is having difficulty accepting the diagnosis of a sexually transmitted infection (STI) because she has been "on the pill" for years. What information can the nurse provide to aid this patient?
A) Skipping doses could have caused the disease.
B) She may need to change the type of birth control pill she is using.
C) The pill offers some protection against STIs.
D) Latex condoms are better protection against bacterial STIs.
Q3) A patient who is positive for syphilis is allergic to penicillin and is being treated with tetracycline for 28 days. The health care provider orders tetracycline 500 mg to be taken every 6 hours. The prescription is filled with 250 mg tablets. How many tablets will the patient need to take every day to achieve the ordered dosing?
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Chapter 44: Caring for the Patient With Breast Disorders
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78614
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for a breast mass. Initial reports suggest that the mass is benign, but definitive results are not yet available. Which nursing diagnoses would the nurse consider when planning this patient's care?. Select all that apply.
A) Fear
B) Decisional Conflicts
C) Altered Tissue Perfusion: Peripheral
D) Disturbed Body Image
E) Deficient Knowledge
Q2) A patient has the nursing diagnosis Disturbed Body Image related to surgical excision of a benign breast mass. Which patient statement would the nurse evaluate as indicating that the goal of acceptance of body image has been achieved?
A) "The scar is not as red as I thought it would be."
B) "I hope I can still wear a bikini top."
C) "I haven't shown the scar to my husband yet."
D) "I think my shirts fit differently since my surgery."
Q3) A patient's genetic studies reveal she is positive for both BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations. The nurse prepares to care for a patient whose lifetime risk of developing breast cancer is _______%.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Nursing Assessment of the Patient Endocrine Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78613
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is scheduled for a thyroid scan. The nurse should specifically ask the patient about possible allergy to which substance?
A) Penicillin
B) Iodine
C) Citrus fruit
D) Sulfa drugs
Q2) Which example would help the nurse explain hormone regulation directed by circadian rhythm?
A) The regulation of the female menstrual cycle
B) The release of cortisol to peak in the early morning
C) The stimulation of insulin production by an increased level of glucose
D) The increased production of luteinizing hormone (LH) during the menstrual cycle
Q3) During an assessment, the nurse notes that the patient's eyes are extremely wide open and bulging. The nurse would conduct additional assessment for which endocrine disorder?
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Hypofunction of the adrenal glands
D) Hypofunction of the anterior pituitary gland
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Chapter 46: Caring for the Patient With Glandular and Hormonal Disorders
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33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a patient who has a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome. Which set of findings should the nurse follow up immediately?
A) Serum potassium
B) Serum sodium 145 mEq/L and reports of muscle weakness 2.5 and blood pressure 150/90
C) Serum calcium 11 mg/dL and reports of feelings of depression
D) Serum phosphorus 3 mg/dL and hirsutism
Q2) A patient has been admitted for treatment of syndrome of inappropriate antiduretic hormone secretion (SIADH). The nurse expects continued diagnostic tests for which disorder?
A) Heart failure
B) Small cell carcinoma of the lung
C) Hypertension
D) Pleural effusion
Q3) Which clinic patient would the nurse monitor for development of Cushing syndrome?
A) A patient who received radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism
B) A patient receiving steroid treatment for rheumatoid arthritis
C) A patient who has had surgery on the neck
Page 48
D) A patient receiving radiation for a brain tumor
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Chapter 47: Caring for the Patient With Diabetes
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32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78611
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a healthy patient who has a serum glucose level of 60 mg/dL. The nurse anticipates that which counterregulatory serum hormonal changes are likely to occur in this patient?. Select all that apply.
A) Increased epinephrine levels
B) Increased growth hormone levels
C) Increased insulin levels
D) Decreased glucagon levels
E) Decreased cortisol levels
Q2) The nurse is providing dietary instruction to a patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. The nurse includes information on how to reduce dietary intake of cholesterol to no more than _______ mg per day.
Q3) A patient has been admitted for treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should include which intervention in the patient's plan of care?
A) Place the patient on strict bed rest.
B) Monitor intravenous fluid administration.
C) Review the diabetic diet with the patient.
D) Administer oral hypoglycemics on schedule.
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Chapter 48: Nursing Management of the Patient With
Musculoskeletal Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78610
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is complaining of a fever and a "stiff neck." Upon assessment, the patient is unable to rotate the neck. The nurse would conduct additional assessment for which condition?
