Professional Issues in Surgical Nursing Test Bank
Course Introduction
This course explores the multifaceted professional and ethical issues encountered in surgical nursing practice. It emphasizes the development of critical thinking, decision-making, and leadership skills necessary for safe and effective perioperative care. Topics include legal and ethical responsibilities, patient advocacy, interdisciplinary collaboration, cultural competence, and strategies for navigating complex healthcare environments. Through case studies and real-world scenarios, students will analyze contemporary challenges such as informed consent, confidentiality, and quality improvement, preparing them to uphold professional standards and deliver holistic patient-centered care in the surgical setting.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 16th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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30 Chapters
749 Verified Questions
749 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1853 Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37030
Sample Questions
Q1) Emerging perioperative nursing roles are defined by the tremendous growth in science and technology combined with the increasing complexity of surgery and the interventional disciplines.An example of an emerging nursing role is:
A) sterile processing clinical specialist.
B) general surgery service liaison.
C) weekend resource nurse.
D) informatics nurse specialist.
Answer: D
Q2) Perioperative nursing diagnoses and interventions are directed toward,and guided by,the tremendous risks for harm to the patient inherent in surgery and interventional procedures; therefore,nursing actions can generally be categorized as:
A) therapeutic/restorative.
B) preventive/protective.
C) caring/comforting.
D) advocating/justifying.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37031
Sample Questions
Q1) The OR is a danger-prone area for both patients and staff.Providing a safe environment of care for the patient involves identifying,mitigating,and managing the hazards inherent in surgical care.Choose the answer below that completes the blanks in this sentence: the risk of the surgical hazard of _________________ can be mitigated through _______________________.
A) wrong patient, wrong site, and wrong side surgery; site marking and presurgical checklists
B) electrical and thermal burns; alcohol-free prep solution
C) surgical site infection; flash sterilization
D) surgical airway fire; fire extinguishers in every OR
Answer: A
Q2) In the perioperative environment,patient hand offs occur at multiple points during the continuum of care.Best practices for patient hand offs include:
A) completing urgent tasks before beginning the hand-over process.
B) tailoring communication steps as needed to manage efficiency.
C) using a structured tool to facilitate consistency.
D) using a broad definition for hand offs.
E) integrating technology into the hand-off process.
Answer: A,C,D,E
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37032
Sample Questions
Q1) Elevated noise levels and distractions in the OR can make communication difficult and may impact patient safety.Behavioral noise reduction strategies may include:
A) implementing a No Interruption Zone (NIZ) during the preprocedure time-out.
B) counting instruments quietly after the patient enters the room.
C) playing music softly.
D) turning off alarms.
Answer: A
Q2) Contact with infected patients or infectious material places healthcare workers at risk for occupational-acquired infection.Which communicable disease are healthcare workers most commonly at risk for acquiring or transmitting?
A) Hepatitis B
B) HIV
C) Seasonal influenza
D) Hepatitis C
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Infection Prevention and Control
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which glove lubricant,used to facilitate easy donning,is considered a best practice?
A) Sterile talcum powder
B) Sterile corn starch powder
C) Sterile silicone powder
D) Nothing; glove lubricant is not recommended
Q2) To protect the forearms,hands,and clothing from contacting bacteria on the outside of the used gown and gloves,members of the scrubbed surgical team should use the following procedure to remove soiled gowns and gloves.Which choice lists the appropriate first three steps in the removal of the sterile gown?
A) Wipe gloves clean, untie side gown closure, grasp gown at one shoulder seam
B) Wipe gloves clean, grasp gown at both shoulder seams, pull over and off arms
C) Unfasten gown back closures, grasp gown at one shoulder seam, pull down over both arms and gloves while everting glove cuffs
D) Grasp both gown shoulders, slide gown down over arms, grasp gloves inside gown sleeves and pull gown and gloves off together.
