Principles of Zoology Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Principles of Zoology offers a comprehensive exploration of the fundamental concepts governing the animal kingdom, focusing on the diversity, structure, function, behavior, and evolution of animals. The course examines the major animal phyla, their ecological roles, and the physiological mechanisms underlying their survival and adaptation. Through lectures, laboratory work, and field studies, students will develop an understanding of animal taxonomy, development, reproductive strategies, and interactions within ecosystems, preparing them for more advanced studies in biological sciences and environmental research.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Principles of Zoology 16th Edition by Cleveland Hickman Jr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Life: Biological Principles and the Science of Zoology
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Q1) Embryos,larvae,and metamorphosis are related to which characteristic of living systems?
A) Development
B) Metabolism
C) Movement
D) Environmental interaction
Answer: A
Q2) Which best describes the first law of thermodynamics?
A) Energy is neither created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to another
B) Energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter
C) Useful energy is lost as heat whenever an energy transfer occurs
D) Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one form to another
Answer: A
Q3) The appearance of new characteristics at a given level of biological organization is known as emergence,and these characteristics are known as _______ ________.
Answer: emergent properties
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Chapter 2: The Origin and Chemistry of Life
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Q1) The Precambrian-Cambrian boundary is
A) A point that separates reduction environments from oxidation environments
B) The separation point between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
C) A point of dramatically increased fossilization, although it is likely that many animal groups existed before this time
D) The shift-over from plants to animal life
Answer: C
Q2) Pasteur's work with spontaneous generation showed that
A) life could not have evolved from non-living chemistry on the early earth.
B) mice came from mother mice and maggots from mother flies.
C) simple chemicals could become complex organic macromolecules without any living cell involved.
D) broth did not ferment spontaneously but required contamination with organisms.
Answer: D
Q3) Most biological polymerizations are ___________ dehydration reactions in which monomers are linked together by removal of water.
Answer: condensation
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4
Chapter 3: Cells As Units of Life
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Q1) The best definition of diffusion is
A) movement of molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration.
B) movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane from high water concentration to lower water concentration.
C) movement of molecules from lower concentration to higher concentration.
D) movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP.
Answer: A
Q2) A multinucleate mass formed by the fusion of many cells rather than by nuclear proliferation is called a ____________.
Answer: syncytium
Q3) Major functions of the plasma membrane do NOT include
A) regulating molecules and ions that pass into and out of the cell.
B) recognizing and communicating between different cells and tissues.
C) maintaining connections between adjacent cells.
D) producing proteins used in construction of the cell.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Q1) The enzyme-substrate complex is
A) not strong and will freely dissociate after it stresses certain chemical bonds in a substrate.
B) secured by covalent bonds to one or more points in the active site of the enzyme.
C) able to display unique spectroscopic characteristics not seen by enzyme of substrate alone.
D) Proved by the saturation effect in which the reaction rate reaches a maximum even through more substrate is added.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Why do some animals degrade amino acids to ammonia and others dispose of it as urea or uric acid?
Q3) Cellular ____________ refers to the collective total of chemical processes that occur within living cells.
A) energy
B) thermodynamics
C) potential
D) metabolism
Q4) Before a chemical bond is stressed enough to break,___________ must be supplied.
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Chapter 5: Genetics: a Review
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Q1) Gene interactions in which an allele at one locus prevents the expression of an allele at another locus is called
A) complete dominance.
B) incomplete dominance.
C) epistasis.
D) pleiotropy.
Q2) Deletion of one chromosome,as in the case of XO or Turner syndrome,would be a case of
A) aneuploidy.
B) changes in the linear arrangement of genes within one chromosome.
C) trisomy.
D) polyploidy.
Q3) The most familiar form of aneuploidy in humans results in Down Syndrome or ________ _________.
Q4) Which of the following processes synthesizes mRNA,tRNA,or rRNA?
A) Translation
B) Transcription
C) Transposition
D) None of the choices are correct
Q5) Males are said to be ___________ for traits carried on the X chromosome.
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Chapter 6: Organic Evolution
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Q1) Compare the ideas of phenotypic gradualism with those of punctuated equilibrium.