A) Gout
B) Cervical vertebrae fracture
C) Infectious process
D) Arthritis
Q2) The nurse wishes to test opposition ability in the patient's thumb. How would the nurse instruct the patient?
A) "Touch each one of your fingertips with your thumb."
B) "Move your thumb across your palm away from the rest of your fingers."
C) "Move your thumb across your palm and touch your fifth finger."
D) "Move your thumb anteriorly away from the palm and then back."
Q3) The nurse determines that a patient's shoulder muscle strength is normal when it is graded as _______ or better.
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Chapter 49: Caring for the Patient With Musculoskeletal Disorders
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78609
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient states, "I am in such pain. Do you think I might have fibromyalgia?" Which response by the nurse is indicated?
A) "Have you been in pain over 2 months?"
B) "You must stop smoking before a diagnosis of fibromyalgia can be made."
C) "Have you considered having the blood test for fibromyalgia?"
D) "In which areas do you have pain?"
Q2) The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a patient diagnosed with hypokalemic myopathy. What information should be included in these instructions?
A) When to take coenzyme Q-10
B) The need for rest periods between activities
C) Foods rich in potassium
D) When to take prescribed prednisone
Q3) A 60-year-old man asks the nurse if he should consume sports drinks while mowing the lawn in the summer to prevent dehydration. What response by the nurse is indicated?
A) "As long as you are drinking fluids, it doesn't really matter what they are."
B) "If you drink only one sports drink a day, there should be no problem."
C) "Let me review your lab results from last week before I reply."
D) "You should drink only water."
Page 51
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Chapter 50: Caring for the Patient With Musculoskeletal
Trauma and Surgical Procedures
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78608
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is diagnosed with an oblique fracture of the left femur. The nurse understands that the process of bone healing occurs in phases. Place in order the phases of the bone healing process.
A) Reparative phase
B) Initial injury (fracture)
C) Inflammatory phase
D) Remodeling phase
Q2) A patient has a minor orthopedic injury to the arm. The nurse would suspect the development of complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) based on which assessment findings?
A) The patient complains of widespread pain and has limited joint mobility.
B) The patient has a fever and a rash over the injured area.
C) The patient complains of vague abdominal pain with diarrhea.
D) The patient's fingers are cyanotic.
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Chapter 51: Caring for the Patient With Arthritis and
Connective Tissue Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78607
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with scleroderma reports heartburn. Which instructions would the nurse provide for treatment of this symptom?. Select all that apply.
A) Drink only decaffeinated beverages.
B) Use the nicotine patches as prescribed.
C) Increase fiber in the diet.
D) Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
E) Take omeprazole (Prilosec) as prescribed.
Q2) A patient diagnosed with gouty arthritis is prescribed the drug colchicine to reduce symptoms. Which medication education should the nurse provide?
A) There is a possibility of orthostatic hypotension.
B) A diet with fewer restrictions on purine ingestion may be adopted.
C) The pain will diminish, but the joint will remain swollen and red.
D) Vomiting and/or diarrhea are common side effects of this medication.
Q3) A butterfly rash on the face is characteristic of which inflammatory connective tissue disease?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
C) Paget's disease
D) Gout
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Chapter 52: Nursing Management of the Patient With
Immunological and Inflammatory Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78606
Sample Questions
Q1) A 68-year-old patient tells the nurse she does not understand why she has had more colds over the last several years. The nurse considers which component of normal aging before replying?
A) There is a decrease in the number and function of T cells.
B) The flu vaccine given to the elderly is not as potent as that given to younger adults.
C) There is a decrease in complement.
D) The B cells respond more rapidly.
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that she washes her hands many times throughout the day because she wants to kill all the germs before she provides care to her small children. What is the nurse's best response to this patient?
A) "That's a good thing, because hand washing kills all bacteria."
B) "Make sure you use an antibiotic ointment on areas of skin breakdown."
C) "Bacteria are always present on the skin, and too much hand washing could lead to skin breakdown."
D) "When you have young children, there's no such thing as washing your hands too much."
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Caring for the Patient With Immune Response Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78605
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is suspected of having an allergic reaction to certain laundry detergents. The nurse recognizes that which diagnostic test result would best confirm a hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Rh antigen with negative results
B) Eosinophils of 2% of the total WBC
C) Prick test with 3 mm erythema
D) Indirect Coombs' showing no agglutination
Q2) The nurse is preparing to instruct a class of young adults about ways to perform safe sex. What should be included in the nurse's presentation?. Select all that apply.
