Product Management
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Course Introduction
Product Management is an interdisciplinary course designed to equip students with the essential knowledge and skills to successfully guide a product from initial concept to market launch and beyond. The course covers core topics such as product life cycle management, market research, user experience design, agile development methodologies, and go-to-market strategies. Through case studies, real-world projects, and collaborative exercises, students learn how to identify customer needs, develop product roadmaps, prioritize features, and work with cross-functional teams to deliver products that create value for both businesses and users. By the end of the course, students will have a comprehensive understanding of the product managers role and the critical tools needed to succeed in modern product-driven organizations.
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Marketing Research An Applied Orientation 6th Edition by Naresh K Malhotra
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Marketing Research
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Q1) Field service organizations are limited service suppliers that specialize in interviewing or specialize in collecting data through the mail or though personal or telephone interviewing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Analytical services include designing and pretesting questionnaires, determining the best means of collecting data, designing sampling plans, and conducting statistical analysis of quantitative data.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) Marketing research has often been described as having three stakeholders.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) DSS differs from MIS in that the DSS is more rigidly structured than the MIS.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Defining the Marketing Research Problem and Developing an Approach
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Q1) Which of the following statements about secondary data is true?
A)Secondary data are originated by the researcher for the specific purpose of addressing the research problem at hand.
B)Secondary data are an economical and quick source of background information.
C)Primary data should not be collected until the available secondary data have been fully analyzed.
D)Both B and C are true.
Answer: D
Q2) Which statement is true concerning defining the marketing research problem?
A)The definition should allow the researcher to obtain all the information needed to address the management decision problem.
B)The definition should guide the researcher in proceeding with the project.
C)The marketing research problem should be stated in broad, general terms with specific components identified.
D)All of the above are correct.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Research Design
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Q1) According to the text, the combination of research designs employed depends on the nature of the results desired.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) When conducting exploratory research, the focus of the investigation may shift constantly as new insights are discovered.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A major advantage of ________ over the cross-sectional design is the ability to detect change as a result of repeated measurement of the same variables on the same sample.
A)longitudinal design
B)descriptive research design
C)causal research design
D)conclusive research design
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Exploratory Research Design: Secondary Data
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Q1) Discuss the disadvantages of different types of scanner data.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of purchase panels (Table 4.3 in the text)?
A)household purchases recorded through electronic scanners in supermarkets
B)households provide specific information regularly over an extended period of time; respondents asked to record specific behaviors as they occur
C)verification of product movement by examining physical records or performing inventory analysis
D)data banks on industrial establishment created through direct inquiries of companies, clipping services, and corporate reports
Q3) ________ are databases composed of citations to articles in journals, magazines, newspapers, marketing research studies, technical reports, government documents, and the like.
A)Offline databases
B)Bibliographic databases
C)Online databases
D)Internet databases
Q4) List the criteria for evaluating secondary data (Table 4.2 in the text).
Q5) What are the major advantages of secondary internal data?
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Chapter 5: Exploratory Research Design: Qualitative Research
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Q1) Depth interviews uncover less depth of insights than focus groups.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Projective techniques generally require personal interviews with highly trained interviewers. This is an advantage of projective techniques.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing qualitative data. In this step, the researcher develops a visual interpretation of the data with the use of such tools as a diagram, chart or matrix.
A)Data display
B)Data reduction
C)Data determination
D)Conclusion drawing and verification
Q4) Data determination is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing qualitative data.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Descriptive Research Design: Survey and Observation
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Q1) Advantages of Web surveys over e-mail surveys include which of the following?
A)Graphs, images, animations, and links to other Web pages may be integrated into or around the survey.
B)It is possible to validate responses as they are entered.
C)Skip patterns can be programmed and performed automatically.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) ________ involves trained observers posing as consumers and shopping at company - or competitor-owned stores to collect data about customer-employee interaction and other marketing variables. (Choose the best answer.)
A)Personal observation
B)Structured observation
C)Mystery shopping
D)Contrived observation
Q3) A sampling frame is a representation of the elements of the target population.It consists of a list or set of directions for identifying the target population.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the personal interviewing methods.