Q2) Which of the following is correct about genetic drift?
A) It is more likely to occur in a large population than in a small population
B) It increases the number of heterozygotes in a population
C) It may increase the frequency of rare alleles in a population
D) None of the choices are correct
Q3) The main accomplishment of the "New Synthesis" or modern Darwinism was
A) to select a new set of scientists to take up the evolution argument after the death of Darwin and Huxley.
B) the frantic search for answers to the creationist challenge of the early 1900s.
C) the application of new discoveries in genetics, classification, biogeography, paleontology, etc. to Darwin's basic tenets, and which tied these fields together in a new framework.
D) to split Darwin's ideas into small details (microevolution) and larger concepts (macroevolution).
Q4) Explain how Malthus' work in socioeconomics applied to the development of Darwin's theory of natural selection.
Q5) Define sexual selection and provide an example.
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Chapter 7: The Reproductive Process
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Q1) In oogenesis,the sequence of the development of an egg is
A) ootid, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, oogonium, ovum.
B) primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, ootid, oogonium, ovum.
C) oogonium, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, ootid, ovum.
D) oogonium, ootid, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, ovum.
Q2) Milk production in humans is triggered in breasts after several days of ____ and ____ production by the ____.
A) estrogen, testosterone, ovaries.
B) prolactin, human placental lactogen, hypothalamus.
C) prolactin, human placental lactogen, anterior pituitary.
D) oxytocin, estrogen, hypothalamus.
E) oxytocin, androgen, anterior pituitary.
Q3) When an egg is formed without meiosis,merely a mitotic division,it is
A) ameiotic parthenogenesis.
B) meiotic parthenogenesis.
C) anti-parthenogenesis.
D) hermaphroditism.
E) bisexual reproduction.
Q4) In reptiles and birds the reproductive and excretory ducts empty into the
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Chapter 8: Principles of Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) An enterocoelous animal has
A) a true coelom.
B) a pseudocoelom.
C) no coelom.
D) a schizocoelom.
Q2) ___________ occurs when a fertilized egg enters cell division without further growth in volume.
A) Cleavage
B) Gastrulation
C) Differentiation
D) Embryology
Q3) Somites,which form segmental muscles and vertebrae,develop from which germ layer?
A) Ectoderm
B) Endoderm
C) Mesoderm
D) Myoderm
Q4) If yolk is primarily food storage for the developing embryo,why is it so central to understanding cleavage?
Q5) Discuss or outline the derivatives of endoderm,mesoderm,and ectoderm.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Architectural Pattern of an Animal
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of tissue-organ grade of organization?
A) a flatworm
B) a jellyfish
C) a colonial protozoan, such as Volvox
D) a sponge
Q2) True metamerism (segmentation)is found only in Annelida,Arthropoda,and _____________.
Q3) Which gives the correct sequence of increasing organizational complexity?
A) Organ, tissue, cell, organ system, organism
B) Cell, organ, organ system, tissue, organism
C) Cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
D) Organism, tissue, cell, organ system, organ
Q4) Which of the following statements about connective tissue is NOT true?
A) Connective tissues contain cells capable of differentiating into muscle and bone in animals that can regenerate these tissues
B) Loose connective tissue contains fibroblasts, different kinds of fibers, and a nonliving matrix
C) Blood is a connective tissue that contains a fluid matrix
D) Collagen is a fat molecule with little tensile strength but great stretching ability
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Chapter 10: Taxonomy and Phylogeny of Animals
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Q1) Which of the following terms is NOT correctly associated?
A) synapomorphy-a derived character shared by members of a clade
B) monophyly-one group formed from animals with two separate ancestors
C) adaptive zone-a way of life
D) cladogram-a nested hierarchy of clades represented as a branching diagram
Q2) A species of fern that was only found on one small island would be defined as
A) an outgroup.
B) cosmopolitan.
C) speciating.
D) endemic to the island.
Q3) A branching diagram representing a nested hierarchical pattern of clades is called a/an ________.
Q4) Homoplasy involves
A) any two organisms with exactly the same trait.