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6
Chapter 5: Anesthesia
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37034
Sample Questions
Q1) A registered nurse working in a busy free-standing ambulatory surgery center has additional documented competency in providing an anesthesia modality to healthy patients having screening colonoscopies,bronchoscopies,and upper gastrointestinal (GI)endoscopies.This modality will allow this patient population to tolerate potentially uncomfortable procedures while maintaining their own airway and be easily aroused from light sleep.The nurse is competent and legally qualified to provide which modality of anesthesia?
A) Monitored anesthesia care (MAC)
B) Local infiltration
C) Moderate sedation/analgesia
D) Procedural narcosis
Q2) Whenever regional anesthesia is used,resuscitative equipment and drugs must be immediately available and the patient monitored for any substantial change in vital signs or untoward reactions.An example of a risk with regional anesthesia is:
A) temporary numbness distal to the injection.
B) temporary loss of motor function distal to the injection.
C) intravascular injection of the anesthetic agent.
D) diminished pain along nerve pathways.
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Chapter 6: Positioning the Patient for Surgery
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37035
Sample Questions
Q1) The circulating nurse instructed the new anesthesia resident in the proper positioning of the arm and hands on the OR bed arm boards.She cautioned him to avoid pressure on the elbow to prevent:
A) ulnar nerve injury.
B) radial artery tension.
C) radial nerve compression.
D) pressure sore of the elbow.
Q2) Select the nursing activity that would reduce the impact of an extrinsic factor that could cause a pressure injury to the patient.
A) Assisting the anesthesia provider with checking and hanging albumin before anesthesia induction
B) Washing the patient's back, heels, scapulae, and elbows with chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) wipes before transfer to the OR bed
C) Fluffing the surface of the OR bed with warm bath blankets and egg crate foam before patient transfer to the OR bed
D) Removing all but one layer of linen from the dry polymer elastomer gel mattress surface of the OR bed before patient transfer
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Chapter 7: Sutures, sharps, and Instruments
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All perioperative team members are responsible for the prevention of retained surgical items (RSIs).Unintentionally retained surgical items are felt to be completely preventable "never events." Variables associated with increased RSI risk include:
A) estimated blood loss greater than 500 mL.
B) elevated BMI.
C) an incorrect surgical count.
D) staff change.
E) involvement of more than one surgical team.
Q2) The circulating nurse received the trauma call from the emergency department (ED)and called sterile supply to assemble the instruments for an abdominal trauma case with possible aortic rupture.When the cart arrived,she saw the vascular set; however,the most important instrument set was missing.What important instrument set was needed for this procedure besides the vascular set?
A) Intestinal clamps
B) Basic laparotomy set
C) Basic laparoscopy set
D) Minor set
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Chapter 8: Surgical Modalities
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neonate has burns over 45% of his body from a scalding incident.He was prepared for surgical fasciotomy for ensuing compartment syndrome of his legs and trunk.In planning for the use of electrosurgery,the perioperative nurse's assessment revealed a limited surface area for the dispersive electrode,and the appropriate choice was made to use the:
A) dispersive pad cut in half to the upper unburned back.
B) large capacitive coupling pad under the neonate.
C) adhesive pad wrapped circumferentially around the arm.
D) battery-operated eye cautery and silver nitrate sticks.
Q2) Direct coupling during the use of monopolar electrosurgery is caused by __________ and is usually within the control of the ______.
A) metal-to-metal sparking; the scrub person
B) metal to tissue; the scrub person
C) active burns; the surgeon
D) metal-to-metal sparking; the surgeon
Q3) The light transmission through a fiberoptic endoscope is achieved by way of:
A) a charge-coupled device chip in the tip of the scope.
B) a chain of small connected micro light bulbs.
C) bundles of glass rods.
D) electrified silicon cables.
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Chapter 9: Wound Healing, dressings, and Drains
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37038
Sample Questions
Q1) Also known as vacuum-assisted closure (VAC),negative-pressure wound therapy (NPWT)is used for difficult to manage wounds that do not respond to traditional wound care methods.What wounds are appropriate for this therapy?
