Product and Brand Management Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Product and Brand Management explores the strategies and processes involved in developing, launching, and sustaining successful products and brands in dynamic markets. The course covers essential topics such as product lifecycle management, new product development, market positioning, and differentiation. It also examines branding principles, brand equity, portfolio management, and the role of digital media in brand building. Through case studies and practical assignments, students learn how to analyze market trends, create compelling value propositions, and design effective marketing mix strategies to drive product success and foster long-term brand loyalty.
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Marketing Research An Applied Orientation 6th Edition by Naresh K Malhotra
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Marketing Research
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Q1) ________ is undertaken to help identify problems that are perhaps not apparent on the surface and yet exist or are likely to arise in the future.
A)Problem identification research
B)Segmentation research
C)Problem solving research
D)Marketing information systems
Answer: A
Q2) Problem identification research provides information about the marketing environment and helps diagnose a problem.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Companies that base their business on the Web do not have international marketing problems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Defining the Marketing Research Problem and Developing an Approach
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Q1) Which statement about hypotheses is not true?
A)A hypothesis is an unproven statement or proposition about a factor or phenomenon that is of interest to the researcher.
B)Hypotheses are declarative and can be tested empirically.
C)It is possible to formulate hypotheses in all situations.
D)An important role of a hypothesis is to suggest variables to be included in the research design.
Answer: C
Q2) According to Figure 2.1 in the text, the components of the ________ consist of: objective/theoretical foundations, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of the information needed.
A)approach to the problem
B)management decision problem
C)marketing research problem
D)environmental context of the problem
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Research Design
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Q1) Joan needs to determine which variables and relationships she should examine further as part of the research she is conducting for the Flager Truck Company. Joan is about to embark on what type of research?
A)simple research
B)exploratory research
C)descriptive research
D)causal research
Answer: B
Q2) ________ is research designed to assist the decision maker in determining, evaluating, and selecting the best course of action to take in a given situation.
A)Exploratory research
B)Conclusive research
C)Complex research
D)Problem-identification research
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Exploratory Research Design: Secondary Data
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Q1) Which of the following concerns are important when evaluating secondary data for international projects?
A)Measurement units may not be equivalent across countries.
B)The accuracy of secondary data may vary from country to country.
C)Both A and B are correct.
D)None of the above are correct.
Q2) The range and sources of syndicated data available for industrial goods firms are more limited than those available to consumer goods firms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Financial, operating, and employment data are also collected by industry services' syndicated research firms for one in 10 North American Industry Classification System (NAICS)industrial categories.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the criteria for evaluating secondary data (Table 4.2 in the text).
Q5) Discuss the disadvantages of different types of scanner data.
Q6) Discuss single-source data. What is it and how is it related to computer mapping?
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Chapter 5: Exploratory Research Design: Qualitative Research
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Q1) Constructing a detailed moderator's outline for use during the focus group interviews involves extensive discussions among the ________, ________, and ________.
A)researcher; moderator; and respondents.
B)researcher; client; moderator.
C)researcher; client; respondent.
D)client; respondent; moderator.
Q2) There are several reasons to use qualitative research. Which of the following is not a reason to use qualitative research?
A)It is not always possible, or desirable, to use fully structured or formal methods to obtain information from respondents.
B)People may be unwilling or unable to answer certain questions.
C)People are unwilling to give truthful answers to questions that invade their privacy, embarrass them, or have a negative impact on their ego or status.
D)none of the above
Q3) Focus groups can be misused and abused by considering the results as conclusive.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the advantages of online focus groups.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Descriptive Research Design: Survey and Observation
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Q1) ________ involves trained observers posing as consumers and shopping at company - or competitor-owned stores to collect data about customer-employee interaction and other marketing variables. (Choose the best answer.)
A)Personal observation
B)Structured observation
C)Mystery shopping
D)Contrived observation
Q2) With the survey method of obtaining information respondents are asked a variety of questions regarding their behavior, intentions, attitudes, awareness, motivations, and demographic and lifestyle characteristics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the department store patronage project, ________ may be used to analyze magazine advertisements of the sponsoring and competing stores to compare their projected images.