B) two organisms sharing the same trait because they have a common ancestor with that trait.
C) two or more lineages having what appears to be the same trait.
D) possession of homologous structures.
Q5) Species that have very restricted geographic distributions are called ____________________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Unicellular Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrition in unicellular eukaryotes is best described as A) autotrophic.
B) heterotrophic.
C) saprozoic.
D) All of the choices are correct.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Haploid cells that are unequal in size,such as sperm and egg,are called what?
A) anisogametes
B) syngametes
C) autogametes
D) unigametes
E) isogametes
Q3) The great pyramids of Egypt are made from stone formed from fossil
A) radiolarians.
B) foraminiferans.
C) heliozoans.
D) snails.
E) endoparasitic amoeboids of insects.
Q4) Gametic nuclei arising by meiosis and forming a zygote within the same organism that produced them is a process called ___________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Sponges and Placozoans
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Q1) The structural protein found in all sponges is
A) elastin.
B) collagen.
C) gorgonin.
D) spiculin.
E) None of the choices are correct
Collagen is a connective protein common to all sponges.
Q2) The tough protein fibers sometimes found in sponge skeletons are of a substance called _____________.
Sponge skeletons are comprised of calcareous or siliceous spicules or spongin.
Q3) The free-swimming larva of most sponges is a A) bud.
B) gemmule.
C) apopyle.
D) parenchymula.
E) plasmodium.
Parenchymula larvae are free-swimming larval stages found in the development of most sponges. Gemmules are internal buds found in freshwater sponges and some marine sponges.
Q4) Explain the unique attributes of hexactinellids as compared to other sponges.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Radiate Animals
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Q1) The mesoglea of scyphozoans has ameboid cells and fibers and is called a
Q2) Explain why the presence of a gelatinous layer between the ectoderm and endoderm in ctenophores and cnidarians make understanding the branching order of these phyla difficult.
Q3) Ctenophores capture food by
A) nematocysts.
B) collenchyme.
C) colloblasts.
D) comb plates.
E) statocysts.
Q4) Digestion in hydra is
A) intracellular only.
B) extracellular only.
C) both extracellular and intracellular.
D) neither extracellular nor intracellular.
E) none of the choices are correct.
Q5) Septa extending from the body wall to the pharynx in sea anemones are designated primary septa or ________________.
Page 15
Q6) The polypoid stage of scyphozoans is called ________________.
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Chapter 14: Acoelomorpha,Platyzoa,and Mesozoa
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Q1) Humans become infected with lung flukes by
A) eating infected fish.
B) eating infected crabs or crayfish.
C) drinking water contaminated with eggs.
D) wading in infected waters.
E) eating undercooked pork.
Q2) Which of the following organisms lives between sand grains and wasn't described until 2000?
A) Micrognathozoans
B) Rotifers
C) Gastrotrichs
D) Acanthocephalans
Q3) Marine forms of ribbon worms have a ciliated larvae that resembles which of the following?
A) Trochophore
B) Planula
C) Miracidium
D) Gemmule
E) None of the choices are correct
Q4) The holdfast of a tapeworm is its _______________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Polyzoa and Kryptrochozoa
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Q1) Entoprocts
A) are mostly freshwater.
B) are wormlike.
C) have an incomplete digestive tract.
D) have a crown of ciliated tentacles.
E) are a major disease agent.
Q2) Explain why ectoprocts and entoprocts are no longer considered in the phylum Bryozoa.
Q3) A lophophorate phylum that is primarily marine,but also has some freshwater members is ____________ (Bryozoa).
Q4) The formation of the coelom in articulate brachiopods is by _____________ development.
Q5) The term "trimerous" or "tripartite" refers to
A) the three lophophorate groups.
B) division of the coelom into three parts.
C) the pattern of egg cleavage.
D) the three forms of trochophore larvae.
E) layers in the brachiopod shell.
Q6) Colonies of Ectoprocts begin from a single zooid called an _____________.
Q7) The larva of phoronids is called the _____________.
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Chapter 16: Molluscs
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Q1) The water current in the body of a cephalopod mollusc provides
A) oxygen for respiration.
B) jet power for rapid locomotion.
