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Professional Ethics in Psychology explores the fundamental ethical principles, standards, and codes guiding professional behavior within the field of psychology. This course examines the ethical dilemmas and challenges practitioners may encounter in various settings, such as clinical, counseling, research, and organizational environments. Students will analyze real-world scenarios and case studies to develop critical thinking and ethical decision-making skills, emphasizing issues like confidentiality, informed consent, dual relationships, cultural competence, and the responsibilities owed to clients, colleagues, and society. The course also addresses the role of professional organizations and the importance of ongoing ethical education to uphold the integrity of psychological practice.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Clinical Psychology 4th Edition by John Hunsley
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Q1) Projective tests rely on _______ while the MMPI relies on __________
A) clinical judgement; clinical judgement and statistical analysis.
B) clinical judgement and statistical analysis; clinical judgement.
C) the judgement of psychiatrists; the judgement of psychologists.
D) the judgement of psychologists; the judgement of psychiatrists.
Answer: A
Q2) Traditional distinctions between clinical and counselling psychologists are currently A) shrinking.
B) increasing.
C) the same as they have always been.
D) a topic of intense debate.
Answer: A
Q3) Psychiatrists generally receive
A) the same amount of training in research as do clinical psychologists.
B) far less training in research than do clinical psychologists.
C) more training in research than do clinical psychologists.
D) a different type of research training than do clinical psychologists.
Answer: B
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Q1) The purpose of a Ph.D.or Psy.D.program having accreditation is to ensure that the training program
A) maintains its enrolment to produce enough clinical psychologists to meet the population's needs.
B) maintains standards that meet the profession's expectations for the education of clinical psychologists.
C) maintains high standards for acceptance of students.
D) does not overload students with needless courses and excessive clinical training.
Answer: B
Q2) The Examination for Professional Practice in Psychology:
A) is designed to identify candidates suitable for graduate training in psychology.
B) is a Canadian exam that is used by accredited programs.
C) is used in North America by licensing bodies in psychology.
D) focuses mainly on assessment, intervention & consultation.
Answer: C
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Q1) A DSM diagnosis with questionable validity is:
A) Schizophrenia.
B) Bipolar disorder.
C) Acute stress disorder.
D) Selective mutism.
Answer: C
Q2) What is a diagnostic system of classification? How does a diagnostic system of classification differ from a diagnosis?
Answer: Suggested answer:
a.Diagnostic system: classification based on rules used to organize and understand diseases and disorders.
b.Diagnosis: the result of applying the decision-making rules of a diagnostic system to the symptoms of a specific individual.
Q3) Longitudinal studies can inform us about which of the following?
A) Variables that predict mental disorders.
B) Individual differences in the emergence and development of mental disorders.
C) Maintenance and course of mental disorders.
D) All of the above.
Answer: D
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Q1) The major weakness of the case study method is that A) most threats to internal validity cannot be addressed.
B) it is very difficult to achieve inter-rater reliability.
C) it favours internal validity over external validity.
D) it favours external validity over internal validity.
Q2) The loss of participants in a study over time is known as A) regression.
B) operationalization.
C) attrition.
D) maturation.
Q3) Changes in the participants due to their psychological or physical development that cannot be separated from the experimental manipulation is known as A) testing.
B) statistical regression.
C) attrition.
D) maturation.
Q4) According to the American Psychological Association Ethical Principles for Research and Publication,when is it justified to use deception in research?
Q5) What is a randomized controlled trial?
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Q1) Lambert et al.(2003)found that treatment monitoring
A) worsened treatment outcome by increasing distraction and self-consciousness among clinicians.
B) did not have any impact on treatment outcome.
C) affected treatment outcome in very few cases.
D) had the potential to substantially impact treatment outcome.
Q2) Describe sensitivity and specificity.
Q3) Sensitivity refers to the relative proportion of _________ identified by the assessment.
A) true positives
B) true negatives
C) false positives
D) false negatives
Q4) List at least five of the Competencies in Psychological Assessment Expected at the Point of Licensure
Q5) To be most useful,treatment planning should
A) focus only on short-term goals of treatment.