A)mechanical observation
B)personal observation
C)content analysis
D)trace analysis
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Causal Research Design: Experimentation
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Q1) The effectiveness of a test commercial (X)may be examined by broadcasting the commercial a predetermined number of times and examining the data from a preexisting test panel.Although the marketer can control the scheduling of the test commercial, it is uncertain when or whether the panel members are exposed to it.The panel members' purchases before, during, and after the campaign are examined to determine whether the test commercial has a short-term effect, a long-term effect, or no effect. A ________ design was used in this research project.
A)pretest-posttest control group
B)time series
C)one-group pretest-posttest design
D)multiple time series design
Q2) ________ refers to an effect of testing occurring when a prior observation affects a latter observation.
A)Mortality
B)Interactive testing effect
C)Maturation
D)Main testing effect
Q3) Briefly define internal and external validity.
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Chapter 8: Measurement and Scaling: Fundamentals and Comparative Scaling
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Q1) After paired comparisons, the most popular comparative rating scale is ________.
A)constant sum
B)q-sort
C)metric
D)rank order
Q2) ________ is the generation of a continuum upon which measured objects are located.
A)Ranking
B)Measurement
C)Scaling
D)Rating
Q3) Which of the following scales is not a type of comparative scale (Figure 8.2 in the text)?
A)semantic differential
B)constant sum
C)Likert
D)both A and C
Q4) The four basic scale characteristics are nominal, order, distance and origin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Measurement and Scaling: Noncomparative Scaling Techniques
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Q1) When determining the number of scale categories to use in a non-comparative itemized rating scale, if individual responses are of interest, or the data will be analyzed by sophisticated statistical techniques, five or more scale categories may be required.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In ________ the degree of similarity between two measurements is determined by computing a correlation coefficient. The higher the correlation coefficient, the greater the reliability.
A)test-retest reliability
B)internal consistency reliability
C)coefficient alpha
D)coefficient beta
Q3) In alternative-forms reliability, the same respondents are measured at two different times with an equivalent scale form being administered each time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Figure 9.4 in the text showed the development of a multi-item scale. Discuss the development process.
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Chapter 10: Questionnaire and Form Design
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Q1) Respondents for the pretest and for the actual survey should not be drawn from the same population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A well-designed questionnaire can motivate the respondents and increase the response rate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A standardized questionnaire or form will ensure comparability of the data, increase speed and accuracy of recording, and facilitate data processing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The type of method influences questionnaire design. Considering how the questionnaire is administered under each method, which method is most appropriate if lengthy, complex, and varied questions need to be asked?
A)mail questionnaire
B)telephone interview
C)personal interview
D)Internet questionnaire
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Chapter 11: Sampling: Design and Procedures
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Q1) All of the factors listed below favor the use of probability sampling except (Table 11.5 in the text)________.
A)nonsampling errors are likely to be an important factor
B)the nature of the research is conclusive
C)the population is heterogeneous with respect to variables of interest
D)highly accurate estimates of population characteristics are required
Q2) Which situation poses ethical concerns for the researcher in terms of preserving the anonymity of the respondents?
A)when the population size is large
B)sampling details that are too revealing
C)verbatim quotations in reports to the client
D)both B and C
Q3) ________ is a sampling technique in which an element cannot be included in the sample more than once.
A)Bayesian approach
B)Sampling with replacement
C)Sampling without replacement
D)Simple random sampling
Q4) Discuss the advantages of systematic sampling.
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Chapter 12: Sampling: Final and Initial Sample Size
Determination
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Q1) Discuss four of the methods of reducing refusals to participate in a survey.
Q2) The confidence interval approach to sample size determination is based on the construction of confidence intervals around the means or proportions using the standardized variate formula.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The sampling distribution of the mean is a binomial distribution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The concept of a sampling distribution enables us to use probability theory to make inferences about the population values.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If the researcher is required to estimate several parameters, not just one, the calculation of sample size in these cases should be based on a consideration of all the parameters that must be estimated.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss what can be done to reduce not-at-homes.