C) a means of carrying wastes and gametes out of the body.
D) All of the choices are cephalopod uses for their body water currents
E) None of the choices are correct
Q2) The circulatory system of cephalopods is more efficient than other molluscs because it has accessory or ________ _______ at the base of each gill.
Q3) How has the problem of "fouling" been resolved by the various groups of molluscs?
Q4) Of all of the freshwater organisms,more freshwater clams are becoming endangered than other species.What is the likely reason?
A) They are a primitive animal and they are due for natural extinction
B) The shellfish industry has moved inland and we are overharvesting them for human food
C) Clams are more heavily parasitized than any other molluscan group
D) As filter-feeders, they concentrate pollutants and are more likely to be harmed by water pollution
E) All of the choices are correct
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Chapter 17: Annelids and Allied Taxa
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Q1) The Branchiobdellida,is a group of small annelids that contains parasites or commensals of crayfish.They show similarities to both oligochaetes and leeches in that they bear a head sucker.In your analysis,is the evolution of a head sucker a derived trait in an oligochaete lineage or would the loss of posterior sucker place them in the Hirudinea?
Q2) Why do zoologists not have a well-accepted theory for the origin of segmentation?
Q3) Reproduction in the earthworm involves
A) Asexual budding
B) Self-fertilization
C) Cross-fertilization between two dioecious organisms
D) Cross-fertilization between two hermaphroditic organisms
E) Reproduction by "stem mothers."
Q4) When earthworms mate,the _______________ secretes mucus to hold them together.
Q5) When earthworms copulate,each stores the other's sperm in chambers called a/an A) clitellum.
B) egg capsule.
C) nephridiopore.
D) seminal receptacle.
E) seminal vesicle.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Smaller Ecdysozoans
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Q1) Elephantiasis is transferred by
A) eating uncooked elephant meat.
B) worms burrowing into skin of feet.
C) drinking contaminated water or food.
D) mosquitoes injecting larval worms into the bloodstream.
E) exchanging body fluids with an infected person.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a factor that protects North Americans from many parasitic worm infections?
A) Much of the U.S. has bitter cold winters.
B) Most of the population wears shoes.
C) We usually cook our meat and there are few raw meat dishes.
D) We have superior drugs and surgeons.
E) We do not use human excreta ("night soil") to directly fertilize crops.
Q3) Copulatory spicules function to
A) attract the female.
B) deliver sperm to the female vagina or gonopore.
C) hold the female vulva open against hydrostatic pressure.
D) store sperm in the male until copulation occurs.
E) store sperm in the female after copulation.
Q4) Filarial worms (Wuchereria and Brugia)are transmitted by _________________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Trilobites, Chelicerates, and Myriapods
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Q1) Groups of segments fused or combined into functional groups are called
Q2) During the process of "arthropodization," the role of the coelomic compartments as a _________ ________ was lost.
Q3) The excretory system of spiders and insects is a structure known as ________
Q4) The excretory system of insects and spiders works by
A) excreting wastes across the digestive system membrane.
B) active transport of just the waste molecules across the tubules.
C) transport of all ions and solutes across the tubule and retrieval of water and useful ions in the rectum.
D) excretion of only ions and wastes in the rectum.
E) packaging and sealing off toxic wastes until the organism dies.
Q5) Arthropods are
A) carnivorous.
B) herbivorous.
C) omnivorous.
D) both carnivorous and herbivorous.
E) All of these choices are correct.
Q6) Discuss the importance of cuticular mechanoreceptors in the spiders.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Crustaceans
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Q1) The excretory antennal glands in decapods are also called ________ _________.
Q2) Water fleas,which belong to the branchiopodan suborder____________,often reproduce by parthenogenesis.
Q3) What is the function of the green glands in the crayfish?
A) Secrete fluids to aid digestion
B) Increase oxygen absorption for respiration
C) Sensing vibrations in water
D) Reproduction
E) Excretion
Q4) The photoreceptor cells in the crustacean compound eye are called
A) statocysts.
B) statoliths.
C) tactile hairs.
D) gastroliths.
E) ommatidia.