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Chapter 7: Causal Research Design: Experimentation
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Q1) Which statement is not true about simulated test markets?
A)While a firm's test marketing is in progress, competitors have an opportunity to beat it to the national market.
B)Competitors often take actions such as increasing their promotional efforts to contaminate the test marketing program.
C)Both A and B are not true about simulated test markets.
D)They yield mathematical estimates of market share based on initial reaction of consumers to a new product.
Q2) ________ is a measure of accuracy of an experiment.It measures whether the manipulation of the independent variables, or treatments, actually caused the effects on the dependent variable(s).
A)External validity
B)Extraneous validity
C)Internal validity
D)None of the above
Q3) A field environment is synonymous with actual market conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly define internal and external validity.
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Chapter 8: Measurement and Scaling: Fundamentals and Comparative Scaling
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true about the comparative scales technique?
A)An example of using comparative scales is asking respondents to evaluate Coke on a 1 to 6 preference scale.
B)Comparative scale data must be interpreted in relative terms and have only ordinal or rank order properties.
C)Comparative scaling is also referred to as non-metric scaling.
D)Comparative scales include paired comparisons, rank order, and constant sum scales.
Q2) The benefits of comparative scaling includes all of the following except ________.
A)comparative scales involve fewer theoretical assumptions
B)comparative scales are easily understood and can be applied easily
C)comparative scales tend to reduce halo or carryover effects from one judgment to another
D)small differences between stimulus objects can be detected
Q3) The four basic scale characteristics are nominal, order, distance and origin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Measurement and Scaling: Noncomparative Scaling Techniques
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Q1) A ________ is a scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the middle of an even-numbered range of values, from -5 to +5, without a neutral point (zero).
A)semantic differential scale
B)Likert scale
C)continuous rating scale
D)Stapel scale
Q2) Reliability refers to the extent to which a scale produces valid results if repeated measurements are made.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which non-comparative scale is analyzed using profile analysis?
A)Likert scale
B)semantic differential scale
C)Stapel scale
D)all of the above
Q4) The Likert scale is also referred to as a summated scale.
A)True
B)False
11
Q5) Explain how continuous rating scales can be easily implemented on the Internet.
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Chapter 10: Questionnaire and Form Design
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Q1) Respondents that are unwilling to give responses should be given aids such as pictures, maps, and descriptions to help them articulate their responses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ refer to open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words.
A)Dichotomous questions
B)Structured questions
C)Unstructured questions
D)Branching questions
Q3) Qualifying questions should not serve as opening questions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Questions such as "What did you have for lunch a week ago?" are correct questions because consumers are very good at remembering quantities of products consumed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the guidelines for the placement of branching questions?
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Chapter 11: Sampling: Design and Procedures
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Q1) The sample size decision should be guided by certain qualitative considerations. Which of the following is not one of those considerations?
A)the resource constraints
B)the average size of samples in similar studies
C)the sampling technique to be used
D)the nature of the results
Q2) Probability sampling is used to select the initial respondents for snowball sampling.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Convenience sampling is the least expensive and least time consuming of all sampling techniques.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Only the nonprobability sampling techniques can be implemented using both types of Internet panels.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the uses of nonprobability and probability sampling.
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Chapter 12: Sampling: Final and Initial Sample Size
Determination
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Q1) When the sample size is 10 percent or more of the population size, the standard error formulas will overestimate the standard deviation of the population mean or proportion. Hence, these should be adjusted by a finite population correction factor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Survey System (www.surveysystem.com)and the Discovery Research Group (www.drgutah.com)are Web sites on the Internet that offer free use of sample size and/or confidence interval calculators.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A recent study conducted by CMOR study indicated that consumers prefer ________ surveys versus the ________ method of surveys.
A)telephone; Internet
B)mail; telephone
C)Internet; mail
D)Internet; telephone
Q4) Discuss what can be done to reduce not-at-homes.
Q5) Discuss four of the methods of reducing refusals to participate in a survey.