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Chapter 13: Fieldwork
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Q1) The evaluation of field workers should be based on the criteria of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and quality of data.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The evaluation of field workers should be based on which of the following criteria?
A)cost and time
B)response rates
C)quality of the data
D)all of the above
Q3) In their guidelines on interviewing, the Council of American Survey Research Organizations suggests that interviewers do not reveal the identity of the ultimate client unless instructed to do so.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As a part of central office control, supervisors should keep a record of hours worked and expenses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Data Preparation
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Q1) ________ are appropriate when there is a single measurement of each element in the sample, or there are several measurements of each element but each variable is analyzed in isolation.
A)Interdependence techniques
B)Dependence techniques
C)Multivariate techniques
D)Univariate techniques
Q2) Discuss the pros and cons of the various options for the treatment of missing responses.
Q3) The objective of this level of analysis is to assess the comparability of findings from one country to another.
A)Cross-cultural analysis
B)Individual-level analysis
C)Pancultural analysis
D)Intracultural analysis
Q4) When utilizing weighting, categories underrepresented in the sample receive lower weights, whereas overrepresented categories receive higher weights.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Frequency Distribution, Cross-Tabulation, and Hypothesis Testing
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Q1) Lambda assumes that the variables are measured on an ordinal scale.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ is a frequency distribution that depends upon two sets of degrees of freedom, the degrees of freedom in the numerator and the degrees of freedom in the denominator.
A)t distribution
B)Z statistic
C)chi-square distribution
D)none of the above
Q3) If the samples used in the Mann-Whitney U test are from the same population, the distribution of scores from the two groups in the rank list should be ________.
A)random
B)u-shaped
C)normal
D)uniform
Q4) The two-sample median test is not as powerful as the Mann-Whitney U test.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Analysis of Variance and Covariance
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Q1) Analysis of covariance includes at least one ________ independent variable and at least one ________ independent variable.
A)categorical; interval
B)ordinal; categorical
C)metric; interval
D)parametric; interval
Q2) ________ is an ANOVA technique used when respondents are exposed to more than one treatment condition and repeated measurements are obtained.
A)Nonmetric ANOVA
B)Contrasts
C)Repeated measures ANOVA
D)Multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA)
Q3) When using SPSS Windows one-way ANOVA can be efficiently performed using the ________ program.
A)GENERAL LINEAR MODEL
B)NONPARAMETRIC TESTS
C)COMPARE MEANS
D)UNIVARIATE
Q4) What are the general steps involved in performing an ANCOVA?
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Chapter 17: Correlation and Regression
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Q1) The purpose of stepwise regression is to select, from a large number of predictor variables, a small subset of variables that account for most of the variation in the dependent or criterion variable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The estimated parameter b is usually referred to as the non-standardized regression coefficient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Suppose a researcher wants to explain attitudes towards a respondent's city of residence in terms of duration of residence in the city. The attitude is measured on an 11-point scale and the duration of residence is measured in terms of the number of years the respondent has lived in the city. In a pretest of 12 respondents, the calculated t value for the correlation coefficient based on the data given is 8.414. The critical value of t for a two-tailed test and = 0.05 is 2.228. r = .9361. What is the null hypothesis for this scenario? What do the results mean in terms of the null hypothesis and the correlation coefficient, r?
Q4) In what ways can regression analysis be used?
Q5) Briefly explain how a scatter diagram benefits the researcher?
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Chapter 18: Discriminant and Logit Analysis
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Q1) In discriminant analysis, the criterion or dependent variable is ________ and the predictor or independent variables are ________ in nature.
A)interval; categorical
B)ordinal; interval
C)categorical; interval
D)ordinal; categorical
Q2) The last step in conducting discriminant analysis is to interpret the results (Figure 18.2 in the text).
A)True
B)False
Q3) The logit model falls somewhere between regression and discriminant analysis in application.
