Principles of Surgery Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Principles of Surgery provides a comprehensive introduction to the foundational concepts and practices essential to the field of surgery. This course covers the core principles underlying preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative patient care, including wound healing, infection control, hemostasis, and fluid and electrolyte management. Students are introduced to the surgical decision-making process, common surgical techniques, anesthesia considerations, and patient safety protocols. Ethical and legal issues in surgery, as well as effective communication within surgical teams, are also emphasized to prepare students for the multidisciplinary environment of the operating room and broader surgical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Surgical Procedures 1st Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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18 Chapters
356 Verified Questions
356 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2110
2
Chapter 1: Importance of the Surgical Technologist on the Surgical Team
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42048
Sample Questions
Q1) The scrub surgical technologist is defined as the:
A)The non sterile member of the surgical team.
B)The assisting member of the team.
C)The sterile member of the team
D)None of the above
Answer: C
Q2) A set of guidelines for professional advancement and recognition within an institution or department through the use of an AST-established set of performance-based evaluation and advancement criteria is also known as:
A)clinical ladder
B)continuum of care
C)core curriculum
D)crew management model
Answer: A
Q3) Professional settings for the surgical technologist can include:
A)Hospital suites and ambulatory surgery centers.
B)Ambulatory surgery centers and PACU
C)Labor and delivery units and for a physician as a private scrub
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Review the list below and select the answer that reflects the correct match between the procedure and the disease.
A)Duodenoscopy for gastric reflux disease and hiatal hernia
B)Bariatric surgery for Roux-en-Y for gastritis
C)Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) for gastric ulcer disease
D)Small bowel enteroscopy for ulcerative colitis
Answer: C
Q2) Triangulation is a term used to describe the method used to provide instrument access to the anatomy during abdominal surgery. It is uniquely associated with which surgical incision?
A)Mid-epigastric transverse incision
B)Left paramedian incision
C)Thoracoabdominal incision
D)Laparoscopic port incisions
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas and Spleen
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42050
Sample Questions
Q1) The donor liver OR is prepared for an open laparotomy procedure with basic laparotomy and vascular instruments and accessories. A second sterile instrument table is set up to receive and prepare the procured liver. Select the additional instruments and accessories needed on the donor organ preparation table.
A)vascular instruments, silk sutures and ties, sterile ice, flushing solution, and slush machine.
B)flushing solution, ice chest, sterile ice, powered sternal saw, and long Kocher clamps.
C)culture tubes, Wisconsin University forceps, Deaver retractors, and slush machine.
D)toothed forceps, vessel loops, two sterile plastic draw-string bags, and flushing solution.
Answer: A
Q2) The head of the pancreas is fixed to the:
A)spleen.
B)duodenum.
C)stomach.
D)biliary tree
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Repair of Hernias
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Morris Bettelman, an 86-year-old retired plumber, states that he has suffered from a groin hernia all of his adult life; he states, "as far back as I can remember." Sometimes he has to push the bulge back into his abdominal muscle and then he is fine until he has a coughing spell. This morning the bulge was large and tender when he woke up and he could not reduce it. As the pain increased, he felt weak and nauseous. His daughter took him to the emergency department. Morris was diagnosed with a strangulated incarcerated hernia and scheduled for emergency surgery. If the contents of Morris' hernia sac become compromised, with strangulation of the bowel, the probable label on his surgical specimen will be:
A)compromised bowel.
B)strangulated bowel.
C)necrotic bowel.
D)intestinal obstruction.
Q2) An example of a common postoperative complication related to inguinal hernia surgery is:
A)delayed return to activity.
B)delayed healing.
C)postoperative adhesions.
D)hernia recurrence.
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Chapter 5: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Miranda Cox returned to her gynecologist's office for a second Pap smear when her routine exam showed dysplastic cells in her cervical cytology test. Miranda has a family history of cervical cancer and had laser ablation within the last 2 years for vulvar condylomata. She can expect her gynecologist to perform another Pap smear and:
A)colposcopy with endocervical biopsy.
B)hysteroscopy with cervical biopsy and frozen section.
C)colposcopy with cervical skinning procedure performed using a local anesthetic.
D)second-look vaginal exam with cervical Pap smear.
Q2) When catheterizing the female patient, the urethra must be located. The correct order of the external organs of the vulva listed anterior to posterior is:
A)mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, urethra, clitoris, vaginal opening.