A) Acute and traumatic wounds
B) Necrotic tissue with eschar present
C) Skin flaps
D) Meshed skin grafts
E) Malignant wounds
Q2) A 48-year-old tetraplegic with a chronic sacral wound is scheduled for wound debridement.What is the purpose of doing a wound debridement on a chronic wound?
A) The debridement will stimulate circulation and promote healing.
B) The debridement will prevent the growth of parasitic maggots.
C) The debridement will remove dead tissue that could support infection.
D) Debridement creates a nidus that nourishes and supports healing.
Q3) Which statement best reflects the appropriate purpose of a surgical drain?
A) Drains can prevent the development of deep wound infections.
B) Drains allow optimal observation of the incisional site.
C) Drains provide a portal for antibiotic irrigation.
D) Drains can provide opportunities for wound aeration.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37039
Sample Questions
Q1) Delirium is described as an extreme disturbance of arousal,attention,orientation,perception,affect,and intellectual function accompanied by fear and agitation.What is the most common cause of postoperative agitation?
A) Organic brain disease
B) Hypoxemia
C) Preoperative anxiety
D) Excessive blood loss
Q2) Hypothermia is a common side effect of surgery and the perianesthesia setting.Which of the following interventions is most effective in normalizing and maintaining body temperature?
A) Prewarming patients in normothermia
B) Warming patients in hypothermia
C) Setting ambient OR and PACU temperatures to 65° to 75° F and using warming devices
D) Using warmed skin prep solution during surgery
E) Using continuous fluid-circulating blankets or warm-water mattresses
F) Reapplying warmed cotton blankets every 10 minutes
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Chapter 11: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37040
Sample Questions
Q1) Triangular orientation is a term used to describe the method used to provide instrument access to the anatomy during abdominal surgery.It is uniquely associated with which surgical incision?
A) Mid-epigastric transverse incision
B) Left paramedian incision
C) Thoracoabdominal incision
D) Laparoscopic port incisions
Q2) During a laparoscopic colectomy,the scrub person carefully placed the endoscopic electrosurgery instruments on the Mayo stand after inspecting the integrity of the insulation along the shaft.This practice is designed to meet the expectation for the following nursing outcome: the patient will be free from injury due to:
A) impaired thermoregulation.
B) thermal burns and adhesions.
C) impaired tissue integrity.
D) thermal burns and adhesions and impaired tissue integrity.
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13
Chapter
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The biliary system (also called the biliary tree)drains bile from the gallbladder to the ampulla of Vater.The primary function of the gallbladder is to:
A) manufacture bile.
B) convert bile salts into bile enzymes.
C) store and concentrate bile.
D) contract to secrete bile into the hepatic duct.
Q2) What technologic characteristic of robotic surgery provides a superior indication for robotic-assisted laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
A) The surgeon controls two instruments plus a camera while the assistant suctions and retracts.
B) Bladeless robotic trocars minimize entry injury and inadvertent hemorrhage.
C) It provides a 360-degree range of motion, extending surgeon skill.
D) Robotic stapler and suture devices promote intracorporeal anastomotic techniques.
Q3) Open common bile duct (CBD)exploration may be indicated in some cases where:
A) the patient has undergone prior biliary surgery.
B) a positive cholangiogram shows an obstruction in the pancreatic duct.
C) endoscopic, percutaneous, or laparoscopic techniques are possible.
D) computerized tomography (CT) reveals a hepatic duct less than 4 mm in size.
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Chapter 13: Hernia Repair
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37042
Sample Questions
Q1) An 86-year-old retired plumber states that he has suffered from a groin hernia all of his adult life; he states,"as far back as I can remember." Sometimes he has to push the bulge back into his abdominal wall and then he is fine until he has a coughing spell.This morning the bulge was large and tender when he woke up,and he could not reduce it.As the pain increased,he felt weak and nauseated.His daughter took him to the emergency department (ED).The patient was diagnosed with a strangulated incarcerated hernia and scheduled for emergency surgery.If the contents of the patient's hernia sac become compromised,with strangulation of the bowel,the probable label on his surgical specimen will be:
A) compromised bowel.