B) focus on intermediate goals of treatment.
C) focus on ultimate goals of treatment.
D) focus on both the intermediate and the ultimate goals of treatment.
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Q1) In conducting assessment interviews with children,psychologists now recognize that children
A) can provide important and reliable information.
B) are less reliable than adults in their reporting.
C) should only be interviewed if the information cannot be obtained from other sources.
D) can easily complete scaled-down versions of interviews developed for adults.
Q2) During a clinical interview,many psychologists find it useful to begin a discussion with
A) open-ended questions and follow up with closed questions to clarify details.
B) closed questions and follow up with open-ended questions to explore more topics.
C) a variety of closed and open-ended questions, depending on how much time there is.
D) closed ended questions and only ask open-ended questions for clarification.
Q3) The most widely used diagnostic interview in North America is the
A) Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-5 Disorders.
B) Structured Clinical Interview for Axis II Disorders.
C) Primary Care Evaluation of Professional Mental Disorders.
D) Dominic Interactive.
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Q1) What is declarative memory? Name and describe the two subtypes of declarative memory.
Q2) Semantic memory and episodic memory are subtypes of __________ memory. A) procedural
B) declarative
C) contextual
D) working
Q3) The Kaufman tests of intellectual ability focus more on
A) specific content areas that measure intellectual functioning.
B) general content areas that measure intellectual functioning.
C) process-based styles of learning.
D) none of the above.
Q4) Thurstone (1938)is known primarily for introducing
A) the concept of primary mental abilities.
B) a more hierarchical model of intelligence.
C) a theory of multiple intelligences.
D) an information processing model of intelligence.
Q5) What is the difference between a diagnosis of intellectual disability and a diagnosis of a learning disability?
Q6) How do Alfred Binet and David Wechsler's definitions of intelligence contrast? Page 9
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Q1) Name two benefits of the Personality Assessment Inventory (PAI).
Q2) Explain why the Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory-IV (and other self-report personality measures)have a tendency to overpathologize test-takers:
Q3) _________'s early theories postulated that the unconscious aspect of our personality is something that can be accessed through considerable conscious effort.
A) Freud
B) Jung
C) Wechsler
D) Rogers
Q4) The Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory-IV has the following limitation to its validity:
A) the normative sample was smaller than usual.
B) partly due to item overlap, the scale has a tendency to overpathologize individuals.
C) there is insufficient item overlap between scales to account for symptoms that appear in more than one disorder.
D) partly due to item overlap, the scale has a tendency to underestimate rates of pathology.
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Q1) In preparing an assessment report focused on treatment planning the psychologist should take into account:
A) potential barriers to treatment.
B) criteria for treatment termination or transfer to other service provider.
C) the service provider responsible for treatment implementation and evaluation.
D) all of the above.
Q2) What are the steps that psychologists can follow in developing a case formulation?
Q3) A case formulation generally consists of identifying (1)symptoms and problems,(2)pre-existing vulnerabilities,(3)stressors or events that contributes to symptoms,and (4):
A)alternative treatment options should the initial treatment be unsuccessful.
B)a mechanism that links all components and maintains the problem.
C)options to consider if difficulties are encountered in implementing and following through on treatment.
D)pre-disposing life events or triggers.
Q4) What is a self-serving attributional bias?
Q5) Why is it important for psychologists to be aware that data from multiple self-report tests and interviews are not independent sources?
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Q1) Incidence rate is defined most accurately as the number of
A)new cases of a specific problem.
B)cases of a specific problem.
C)cases not experiencing a specific problem.
D)new cases not experiencing a specific problem.
Q2) Universal preventive,selective preventive,and indicated preventive are three of the main types of:
A)clinical research programs
B)preventive programs
C)mental disorders
D)behavioural models.
Q3) According to the World Health Organization,mental health promotion activities are designed to increase
A)awareness of mental health issues within the population and decrease stigma associated with mental health disorders.
B)one's understanding of his/her own mental health issues.
C)well-being and resilience.