B)labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, urethra, vaginal opening, mons pubis.
C)mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, urethra, vaginal opening.
D)labia majora, labia minora, urethra, mons pubis, clitoris, vaginal opening.
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Chapter 6: Genitourinary Surgery
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement about the prostate that best reflects its location, size, and weight.
A) The prostate sits adjacent to the urethra, is 2 to 4 cm in depth, and weighs about 25 g.
B) The prostate sits below the urethra, is 2 to 3 cm in depth, and weighs 25 to 30 g.
C) The prostate sits below the bladder, is 2 cm in depth, and weighs about 25 to 40 g.
D) The prostate sits below the base of the bladder, is 4 cm at the base, and weighs 20 to 30 g.
Q2) TURP syndrome is a state of severe hyponatremia, caused by systemic absorption of irrigating fluid during the procedure. Select the sign/symptom that the anesthesia provider would report in a patient experiencing TURP syndrome.
A)Hypertension
B)Hyperthermia
C)Hypernatremia
D)Hypokalemia
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Chapter 7: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A minimally invasive video-assisted thyroidectomy (MIVAT) procedure relies on Miccoli instruments added to the standard thyroid or neck dissection setup, a 30-degree endoscope, and an ultrasonic (harmonic) scalpel with scissors to ligate and divide the vessels. An important risk reduction strategy for any minimally invasive procedure would be (select all that apply from the options below):
A)note the amount of CO<sub>2</sub> volume in connected tank and tanks available. B)consider and plan for the possibility of conversion to open thyroidectomy.
C)position and drape the patient as for thyroidectomy.
D)use fire-resistant light cords, endoscopes, light sources, and cable connections
Q2) Substernal or intrathoracic thyroidectomy is indicated for extensions of goiters that are encroaching into the substernal or intrathoracic regions, causing tracheal or esophageal obstruction. Access to the substernal compartment is typically facilitated by:
A)splitting the sternum.
B)using a right mini-thoracotomy approach.
C)using long instruments through a regular thyroid incision.
D)using a mediastinoscopy approach.
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Chapter 8: Breast Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42055
Sample Questions
Q1) The internal thoracic lymph nodes, which drain the inner half of the breast, can also be a channel for the:
A)secretion of estrogen.
B)spread of metastasis.
C)drainage of the outer half of the breast.
D)spread of infections.
Q2) Women of high socioeconomic status and higher education also have a high incidence of breast cancer, most likely due to:
A)high-fat diet.
B)lifestyle-related genetic mutations.
C)later age at first birth.
D)better compliance with regular screening.
Q3) A breast biopsy, performed after the patient has received a local anesthetic, will require adjunct sedation and monitoring equipment. What relevant considerations should the surgical team member note during the preoperative assessment?
A)Skin assessment
B)Allergies
C)ASA physiologic status
D)Risks for injury
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Ophthalmic Surgery
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A wide range of equipment is used in ophthalmic surgery. The perioperative team's knowledge of proper operation should be confirmed through inservice education and training specific to new equipment, plus demonstrated competency. To ensure patient safety and appropriate function and application of surgical devices, which statement best reflects recommended practice when using complex biomedical equipment?
A)Use the device according to the manufacturer's directions and test for proper performance before the patient enters the OR.
B)Follow the policy and procedure of the facility and/or unit, and request biomedical support.
C)Request assistance and technical support from the appropriate vendor representative; encourage the vendor to operate the device or equipment, or request biomedical support.
D)Follow the explanation and demonstration as originally provided by the preceptor during orientation.
Q2) Evisceration
A)Removal of the eye contents with sclera and muscles left intact
B)Removal of the entire orbital contents, including the periosteum
C)Removal of the entire globe, severing muscular attachments and optic nerve
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Chapter 10: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When microlaryngoscopy is performed to remove polyps or nodules from the vocal cords, what important postoperative instruction must be provided to the patient during preparation for discharge?
A)Complete voice rest is important.
B)Coughing and deep-breathing exercises should be performed.
C)Clearing the throat to remove secretions is advised.
D)The patient should use a humidifier.
Q2) The external ear canal lining is protected and lubricated with cerumen (earwax), which traps foreign material and:
A)liquefies foreign matter in the ear canal.
B)lubricates the external ear.
C)maintains the acidic pH in the ear canal.