Q5) Most appendages of crustaceans are two-branched,or
Q6) How does the statocyst work to communicate position to the crayfish?
Q7) Crustaceans have better-developed sense organs than do the annelids because they have _______ ________ ,delicate projections of cuticle distributed over the body,and especially the mouthparts.
Page 22
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Chapter 29: Support, Protection, and Movement
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Q1) Describe the philosophy and the strategies used in integrated pest management.
Q2) Ecdysiotropin is secreted by the A) corpora allata.
B) ecdysial glands.
C) brain.
D) epidermis.
E) corpora cardiaca.
Q3) Based on proportionate body length,a flea's jump is the equivalent of a 6-foot human jumping 600 feet.This is
A) evidence of the superior strength of insect muscle on a cross-section comparison. B) partially due to the protein resilin that stores energy in insects.
C) an advantage of anchoring muscles inside an exoskeleton.
D) due to the superior ability of insects to deliver both food and oxygen to muscle tissues.
E) related to the length of muscles; the shorter they are, the more powerful they are.
Q4) Explain why some entognathans may be more closely related to insects than other entognathans.
Q5) Flies and mosquitoes belong to the order _________.
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Chapter 22: Chaetognaths, Echinoderms, and Hemichordates
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Q1) The calcareous plates found underneath the epidermis are called the A) Ambulacrae.
B) Tiedemann's bodies.
C) Madreporite.
D) Pedicellariae.
E) Ossicles.
Q2) A system of unknown function consisting of tissue strands enclosing unlined channels is the __________ system.
Q3) Echinoderms are
A) mostly pelagic or free-swimming in open ocean.
B) benthic.
C) parasitic.
D) mostly particle feeders.
E) fish predators.
Q4) Hemichordates were not recognized until the 1800s because they
A) were considered roundworms.
B) are very rare.
C) are common but only around deep ocean vents.
D) have recently dramatically increased in numbers.
E) had secretive habits and fragile bodies.
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Chapter 23: Chordates
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Q1) The lancelets or Branchiostoma are found
A) very rarely and are about extinct.
B) as parasites inside the tracts of fish.
C) commonly in the sandy bottoms of coastal waters around the world.
D) in tropical freshwater streams.
E) near deep ocean thermal vents.
Q2) "Sea squirts," the most common kind of tunicate,belong to the class ___________.
Q3) Of the five chordate hallmarks,adult tunicates have only two,the _______ _______ and the endostyle.
Q4) Cephalochordates
A) are small fish-like, freshwater animals.
B) have a notochord only in their immature stage.
C) digest food in a hepatic cecum or liver diverticulum.
D) have a ventral nerve cord.
E) have a heart that circulates blood cells with hemoglobin in a closed system.
Q5) Larval and adult tunicates look virtually nothing alike.How can you explain this dramatic metamorphosis in evolutionary terms?
Q6) Outline the five chordate features.What is the fate of the endostyle in the higher vertebrates?
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Fishes
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Q1) Sharks remove excess sodium chloride from blood by means of the kidney and the ____________ gland.
Q2) Unlike other vertebrates,the body fluids of hagfishes are
A) Strongly hypoosmotic to seawater.
B) Strongly hyperosmotic to seawater.
C) In osmotic equilibrium with seawater.
D) Very concentrated, with over 80% blood solids.
E) Under high internal pressure near the surface.
Q3) Teleost fishes have a type of tail that is called a __________ tail.
Q4) The lateral-line of a shark is used for
A) Detecting and locating objects and moving animals in the water.
B) Excretion of urea and water.
C) Detecting odors.
D) Secreting mucus as a swimming lubricant.
E) Detecting the heat of prey animals.
Q5) The group designation _________ was formerly considered a class name and designated bony fishes that possessed a swim bladder or lungs. Cladistic analysis has resulted in the division of this group into two classes. One includes ray-finned fishes and the other lobe-finned fishes.
Q6) In the elasmobranchs,the sexes are separate and fertilization is _________.
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Chapter 25: Early Tetrapods and Modern Amphibians
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Q1) Tropical,burrowing,limbless amphibians belong to the order _______ or (alternate order name)________.