B) strangulated bowel.
C) necrotic bowel.
D) intestinal obstruction.
Q2) The mesh-plug open hernia repair technique is indicated for which type(s)of hernias?
A) Umbilical hernias
B) Indirect gastroesophageal hernias
C) Direct and indirect inguinal hernias
D) Strangulated scrotal hernias
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Chapter 14: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37043
Sample Questions
Q1) What classification of drugs are gynecologic/obstetric-related medications that require monitoring of blood pressure,assessment for continued bleeding,and monitoring of fundal response to the drug?
A) Oxytocics
B) Tocolytics
C) Antimetabolites
D) Cytotoxics
Q2) During cesarean delivery,which is the priority instrument or device needed as soon as the fetal head is delivered?
A) Broad Deaver or bladder blade retractor
B) Umbilical cord clamp
C) Bulb syringe or aspirator tip
D) Sponge forceps with folded gauze sponge
Q3) From the list below,select the statement that is true about fallopian tube cancer.
A) Fallopian tube cancer metastasizes to the ovaries and cervix.
B) Fallopian tube cancer is fast-growing in women with genital herpes.
C) Fallopian tube cancer is very rare, with an incidence of less than 1%.
D) Fallopian tube cancer is seen primarily as a metastasis from the small intestine.
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Chapter 15: Genitourinary Surgery
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37044
Sample Questions
Q1) Each potential kidney transplant recipient is judged individually as a candidate.Which condition would most likely eliminate a patient as a candidate for kidney transplant?
A) Mild systemic disease
B) Diabetes
C) Posttreatment cancer in remission
D) Active cancer
Q2) The PSA test is a serum lab test for prostate-specific antigen.If the test value is elevated,the patient is at risk for carcinoma of the prostate; a PSA value greater than 10 ng/mL is highly suggestive of prostatic carcinoma.Tissue from a transrectal prostate biopsy provides the cellular information to confirm the diagnosis.The American Urological Association (AUA)prostate cancer staging tool essentially provides which important information about the tissue specimen?
A) Prostate cancer stages of severity
B) Indications for selecting appropriate intervention
C) Prognosis and potential for recovery
D) Men who are at the greatest risk for prostate cancer
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Chapter 16: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37045
Sample Questions
Q1) Thyroid surgery is considered surgery of the head and neck.There is a high risk for surgical fires because of the proximity of all three components of the fire triangle.Select the statement that best reflects an appropriate nursing action to prevent a surgical fire.
A) Do not use self-adherent tape strips; they do not adequately seal the operative site from anesthetic vapors that may have leaked.
B) If bedsheets or towels become soaked with flammable prep solution, allow them to dry completely before surgery begins.
C) Ensure that the patient's skin is totally dry and all fumes from the prep solution have dissipated before draping.
D) Determine fire risk score during the postprocedure debriefing.
Q2) An example of antithyroid drugs that would be administered during a thyroid storm crisis would be:
A) sodium iodide solution and Lugol's solution.
B) propylthiouracil and methimazole.
C) guanethidine and ipodate sodium.
D) propranolol and lithium.
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18
Chapter 17: Breast Surgery
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37046
Sample Questions
Q1) Breast cancer is usually staged to measure the extent of the disease and to design a specific treatment plan,using the TNM (T = tumor; N = node; M = metastasis)classification system.Review the list below and select the option that most closely describes a stage 0 carcinoma in situ (CIS).
A) Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) has abnormal cells lining the lobule and often becomes invasive.
B) Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is defined as abnormal cells lining the ductal system and is not invasive.
C) LCIS has abnormal cells infiltrating the lobule and often does not become invasive.
D) DCIS has abnormal cells lining the ductal system and is often invasive.
Q2) Identify the marginal boundaries of the breasts.