A) Use spermicidal agents to lubricate the condom.
B) Get HIV testing if entering a new monogamous relationship and have the test repeated in 6 months.
C) Avoid sexual activity until both partners are HIV negative for two tests.
D) Use a condom along with oral contraceptives.
E) Avoid using water-based lubricants.
Q3) A patient diagnosed with HIV/AIDS weighed 180 pounds when diagnosed. The patient has had intermittent fever, diarrhea, and anorexia for the last 30 days. The nurse would be concerned that HIV wasting is occurring if the patient has lost more than _______ pounds.
Page 55
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Chapter 54: Caring for the Patient With Inflammatory
Response, Shock, and Severe Sepsis
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78604
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is brought to the emergency department with injuries sustained in a gang fight. The patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg with a pulse of 120 and thready. The nurse will prepare the patient for which test to provide the fastest diagnostic information?
A) Sonogram
B) Complete blood count
C) Urinalysis
D) Serum electrolyte levels
Q2) A patient has developed severe cardiogenic shock and is on a mechanical ventilator. The family asks why the patient's hands feel so cold. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "We keep the intensive care unit cool to reduce patients' metabolic rates."
B) "The patient has developed a fever and chills."
C) "This happens frequently to patients in shock states."
D) "Blood vessels constrict in shock, which takes the blood away from hands and feet."
Q3) A patient was admitted directly from a physician's office with suspected sepsis. The nurse contacts the pharmacy with the medication orders immediately because the antibiotic must be administered within _______ minutes of admission.
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Chapter 55: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With
Hematological Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78603
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with sickle cell anemia is in severe pain. How would the nurse explain the etiology of this pain?
A) "You don't have enough red blood cells to carry oxygen to your tissues."
B) "You have infection in your blood because your white blood cells are not working correctly."
C) "Your red blood cells clog up the vessels and the tissues don't get oxygen."
D) "You have too many red cells, so your blood is too thick."
Q2) How would the nurse explain primary and secondary hemostasis to the parents of a child newly diagnosed with a platelet disorder?. Select all that apply.
A) "During primary hemostasis, the vessels around the injured area constrict to reduce blood loss."
B) "The clot that forms in the injured vessel becomes more stable during secondary hemostasis."
C) "Normally a soft plug or clot is formed early in primary hemostasis."
D) "Normally, the coagulation cascade is started in primary hemostasis."
E) "Platelets play a role in primary hemostasis."
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Caring for the Patient With Blood Disorders
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78602
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been admitted for treatment of hemolytic anemia. Which assessment findings would the nurse immediately discuss with the health care provider?. Select all that apply.
A) Decreased amounts of very dark urine
B) Jaundice
C) Bradycardia
D) Liver palpated below the right costal margin
E) Itching
Q2) Which statement would the nurse manager of a hematology clinic evaluate as indicating that a newly employed nurse understands the process of thrombopoiesis?
A) Thrombopoiesis is a response to extrinsic factors that initiates the clotting cascade.
B) Thrombopoiesis is the process that mitigates blood loss due to injury to any blood vessel.
C) Thrombopoiesis is the development of three blood cell lines.
D) Thrombopoiesis is platelet development from hematopoietic stem cells to fully mature platelets.
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Chapter 57: Caring for the Patient With Cancer
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78601
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a 78-year-old male with Hodgkin's disease who has received both chemotherapy and radiation. He was admitted to the hospital to evaluate an unexplained increasing fatigue and inability to care for himself. What nursing interventions are indicated?. Select all that apply.
A) Limiting oral intake
B) Spacing activities to allow for periods of rest
C) Suggesting a consult with a nutritionist
D) Assessing hemoglobin and hematocrit
E) Encouraging the patient to move about in bed every hour.
Q2) A patient's carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level was initially16 ng/mL. The current level is 6 ng/mL. How would the nurse evaluate this change?
A) The patient's treatment for cancer is effective.
B) The patient's treatment regimen should be more aggressive.
C) The patient has a new cancer site.
D) The patient's cancer is gone.
Q3) The TNM classification system is being used to stage a patient's cancer. The nurse would plan to care for a patient with an advanced lesion spreading into adjacent organs if the primary tumor size (T) classification is T_____.
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Chapter 58: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With
Integumentary Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78600
Sample Questions
Q1) After assisting a patient to turn in bed, the nurse notes that the patient's leg has indentations that clearly show where the leg was supported by the nurse's hand. How would the nurse document this finding?