A)True
B)False
Q4) With the leave-one-out cross-validation option in SPSS, the discriminant model is re-estimated as many times as there are respondents in the sample.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Factor Analysis
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Q1) ________ should be used when factors in the population are likely to be strongly correlated.
A)Orthogonal rotation
B)The varimax procedure
C)Oblique rotation
D)None of the above
Q2) Bartlett's test of sphericity is one test of the appropriateness of the factor model.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is an approach to factor analysis that considers the total variance in the data.
A)Principal components analysis
B)Common factor analysis
C)Omega method
D)Unweighted least squares
Q4) Under what general circumstances is factor analysis used?
Q5) List at least four of the procedures used for determining the number of factors.
Q6) Describe principal components analysis and common factor analysis and the differences between the two methods of factor analysis.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Cluster Analysis
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Q1) Which method allows the researcher to obtain information on cluster membership of cases if the number of clusters is specified?
A)cluster centers
B)scree plot
C)icicle plot
D)both A and C
Q2) Cluster analysis has been used in marketing for all of the purposes below except
A)segmenting the market based on benefits sought from the purchase of a product
B)identifying new product opportunities by clustering brands and products so that competitive sets within the market can be determined
C)selecting test markets
D)determining how strongly sales are related to advertising expenditures
Q3) Use of different distance measures may lead to different clustering results. Hence, it is advisable to use different measures and compare the results.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why should the clustering of variables be used?
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Chapter 21: Multidimensional Scaling and Conjoint Analysis
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Q1) The derivation and use of ________ lie at the heart of multidimensional scaling.
A)perceptual maps
B)pair-wise tables
C)part-worth functions
D)contrasts
Q2) Each dimension determined in MDS represents only one attribute.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The direct approaches to collecting perception data are used more frequently than the attribute-based approaches.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When constructing conjoint analysis stimuli, it is necessary to evaluate all possible combinations of levels of the attributes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) MDS solutions are subject to substantial random variability.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Structural Equation Modeling and Path Analysis
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Q1) A proposed structural model involves four constructs, two of which are exogenous. X1 and
X2 together cause Y1, which in turn causes Y2. This model is recursive.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following steps are involved in conducting SEM?
A)Define the individual constructs.
B)Specify the measurement model.
C)Assess measurement model reliability and validity.
D)Specify the structural model if the measurement model is valid.
E)All of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is true about the relationship of SEM to factor analysis?
A)The measurement model in SEM is similar to factor analysis in that both techniques have variables with loadings on factors.
B)Concepts such as correlations and covariances are common to both the techniques.
C)SEM, we have to specify which variables are associated with each construct based on theory.
D)A and C are correct.
E)A, B and C are correct.
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Chapter 23: Report Preparation and Presentation
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Q1) Effective oral presentation techniques include all of the following except ________.
A)the use of visual aids displayed with a variety of media
B)allowing sufficient opportunity for questions, both during and after the presentation
C)not spending much time on the reason for the research and getting to the results quickly
D)constant eye contact and interaction with the audience
Q2) When writing the final report, the researcher should draw conclusions but should not make recommendations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Define the "Tell 'Em" principle and the "KISS 'Em" principle.
Q4) A list of tables, list of graphs, list of appendices, and list of exhibits are found in which part of the marketing research report?
A)table of contents
B)letter of transmittal
C)letter of authorization
D)executive summary
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Chapter 24: International Marketing Research
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Q1) In the legal environment of the framework for international marketing research, wholesaler agreements would be covered under laws concerning pricing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Government environment considerations include all of the following except
A)whether special rules and regulations are imposed on foreign multinationals and their marketing practices
B)whether the government may be an important member of the distribution channel
C)whether there are laws related to the elements of the marketing mix
D)all of the above
Q3) All of the following factors except ________ make international telephone interviewing easier.
A)relatively upscale consumers who are accustomed to business transactions by phone
B)consumers who can be reached by phone and can express themselves easily
C)decline in the costs of international telephone calls
D)in many cultures face-to-face relationships are predominant
Q4) Explain why back translation and parallel translation are needed.
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