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Chapter 13: Fieldwork
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Q1) In their guidelines on interviewing, the Council of American Survey Research Organizations suggests that interviewers keep a tally on each terminated interview and the reason for each termination.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are commonly used probing techniques except ________.
A)using objective/neutral questions or comments
B)ask each applicable question
C)boosting or reassuring the respondent
D)eliciting clarification
Q3) Field workers should be evaluated on which of the following?
A)time spent interviewing
B)time spent on administration activities
C)time spent traveling
D)all of the above
Q4) Which of the following is not one of the general qualifications of fieldworkers?
A)healthy
B)outgoing
C)experienced and middle-aged
D)pleasant appearance
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Chapter 14: Data Preparation
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Questions
Q1) When utilizing univariate techniques, for nonmetric data, when there is (are)________, sign, McNemar, and Wilcoxon tests can be used.
A)only one sample
B)two independent samples
C)more than two dependent samples
D)two or more related samples
Q2) When utilizing univariate techniques, for metric data, when there is (are)________, one-way analysis of variance (one-way ANOVA)can be used.
A)only one sample
B)two independent samples
C)more than two independent samples
D)two or more related samples
Q3) The selection of data-transcription method is guided by the type of interviewing method used and the availability of equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss how the researcher should go about selecting a data analysis strategy (Figure 14.5 in the text).
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Chapter 15: Frequency Distribution, Cross-Tabulation, and Hypothesis Testing
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Q1) A nonparametric test that analyzes the differences between the paired observations, taking into account the magnitude of the differences is the ________.
A)Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test
B)sign test
C)McNemar test
D)runs test
Q2) The median is an appropriate measure of central tendency for ________ data.
A)interval
B)ratio
C)ordinal
D)nominal
Q3) Mean, median, variance, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and range are some of the statistics that can be calculated via ________, ________, and ________ in SPSS.
A)FREQUENCIES; EXPLORE; and DESCRIPTIVES
B)DESCRIPTIVES; COUNTS; and EXPLORE
C)EXPLORE; DESCRIPTIVES; and COUNTS
D)COUNTS; FREQUENCIES; and DESCRIPTIVES
Q4) Discuss the relationship between cross-tabulation and frequency distribution.
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Chapter 16: Analysis of Variance and Covariance
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Q1) How consumers' "intentions to buy the brand" varies with different price levels is best analyzed via ________.
A)t tests
B)one-way ANOVA
C)ANCOVA
D)regression
Q2) Analysis of variance is so named because it examines the variability or variation in the sample (dependent variable)and, based on the variability, determines whether there is reason to believe that the population means differ.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Omega squared, <sup>2</sup>, indicates what proportion of the variation in the dependent variable is related to a particular independent variable or factor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the procedure for conducting one-way analysis of variance.
Q5) What are the general steps involved in performing an ANCOVA?
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Chapter 17: Correlation and Regression
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Q1) Multicollinearity arises when intercorrelations among the predictors are very low.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statistic is associated only with multiple regression and not with bivariate regression?
A)adjusted R<sup>2 </sup>
B)partial F test
C)estimated or predicted value ( )
D)both A and B
Q3) If a variable explains a significant proportion of the residual variation, it should be considered for inclusion in the regression equation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The multiple correlation coefficient, R, can also be viewed as the simple correlation coefficient, r, between Y and .
A)True
B)False
Q5) In what ways can regression analysis be used?
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Chapter 18: Discriminant and Logit Analysis
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Q1) The assumptions in discriminant analysis are that each of the groups is a sample from a ________ population and all of the populations have the same ________.
A)multivariate normal; standard deviation
B)multivariate normal; covariance matrix
C)multivariate normal; standard error
D)multivariate normal; variance
Q2) When the dependent variable is binary, the logit model can also be used instead of two-group discriminant analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In discriminant analysis, the value of the coefficient for a particular predictor depends on the other predictors included in the discriminant function.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The last step in conducting discriminant analysis is to interpret the results (Figure 18.2 in the text).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Factor Analysis
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Q1) Communality is ________.