Q2) Describe five factors likely leading to the worldwide decline in amphibians.
Q3) When a salamander retains juvenile features while it matures into an adult,what is the process called?
A) Precociousness
B) Spontaneous regeneration
C) Senescence
D) Prematurity
E) Paedomorphosis
Q4) Tetrapods originated in the ______________ period.
A) Permian
B) Cambrian
C) Carboniferous
D) Devonian
E) Silurian
Q5) In frogs the most posterior vertebrae are fused together to form a rod-like
Q6) Frog skin color is produced by cells called ________.
Q7) What is the significance of paedomorphosis in the evolution of tetrapods?
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Chapter 26: Amniote Origins and Nonavian Reptiles
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Q1) A unique anatomical design in turtles is that the
A) cranium is fused to the ribs.
B) ribs articulate with the backbone.
C) ribs have been totally lost.
D) limb girdles are inside the ribs.
E) sternum is fused with the ribs.
Q2) The synapsid lineage gave rise to present day ______.
Q3) The Age of Reptiles consisted of the
A) Silurian, Permian, and Jurassic.
B) Permian, Triassic, and Jurassic.
C) Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous.
D) Permian, Jurassic, and Cretaceous.
E) Paleocene, Miocene, and Eocene.
Q4) Which of the following is a feature of alligator reproduction?
A) The female hears the young and digs open the nest to help them escape.
B) The male alligator bellows during mating season.
C) Incubation temperature determines the sex ratio of the offspring.
D) The mother guards the area where the eggs are incubating.
E) All of these choices are correct.
Q5) Why should limbs be secondarily lost in so many lineages of nonavian reptiles?
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Birds
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Q1) The exchange region in the bird lung is tube-like ________ through which air flows continuously.
Q2) Newly hatched birds that are covered with down and are active within a short time are called __________.
Q3) The integration of muscle-position sense,equilibrium sense,and visual cues for movement and balance occurs in the __________ of the bird's brain.
Q4) In comparing the bird circulatory system to the mammal circulatory system,the bird system has
A) a cross vein in the neck to keep blood flowing to the brain as the head is turned.
B) a much faster heartbeat.
C) the right aortic arch, instead of the left as in mammals, leading to the dorsal aorta.
D) larger arteries to the wings and breast.
E) All of the choices are correct
Q5) The enlargement at the lower end of the esophagus that serves as a food storage chamber in birds is called the ____________.
Q6) Flying birds with keeled sternums are known as Neognathae or ___________.
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Chapter 28: Mammals
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Q1) The fertility cycle of the female mammal is referred to as the ___________ cycle.
Q2) The specialized hairs on the nose that are tactile in function (used to "measure" width of passageways,etc.)are
A) guard hairs.
B) underfur.
C) vibrissae.
D) quills.
E) filamentous hairs.
Q3) Which is NOT a mammal strategy for mammalian herbivores digesting cellulose?
A) Regurgitation and rechewing
B) Special anaerobic bacterial "vats" where cellulose-digesting bacteria can break down grasses, etc.
C) Consuming feces in order to pass food through the digestive system twice
D) A side-pocket or diverticulum called a cecum
E) Directly digesting cellulose by stomach enzymes
Q4) The North American mammal that shows 10-year cycles in population density,and that is preyed upon by lynx and other predators,is the ______ ______.
Q5) All mammalian skin glands are derivatives of the __________.
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Chapter 29: Support, protection, and Movement
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Q1) When you get a suntan,why does it soon fade away if you do not consistently spend time in the sun?
A) The melanin breaks down if not kept warm
B) The melanin is absorbed at a constant rate and you have to build it up faster than it is absorbed
C) "Tanned" cells are eventually sloughed off (although melanin is produced in living stem cells that continue to divide, half the melanin is lost into each daughter cell that dies and is pushed to the surface)
D) Sunlight suppresses the lighter skin pigments and they can again return to mask the melanin
E) Ultraviolet radiation destroys melanin
Q2) Describe the importance of tendons in energy storage during movement.
Q3) Cells become cornified when the fibrous protein ___________________ accumulates within the cells.