A) Pitting edema
B) Loss of skin elasticity
C) Increased skin turgor
D) Reduced sensation
Q2) While recording the health history, the nurse learns that a patient has worked at a landfill for the last 35 years. Why is this information important?
A) It reflects the patient's level of education.
B) The patient has had possible exposure to environmental toxins.
C) Patients who work out of doors are more likely to develop skin cancer.
D) The patient probably also uses tobacco.
Q3) Which technique would the nurse use to assess a patient's skin turgor?
A) Palpate the skin.
B) Grasp a fold of the patient's skin between the forefinger and thumb.
C) Determine the patient's fluid intake for past 2 hours.
D) Blanch the nail bed.
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Chapter 59: Caring for the Patient With Skin Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78599
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is counseling a patient who has atopic dermatitis (eczema) and has developed a secondary Staphylococcus aureus infection. To prevent this type of infection from recurring in the future, the nurse should recommend which action?
A) Apply an emollient to the area at least once daily.
B) Take antibiotics for 3 weeks of each month.
C) Take a warm shower each morning and again before bedtime.
D) Have allergy testing performed.
Q2) A patient is receiving the first ultraviolet light therapy treatment for psoriasis. What should the nurse include in this patient's teaching?. Select all that apply.
A) The skin will appear red after the treatment.
B) The patient will have one treatment a week for 6 months.
C) Clearing of lesions may take 7 weeks or more.
D) This is the treatment of choice for patients with psoriasis on 10% of the body.
E) A photosensitizing medication may be given before the treatment.
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Chapter 60: Caring for the Patient With Wounds
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78598
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been admitted with a lower leg ulcer. Which findings would suggest to the nurse that care specific to a venous ulcer should be planned?. Select all that apply.
A) The area around the ulcer is crusted and edematous.
B) There is copious drainage from the wound.
C) The ulcer area has a "punched-out" appearance with defined margins.
D) The area around the wound is spongy.
E) The patient reports working in an occupation that requires lots of sitting.
Q2) A patient with a severe laceration was malnourished before the injury. Which nursing interventions are indicated?. Select all that apply.
A) Encourage intake of vitamin C-containing foods.
B) Ensure that the patient consumes probiotic-enhanced dairy products.
C) Administer appropriate medications with a canned nutritional drink.
D) Restrict fluids that contain sodium.
E) Limit the fats in the patient's diet.
Q3) A patient with diabetes presents with an ulcer on the end of the great toe. Assessment reveals gangrene extending to the base of the toe. The nurse would evaluate this ulcer as matching criteria for grade ____ on the Wagner Ulcer Grade Classification System.
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Chapter 61: Caring for the Patient With Burn Injuries
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78597
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing a patient for discharge from the hospital following a major burn injury. The nurse would consider which pathophysiology when developing a plan for the patient's nutrition?
A) The hypermetabolic state is only present in the emergency and acute phases of burn care.
B) The hypermetabolic state continues until all the wounds are healed.
C) The major dietary need after discharge is additional oral fluids.
D) The calorie intake should be decreased so the patient does not stress new tissue with weight gain.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who was overexposed to radiation during cancer treatment. The nurse plans care with the knowledge that which cells are most susceptible to this type of radiation injury?. Select all that apply.
A) Skin cells
B) Gastrointestinal tract cells
C) Bone marrow cells
D) Kidney cells
E) Muscle cells
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Chapter 62: Nursing Assessment of the Patient With
Sensory Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78596
Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient report would the nurse evaluate as indicating that changes in accommodation are occurring?
A) "I have noticed that it is more difficult for me to read signs when I am driving."
B) "I have pain behind my eyes."
C) "I have difficulty reading the newspaper."
D) "I get dizzy when watching television."
Q2) Using a pneumatoscope, the nurse discovers that a patient's tympanic membrane (TM) does not move. The nurse would conduct further assessment for which condition?
A) Rupture of the TM
B) Fluid behind the TM
C) Presence of an umbo
D) Nystagmus
Q3) The nurse is conducting the whisper test. Which nursing action is indicated?
A) Whisper directly into the patient's ears, one at a time.
B) Stand across the room from the patient.
C) Whisper words from 1 to 2 feet behind the patient.
D) Ask the patient to whisper a series of words.