A) Second to fifth rib horizontally, lateral edge of sternum to midclavicular line
B) Second to sixth rib horizontally, midsternum to midclavicular line
C) Second to sixth rib horizontally, lateral edge of sternum to anterior axillary line
D) Second to fifth rib horizontally, lateral edge of sternum to midaxillary line
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Chapter 18: Ophthalmic Surgery
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37047
Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing for pars plana vitrectomy in the posterior segment,the perioperative nurse must be aware that a combined scleral buckling procedure may be necessary.Other important information the perioperative nurse should know before preparing the OR for the procedure includes the location of the ocular problem,the surgeon's plan to address the problem,and the instrumentation and biomedical equipment and devices to be used.Technologic advances in ophthalmic surgery require that perioperative nurses be familiar with complex biomedical equipment.A best practice,stated below,relevant to the safe use of complex equipment would be to:
A) determine the presence and appropriate date (not expired) of the biomedical monitoring label.
B) confirm competence through inservice education and training specific to new equipment.
C) schedule the manufacturer's representative to be present to provide technical support.
D) schedule the biomedical clinical engineer to check all equipment before each procedure.
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Chapter 19: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37048
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the structure of the trachea that is a landmark during bronchoscopy.
A) Cartilaginous ring
B) Cricoid cartilage
C) Carina
D) Right main bronchus
Q2) A stapedotomy is removal of the stapes superstructure and creation of a fenestra (opening)in the fixed stapes footplate for treatment of abnormal bone growth around the footplate that results in its immobility.A prosthesis is placed to restore ossicular continuity and alleviate conductive hearing loss.The patient scheduled for a stapedotomy will probably have a surgical diagnosis of:
A) otosclerosis.
B) ossicular stenosis.
C) indeterminate hearing loss.
D) ossicular interruption.
Q3) Of the three salivary glands,which one is the largest?
A) Sublingual
B) Submandibular
C) Zygomatic
D) Parotid
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Orthopedic Surgery
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37049
Sample Questions
Q1) Paget's disease is a disorder affecting older adults.The bones are weak and poorly constructed.This degenerative process results in:
A) weak and nonsupported bone matrix.
B) replacement of cancellous bone with cortical bone.
C) rapid, disorganized bone remodeling.
D) immature bone cells with airspaces.
Q2) Osteoporosis is one of the most common and serious bone diseases and is responsible for more than 2 million fractures a year.Osteoporosis-related fractures most commonly occur in the hip,spine,and wrist,but any bone can be affected.The excessive reduction of total bone mass in osteoporosis is due to:
A) the loss of calcified matrix and collagenous fibers.
B) the lack of exercise and weight-bearing physical activity.
C) the loss of estrogen and testosterone.
D) the loss of calcium or vitamin D.
Q3) Identify the layer of connective tissue that covers all bone.
A) Periosteum
B) Ligament
C) Cartilage
D) Fascia
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Neurosurgery
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most patients will have undergone diagnostic procedures before arriving in the neurosurgery OR.Radiologic and other diagnostic studies are of great significance to the surgical team for determining a surgical diagnosis and developing a plan for treatment.Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)is the gold standard imaging scan for the diagnosis of tumors,abscesses,tissue/ligamentous injury,and disk herniation.Which three diagnostic tests of neurologic activity can be performed before surgery and also concurrently during the procedure?
A) Stereotactic computed tomography (CT) scan
B) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
C) Stereotactic MRI
D) Ultrasound
E) Evoked potentials (EPs)
F) Myelogram
Q2) An important area of the brain that is critical for learning and memory is the ___________,while emotion and social behavior are regulated by the
A) parahippocampal gyri; limbic system
B) amygdala; cingulate
C) hypothalamus; septum
D) hippocampus; amygdala
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Reconstructive and Aesthetic Plastic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 49-year-old post-bariatric surgery patient is scheduled for a VASER®-assisted liposuction with tumescent infiltration.The tumescent is a solution of lactated Ringer's,lidocaine,and epinephrine.The perioperative nurse is aware that using more than 70 mL/kg of wetting solution for infiltration can lead to fluid overload.Select the most appropriate nursing action related to minimizing the risk of tumescent solution overload or disproportion to lipoaspirate.