Q4) Compare and contrast the structure and function of the following muscles: smooth,cardiac,skeletal (voluntary).
Q5) There are more than one type of skeletal muscle fiber in vertebrates.The red muscle fiber capable of slow,sustained contractions is ________ ________ fibers.
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Chapter 30: Homeostasis: Osmotic Regulation, Excretion, and Temperature Regulation
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Q1) In many modern animals,the ancient archinephric duct became A) a duct for sperm transport.
B) the urethra.
C) the ureter.
D) the loop of Henle.
E) the whole kidney.
Q2) Freshwater animals tend to lose too much salt and gain too much ____________.
Q3) Some animals enter a state of summer dormancy,or __________,when food is scarce or there is a potential for dehydration.
Q4) Why is it so physiologically distressing for freshwater aquarium fish to be dumped into the ocean,or a marine aquarium fish to be dumped into a local city park freshwater pond?
Q5) Hummingbirds are able to reduce energy expenditure when inactive by A) hibernation.
B) decreasing insulation.
C) becoming torpid while asleep.
D) employing nonshivering thermogenesis.
E) sweating and panting.
Page 32
Q6) The ancestral kidney of vertebrates is the __________,a name that means "first kidney."
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Chapter 31: Homeostasis: Internal Fluids and Respiration
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Q1) Which of the following is correct?
A) Blood plasma-fewer large protein molecules
B) Interstitial spaces-three times more water than bloodstream
C) Intracellular-sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate ions
D) Extracellular-potassium, magnesium, and phosphate ions
E) Blood plasma-half of the body's water
Q2) Why is the catalytic sequence leading to blood clotting so complex? Wouldn't it make evolutionary and metabolic sense to have a more immediate and much shorter biochemical sequence leading to blood clotting?
Q3) The heartbeat originates in specialized muscle tissue called the _______ _______ in the sinoatrial node
Q4) In multicellular animals,body fluids are divided into two main phases,
A) blood plasma and interstitial fluid.
B) blood plasma and lymph.
C) bloodstream and digestive fluids.
D) bloodstream and cerebrospinal fluids.
E) intracellular and extracellular.
Q5) What are the inherent problems involved in aquatic and aerial breathing?
Q6) An alternative name for the mouth is the ________ _________.
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Q7) Describe the components of vertebrate plasma and vertebrate "formed" elements.
Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) Nutrients that are needed for normal growth and maintenance and that must be supplied in the diet are called ____________.
Q2) At body temperature,which of these combinations is most likely to result in digestion?
A) protein, water, pepsin.
B) protein, HCl, carboxylase.
C) protein, bile, lipase.
D) protein, sodium bicarbonate, pepsin.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following absorb water and ions in insects?
A) Typhlosole
B) Malpighian tubules
C) Micelles
D) Rectal glands
E) None of the choices are correct
Q4) With normal people an increased caloric intake is dissipated as excess heat by a diffuse tissue called ______ ______.
Q5) Describe the unique pathway for the digestion of fat molecules and indicate why they are not completely broken down,as are other food molecules.
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Chapter 33: Nervous Coordination: Nervous System and Sense Organs
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Q1) Insects possess chemoreceptors that are located in sensory hairs called __________________.
Q2) The ultimate limitation to the number of nerve action potentials we can send to a muscle per second is
A) the speed with which sodium ions can be pumped back outside the nerve membrane.
B) the strength of the nerve action potential.
C) whether action potential is detected as being pain, sound, or some other sense.
D) the number of neurons and synapses involved.
E) the type of muscle.
Q3) The light-sensitive layer inside the vertebrate eye is the ____________.
Q4) A cat learns to walk and take steps when young without having to think through "lift-paw-move-leg-set-down-paw" because the sequence has been practiced and coordinated automatically in it's
A) autonomic nervous system.
B) cerebellum.
C) brain stem.
D) cerebrum.
E) spine.
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Chapter 34: Chemical Coordination: Endocrine System
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Q1) Menstrual cramps are caused by overproduction of A) endorphins.
B) prolactin.
C) oxytocin.
D) prostaglandins.
E) vasotocin.