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Page 64
Chapter 63: Caring for the Patient With Hearing and Balance Disorders
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78595
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a 75-year-old patient. Which patient statements would alert the nurse that the patient may have presbycusis?. Select all that apply.
A) "I have lots of earwax in my left ear."
B) "My ears ring all the time."
C) "I have a hard time hearing my granddaughter's voice."
D) "I just can't hear when the room is noisy."
E) "I woke up this morning unable to hear out my left ear."
Q2) During an otoscopic examination, the nurse notes a number of lumps in the patient's ear canal. Which assessment questions should the nurse ask?. Select all that apply.
A) "Have you noticed that you are not hearing as well?'
B) "Have you ever spent time in saltwater?"
C) "Do you frequently wear earbuds or earphones?"
D) "Have you ever been a surfer?"
E) "Do you clean your ear with a cotton-tipped applicator?"
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65
Chapter 64: Caring for the Patient With Visual Disorders
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78594
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being discharged after cataract surgery. The nurse evaluates that the patient understands discharge instructions when the patient says, "I should not pick up anything that weighs more than _______ pounds."
Q2) The nurse is conducting assessment of a patient's eye. Which instrument would the nurse obtain to measure intraocular pressure?
A) Snellen chart
B) Ophthalmoscope
C) Tonometer
D) Penlight
Q3) A patient has been diagnosed with primary glaucoma. What information would the nurse provide about this condition?
A) It was probably caused by a congenital anomaly in the structure of the eye.
B) Primary glaucoma is not as serious as other forms of glaucoma.
C) The disorder has no relation to other ocular conditions.
D) This condition is the result of conjunctival infections in childhood.
Q4) The nurse is admitting a patient for laser photocoagulation treatment of diabetic retinopathy. The nurse would immediately contact the health care provider if the patient's diastolic blood pressure is above _______ mmHg.
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Page 66
Chapter 65: Disaster Nursing
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78593
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse manager has determined that critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) is necessary for staff members who provided care after a multivehicle accident that resulted in serious injury to 10 children and 8 adults. The manager should ensure that this session starts within ______ hours of the incident.
Q2) The nurse is planning to attend a program to learn how to respond to mass casualty incidents. The nurse anticipates this program will address which core competencies of emergency and disaster preparedness for nurses?. Select all that apply.
A) Creative problem-solving skills
B) Adherence to standard protocols and policies
C) Emergency communication skills
D) Understanding of personal limitations
E) Identification of emergency situations
Q3) A patient has been prescribed 400 mg ciprofloxacin IV for anthrax prophylaxis. The pharmacy has sent a 1 gram vial of ciprofloxacin to the nursing unit to be diluted with 10 mL of sodium chloride. The nurse should administer ____ mL.
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Chapter 66: Caring for the Patient in the Emergency Department
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78592
Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient statement would the nurse evaluate as reflecting the current trend in use of the emergency department? Select all that apply.
A) "I had to wait for 3 hours to be seen for my head cold."
B) "My dad had to stay in the ED overnight until a bed was available in the intensive care unit."
C) "I wanted to go to an ED across town, but they aren't accepting any ambulance patients right now."
D) "The lady in the office told me I should go somewhere else for care, but I am just too sick."
E) "The waiting room is packed with people who are sneezing and coughing."
Q2) A patient is admitted to the emergency department with multiple wounds inflicted by an unknown assailant. What action should the nurse take?
A) Clean and dress the wounds as soon as initial assessment is completed.
B) Dispose of bloody clothing in a biohazard bag.
C) Change gloves often during patient care.
D) Keep evidence in the patient's room until it is released to authorities.
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Chapter 67: Caring for the Patient With Multisystem
Trauma
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78591
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was brought to the ED after falling from a tree. The patient has an open femur fracture and is bleeding from several lacerations across the abdomen and chest. The patient cannot remember what happened, the skin is cool and pale, and the femoral pulses are weak. Which nursing interventions are necessary? Select all that apply.
A) Notify the health care provider immediately.
B) Start two large-bore IV lines if not already in place.
C) Apply pressure to bleeding wounds.
D) Apply a splint to the injured leg.
E) Place the patient on oxygen.
Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle crash. Which assessment would indicate to the nurse that FAST examination will likely be necessary?Select all that apply.
A) Ecchymoses over the abdomen
B) Complaint of neck pain
C) Report of head-on crash in which the patient was the restrained driver
D) Lower leg lacerations and fractures
E) Complaints of chest wall tenderness
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