A)the amount of variance a variable shares with all the other variables being considered
B)the percentage of the total variance attributed to each factor
C)the proportion of variance explained by the common factors
D)both A and C are correct
Q2) Percentage of variance accounted for, scree plot, and a priori determination are all procedures for determining the number of factors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a way to interpret factors?
A)based on the variables that load high on a factor
B)by plotting the variables using the factor loadings as coordinates
C)both A and B
D)none of the above
Q4) The first step in conducting factor analysis is ________.
A)construct the correlation matrix
B)determine the method of factor analysis
C)formulate the problem
D)determine the number of factors
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Chapter 20: Cluster Analysis
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Q1) Which is best to use when selecting a clustering procedure: hierarchical or nonhierarchical clustering?
Q2) Cluster analysis requires prior knowledge of the cluster or group membership for each object or case included to develop the classification rule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why should the clustering of variables be used?
Q4) Measuring similarity in terms of distance between pairs of objects is the most common approach used in cluster analysis for grouping similar objects together. A)True
B)False
Q5) Cluster analysis has been used in marketing for all of the purposes below except ________.
A)segmenting the market based on benefits sought from the purchase of a product
B)identifying new product opportunities by clustering brands and products so that competitive sets within the market can be determined
C)selecting test markets
D)determining how strongly sales are related to advertising expenditures
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Chapter 21: Multidimensional Scaling and Conjoint Analysis
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Q1) The configuration derived from preference data is very similar to that obtained from similarity data.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is an advantage of the direct approach to collecting perception data?
A)It is easier to label the dimensions.
B)It is easy to identify respondents with homogeneous perceptions.
C)The researcher does not have to identify a set of salient attributes.
D)The respondents can be clustered based on the attribute ratings.
Q3) List the steps in conjoint analysis.
Q4) ________ data order the brands or stimuli in terms of respondents' preferences for some property.
A)Direct
B)Preference
C)Derived
D)Likert
Q5) An assumption of MDS is that the similarity of stimulus A to B is the same as the similarity of stimulus B to A.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Structural Equation Modeling and Path Analysis
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Q1) Path analysis can be viewed as a special case of SEM.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A proposed structural model involves four constructs, two of which are exogenous. X1 and X2 together cause Y1, which in turn causes Y2. What term describes this model?
A)descriptive
B)empirical
C)nonrecursive
D)recursive
E)None of the above
Q3) CFI is an incremental fit index.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An exogenous construct is represented in an structural path model as a box with one-headed arrows going into it.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe path analysis and its relationship to SEM.
Q6) Explain exogenous and endogenous constructs.
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Chapter 23: Report Preparation and Presentation
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Q1) The letter of transmittal does all of the following except ________.
A)summarizes the researcher's overall experiences with the project
B)discusses the major results
C)identifies the need for further action on the part of the client
D)all of the above
Q2) Define the "Tell 'Em" principle and the "KISS 'Em" principle.
Q3) If you are deliberating over whether to call the marketing research report "Practices Followed in Selecting Long-Distance Carriers" or "Long Distance Service Study," you are concerned with which elements of the marketing research report?
A)table of contents
B)approach to the problem
C)title page
D)problem definition
Q4) A pie chart is useful for displaying relationships over time or relationships among several variables.
A)True
B)False
Q5) To what length should the researcher go when writing the conclusions and recommendations section of the marketing research report?
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Chapter 24: International Marketing Research
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Q1) ________ is the equivalence of both spoken and written language forms used in scales and questionnaires.
A)Construct equivalence
B)Scalar equivalence
C)Operational equivalence
D)Linguistic equivalence
Q2) Marketing research can contribute significantly to the formulation of successful international marketing strategies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the statements below is not one of the United Kingdom's Data Protection Act (DPA)guidelines?
A)Personal data will be held only for specified and lawful purposes.
B)Personal data will be accurate and will be kept current.
C)Data users must take appropriate security measures against unauthorized access, alteration, disclosure, destruction, or loss of personal data.
D)All of the above statements are DPA guidelines.
Q4) Define direct translation, back translation, and parallel translation.
Q5) Explain why back translation and parallel translation are needed.
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