Q2) The second messenger that relays a hormone's message to the cell's biochemical machinery
A) is cyclic ATP.
B) is kinase.
C) can be any of six different molecules.
D) is GMP.
E) is DNA or RNA.
Q3) Why do you suppose there is only one hormone produced by the intermediate lobe of the anterior pituitary?
Q4) After birth,suckling by the baby induces the pituitary gland to release ____________,which stimulates the secretion of milk. or oxytocin
Q5) Growth hormone is produced by the _______ ________ gland.
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Chapter 35: Immunity
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Q1) The acquired immune response in vertebrates has two arms:
A) antibodies and antigens.
B) B and T lymphocytes.
C) cellular and humoral.
D) T<sub>H</sub>1 and T<sub>H</sub>2.
E) immunoglobulins and T-cell receptors.
Q2) To make snakebite antivenin,we inject a horse with increasing doses of venom,extract the horse's antibodies,and inject them inside a person who has been bitten by a snake in order to save his/her life.Which is the best explanation of why this is effective?
A) The antivenin builds a person's active immunity.
B) The antivenin presents the antibodies built by the horse and is soon eliminated itself by the person's immune system.
C) The antibodies form a permanent immunity in the person against the venom.
D) None of the choices are correct
Q3) How do the following granulocytic leukocytes differ: neutrophils,eosinophils,basophils?
Q4) The ________________ recognize antigen on the surface of macrophages and activate B cells.
Q5) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome is commonly called ________.
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Chapter 36: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Sociobiology,the ethological study of social behavior,was originated by
A) Konrad Lorenz
B) Edward O. Wilson
C) Niko Tinbergen
D) Charles Darwin
E) Karl von Frisch
Q2) The social ranking that serves to reduce social tensions within a social order is called a _________ _________.
Q3) Altruistic behaviors between closely related animals
A) Force individuals to cooperate with one another and thereby increase population growth
B) Increase the frequency of the altruistic genes in the next generation
C) Reduce cooperation between species
D) Ensure the survival of the altruistic individual but not his close relatives
E) All of the choices are correct
Q4) Much of an animal's behavior is triggered by a few key signals called ____________ or sign stimuli.
Q5) The invariable,predictable,stereotyped behavior of animals that does not require learning is called ____________ behavior.
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Chapter 37: Animal Distributions
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Q1) A characteristic of a tropical forest is that
A) There is much vegetation but relatively few species of plants and animals are present
B) The growing season is short
C) The animals such as deer, moose, and elk are common
D) The soil rapidly deteriorates when the forest is removed
E) All of the choices are correct
Q2) Discuss the contributions of Alfred Russel Wallace to modern historical biogeography.
Q3) The terrestrial environments of the earth that are divided into large units based on their distinctive vegetation are called ____________.
Q4) The area of the ocean where most productivity occurs is the ___________ zone.
Q5) The theory of continental drift is supported by
A) Similarity of fossils in Africa and South America
B) Paleomagnetic surveys
C) Mid-ocean ridges that are spreading between Africa and South America
D) The fit of the continental shelves of South America and Africa, among others
E) All of the choices fit with continental drift theory
Q6) Why are so many deserts located between 15 and 30 degrees latitude?
Q7) Which biome is the most diverse in terms of numbers of species? Why?
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Chapter 38: Animal Ecology
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Q1) The deep-sea rift communities in the Pacific depend on the action of chemoautotrophic ____________ to derive energy from the oxidation of hydrogen sulfide.
Q2) The sponge constitutes an animal that is
A) unitary due to cloning.
B) modular due to cloning.
C) a cohort due to cloning.
D) unitary due to fragmentation.
E) unitary due to age structure.
Q3) Discuss the paradox of biodiversity concerning species isolation and potential for both speciation and extinction.
Q4) Are the benefits derived from Mullerian mimics always equal for each member of the mimicry complex?
Q5) What prevents all species from evolving toward a survivorship curve where most individuals live to old age?
Q6) Commensalism differs from mutualism by the fact that in commensalism, A) one organism is not affected.
B) one organism is always harmed.
C) both organisms benefit.
D) neither organism benefits.
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