D)the integration of community-wide mental health services.
Q4) What is community psychology?
Q5) List at least three of the features of successful prevention programs.
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Q1) A limitation of John Norcross' definition of psychotherapy is that:
A)it does not specify that psychologists must deliver the services.
B)it does not focus adequately on feelings.
C)it ignores the patient's role in setting goals.
D)it does not address whether the treatment is evidence-based.
Q2) In CBT the most important changes are presumed to take place
A)in the first half of the session.
B)in the second half of the session.
C)in between sessions.
D)after the completion of all the treatment sessions.
Q3) Which of the following can be both a positive and negative aspect of group therapy?
A)Universality.
B)Modelling of behaviour.
C)Support.
D)Cost-effectiveness.
Q4) Define self-efficacy.What can self-efficacy predict that is relevant to cognitive-behaviour therapy?
Q5) On what basis did Barlow (2004)suggest that the terms psychological treatments and psychotherapy be differentiated?
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Q1) Smith,Glass,and Miller (1980)compared the effects of psychotherapy across different disorders and found that the largest effect sizes were found in the treatment of A)mood and anxiety problems.
B)certain personality disorders.
C)schizophrenia.
D)eating disorders.
Q2) Efficacious treatments are treatments that have been demonstrated within A)a clinical setting.
B)a controlled research study.
C)Both A and B
D)None of the above
Q3) The Canadian Psychological Association task force on evidence-based psychological services recommended that psychologists give the strongest weight to: A)syntheses of studies that balance internal and external validity.
B)expert consensus.
C)prior experience in treating a problem.
D)primary research that is high in internal and external validity.
Q4) What does conversion of data into effect sizes allow researchers to do?
Q5) Define benchmarking strategy.What is the main goal of this strategy?
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Q1) One of the methodological considerations of meta-analyses of psychological treatments for children and adolescents has centred on whether to include
A)behavioural and nonbehavioural variables.
B)both published and unpublished studies.
C)studies done on children under the age of 5.
D)children with conduct disorder.
Q2) Oppositional Defiant Disorder is based on
A)a pattern of serious violation of the rights of others that is evident before age 8.
B)a pattern of persistent negativistic and hostile behaviour usually evident before age 3.
C)a pattern of persistent negativistic and hostile behaviour usually evident before age 8.
D)a pattern of aggression,destructiveness,deceitfulness,and serious violation of rules.
Q3) Briefly describe Evidence-based Parenting Programs and Multisystemic Therapy (MST)programs.List one thing these programs have in common,and one way in which they are different.
Q4) Define psychoeducation.
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Q1) Define "common factors" in psychotherapy:
Q2) Who is credited as being the first person to identify a common set of therapeutic factors that inform the effectiveness of all approaches to psychotherapy?
A)Saul Rosenzweig.
B)Lester Luborsky.
C)John Norcross.
D)Jerome Frank.
Q3) To be effective in delivering psychological services,the psychologist must have
A)a large number of clients,interpersonal sensitivity,and tolerance for distress.
B)knowledge,technical skills,interpersonal sensitivity,and tolerance for distress.
C)knowledge,ability to put others first at all costs,technical skills,and tolerance for distress.
D)a large number of clients,ability to put other first at all costs,interpersonal sensitivity,tolerance for distress.
Q4) Provide two examples of variables that could be examined in process research and two examples of variables that could be examined in process-outcome research.
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Q1) When conducting assessments and interventions clinical health psychologists must A)be knowledgeable about the physical disorders from which their patients suffer.
B)consider psychological issues,such as the applicability of a mental disorder diagnosis in addition to a physical disorder.
C)consider the person's social context.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Data from the Canadian Disability Survey revealed that _____________was the most common disability in those aged over 65.
A)flexibility
B)mobility
C)pain
D)learning disability
Q3) Based on expert opinion on tests for forensic evaluations,the most highly recommended tool for assessing the risk of violence is the A)Violence Risk Appraisal Guide.
B)MCMI-II.
C)MMPI-2.
D)Psychopathy Checklist-Revised.
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