A) The nurse will monitor the patient for syncope, cough, and bounding pulse.
B) The nurse will keep the tumescent solution cool and monitor fluid volumes.
C) The nurse will communicate and verify with the surgeon and/or anesthesia provider the total lipoaspirate and volume of wetting solution used.
D) The nurse will titrate the flow rate of the tumescent solution in coordination with aspirate outflow.
Q2) During the planning phase of a procedure for liposuction,the perioperative nurse will assemble and organize supplies and devices,because the procedure may require:
A) repositioning one or more times during surgery.
B) meticulous accounting of fluid loss and blood replacement.
C) the use of implant material.
D) patient transfer to an alternating-pressure bed.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of all the equipment,tools,and studies available during the patient's preoperative diagnostic phase,which exam is the most indispensable diagnostic tool to outline thoracic lesions and define space-occupying nature and shape?
A) Virtual bronchoscopy
B) Ultrasound
C) Chest X-ray
D) Computed tomography (CT) scan
Q2) Patients with lung cancer may have specific treatment based on their tumor,node,and metastasis (TNM)characteristics.An example of a true statement about the TNM system is:
A) the cancer staging system is based on the TNM findings.
B) the TNM system is based on the staging classification.
C) nodal involvement refers to a second primary lung cancer tumor.
D) a patient with T , N0, M0 has a benign tumor.
Q3) What is the ideal position for bronchoscopy?
A) Supine
B) Left semilateral
C) Supine with a shoulder roll
D) Semi-Fowler with neck extended
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug is used to reverse,or neutralize,the effects of heparin?
A) Prostigmine
B) Promethazine
C) Protamine sulfate
D) Prothrombin
Q2) Patients with acute arterial insufficiency with occlusion usually present with the onset of the six P's: sudden severe pain,pulselessness,paresthesia,paralysis,pallor,and poikilothermia (coolness)of an extremity.This occlusion can be the result of which condition?
A) Atrial tachycardia
B) Rupture of an unstable atherosclerotic plaque
C) Asystole
D) Hypothermia
Q3) Heparin sodium is an anticoagulant.The basic mechanism of heparin's action is best described as:
A) blocking the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and fibrinogen to fibrin.
B) acting as an enzyme by lysing the fibrin-thrombin matrix.
C) extending the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT).
D) dissolving and liquefying existing blood clots and thromboemboli.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Cardiac Surgery
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37054
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the diagnostic test that represents an invasive cardiac study.
A) Resting multiple-gated acquisition (MUGA)
B) Exercise MUGA
C) Cardiac function
D) Electrophysiology studies
Q2) Formerly,ventricular assist devices (VADs)were reserved for those patients who could not be weaned from CPB after open-heart operations,or who had end-stage cardiomyopathy.Current indications and choices have expanded,and a variety of active and passive devices are available to support circulation for short-,intermediate-,and long-term use.Select the statement that best reflects the implications for a patient with a VAD.
A) The newer devices have eliminated bleeding complications.
B) The VAD augments cardiac output from the right, left, or both ventricles.
C) Patients with VADs benefit from enhanced catabolism and cellular nutrition.
D) The artificial pump of the VAD increases the workload of the heart.
Q3) Which statements regarding vascular clamps are true?
A) Vascular clamps are designed to partially occlude blood flow.
B) Vascular clamps are designed to totally occlude blood flow.
C) Vascular clamps are designed to hold vessels securely without trauma.
D) Vascular clamps have similar angles, box locks, ring handles, and ratchets.
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Chapter 26: Pediatric Surgery
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/37055
Sample Questions
Q1) During the planning process,the perioperative nurse determines nursing interventions that will assist in meeting the appropriate goal statement of the desired nursing outcome.What nursing interventions are appropriate,when implemented,in protecting the pediatric patient from hypothermia?
A) Keep the child covered as much as possible.
B) Adjust room temperature approximately 1 hour before arrival of the child.
C) Provide a radiant heat lamp during anesthesia induction.
D) Administer antibiotic prophylaxis.
Q2) Infants and children with severe gastroesophageal (GE)reflux can have life-threatening complications,including obstructive apnea,aspiration pneumonia,esophagitis,and failure to thrive.What is the name of the procedure,performed open or laparoscopically,that is designed to create a competent antireflux barrier?
A) Nissen fundoplication
B) Esophagectomy
C) Pyloromyotomy with pyloroplasty
D) Sphincterotomy
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Chapter 27: Geriatric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ethical consideration with older surgical patients centers on the dilemma of do not resuscitate (DNR)orders.When considering the decision to maintain or suspend DNR orders prior to surgery,the guiding principle should be to:
A) seek legal consultation through the facility ethics department.
B) facilitate the family to collaborate on consensus.
C) respect the patient's autonomy.
D) develop a facility-wide policy for either suspension or maintaining of DNR orders.
Q2) Factors in the evaluation of the older surgical patient are assessing cognitive ability and capacity,risk for postoperative delirium,screening for alcohol and substance abuse,documentation of functional status including falls,nutritional status,and understanding of treatment goals and expectations and their family/social support system.The Mini-Cog test can be used as a tool for:
A) assessing nutritional status.
B) assessing cognitive impairment.
C) determining fall risk.
D) screening for alcohol/substance abuse.
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Chapter 28: Trauma Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adult man was the victim of a low-velocity,low-caliber gunshot wound to the anterior left quadrant of the lower abdomen.The gun was shot at far range.What is the trajectory of the gunshot?
A) Small entrance wound with blast injury to the left sigmoid colon and large exit wound
B) Large entrance wound with complete transection of the left colon and no exit wound
C) Large entrance wound with possible injury to left quadrant vessels and contusion of anterior sigmoid colon
D) Small entrance wound with no exit wound; energy is dissipated to the tissues
Q2) The emergency medical services system consists of trained prehospital personnel who arrive at the scene and perform definitive interventions designed to reduce morbidity and mortality.What is the primary role of the prehospital personnel?
A) Scoop and run to the nearest hospital ED while performing ABCs.
B) Deliver the victim to the hospital before the end of the golden hour.
C) Determine the severity of injury and initiate medical treatment.
D) Identify the most appropriate facility to which to transport the victim.
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Chapter 29: Interventional and Image-Guided Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The new neuroangiography interventional room has a biplane configuration.What is the correct description of a biplane configuration?
A) It has an elevated platform for conversion to cardiac angiography.
B) It has two C-arms-one on the ceiling and one on the floor.
C) It has three-dimensional fluoroscopy imaging.
D) It can acquire images from more than three reference points at the same time.
Q2) Angiography uses fluoroscopy and contrast to image anatomic and pathologic changes in vascular anatomy.What is an example of coronary angiography?
A) Ventriculography
B) Peripherally inserted central catheter insertion
C) Balloon-occluded retrograde obliteration
D) Peripheral vascular stent placement
Q3) The IR procedure that is used to correct a blocked or narrowed blood vessel and restore flow is called:
A) angioplasty.
B) venoplasty.
C) venogram.
D) Seldinger technique.
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Chapter 30: Integrative Health Practices: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Q1) Anesthesiologists recommend that patients stop taking any herbal supplements before surgery to prevent adverse herb-drug interactions.How long before surgery should the patient stop taking herbal supplements?
A) 5 days
B) 10 days
C) 2 weeks
D) 3 weeks
Q2) Select the true statement that best differentiates biofields from electromagnetic fields.
A) Electromagnetic fields are generated from sources of earth energy, while biofields originate from animal or plant life.
B) The body produces biofields from body hormone secretions, while electromagnetic fields are produced from body electrolytes.
C) Biofields originate from within the body, while electromagnetic fields are from outside of the body.
D) Electromagnetic fields are produced within the body by nerve/muscle interactions (e.g., sinoatrial [SA] and atrioventricular [AV] node), while biofields are micronerve plexuses that distribute sensory perceptions.
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