D)reduces bacterial levels in the outer ear.
Q3) During endoscopic sinus surgery, patient eye protection includes:
A)taping the eyelids closed.
B)placing moist gauze over the eyelids.
C)instilling eye lubricant into both eyes.
D)All of the options apply
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Surgery
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42058
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the layer of connective tissue that covers all bone.
A)Periosteum
B)Calcium
C)Cartilage
D)Fascia
Q2) Revision arthroplasty may be indicated if the patient's original knee replacement wears out or loosens, or fails as a result of repeated dislocation, infection, or trauma. Total joint revision can be a very demanding and complicated procedure. Attention to detail, anticipation, and preparation are essential. Following the induction of anesthesia, the surgeon performs an exam under anesthesia (EUA) to determine the approach. The most difficult aspect of revision surgery is that there is:
A)considerable scar tissue and edema.
B)a significant challenge ahead with postoperative pain management.
C)no clear-cut sequence of events.
D)polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA) bone cement that must be drilled out.
Q3) Remodeling
Q4) Fibrin network formation
Q5) Callus formation
Q6) Invasion of osteoblasts
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Neurosurgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of paired spinal nerves is responsible for sensory functions?
A)Anterior root
B)Dermatomes
C)Posterior root
D)Pyramidal tracts
Q2) What is the name for the division of the brain that contains the hippocampus and amygdala, which are responsible for learning and memory and regulate perceptive and expressive aspects of emotional and social behavior?
A)Basal ganglia
B)Brainstem
C)Diencephalon
D)Limbic system
Q3) Which of the following is the minimum exposure method frequently used for evacuation of subdural hematomas, placement of ventriculoperitoneal shunts, or stereotactic brain biopsies?
A)Craniotomy
B)Burr hole
C)Craniectomy
D)Transsphenoidal
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the planning phase of a procedure for liposuction or post-bariatric contouring, the perioperative team will assemble and organize supplies and devices because the procedure may require:
A)repositioning one or more times during surgery.
B)meticulous accounting of fluid loss and blood replacement.
C)pressure dressings.
D)patient transfer to an alternating-pressure bed.
Q2) There are approximately 1 million reported cases of skin cancer per year with the majority being the highly curable basal or squamous cell cancers, accounting for more than 50% of all cancers. Not as common is the most serious skin cancer, malignant melanoma, with an estimated 68,720 cases per year. Select the individual who is at the highest risk for skin cancer.
A)An African-American outdoor sportsman and airline pilot
B)A fair-complected surfer and beach lifeguard who wears sunblock-protective clothing
C)A fair-complected person testing positive for exposure to human papillomavirus
D)A dark-complected person testing positive for human immunodeficiency virus
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Chapter 14: Thoracic Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thoracotomy can be performed with the patient in one of three common positions: lateral, semilateral, and supine. While the supine position is used for the median sternotomy approach, which of the lateral positions is used for an anterolateral approach?
A)Semilateral
B)Lateral
C)Prone
D)Lateral decubitus
Q2) Roger Waring, a 46-year-old male with early-stage lung cancer, was listening to his surgeon describe the surgical plan in preparation for signing the informed consent. The surgeon described a procedure that would be done before the thoracoscopic lung surgery. The surgeon described an examination of Roger's middle chest lymph nodes and the area below where the bronchi branch into the right and left lungs, and possibly taking biopsies of suspicious tissue. The procedure uses a hollow lighted tube with fiberoptic light-carrying fibers. What diagnostic procedure will precede Roger's thoracoscopic lung surgery?
A)Thoracoscopy
B)Mediastinoscopy
C)Bronchoscopy
D)Panendoscopy
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Vascular Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the 4-hour vascular procedure, the circulating nurse, Karen, and the surgical technologist, Judy, have each had a coffee break and a lunch break. Judy has returned from lunch to find four medicine cups with clear fluid, each unlabeled. The outgoing relief scrub person, during her hand-off report to Judy, points to each cup and states; "The first one is contrast dye, the second cup is heparin, the third is heparinized saline and the fourth is papaverine; it's easy, they're in alphabetical order." Judy discarded all four medications and Karen replaced them into appropriately labeled medicine cups. After the procedure, Karen completed an unusual occurrence report. What recommendations should she include in her corrective action plan that the relief scrub person should have done? Select all that apply from the listed options.
A)Ensure concurrent medication verification, both verbally and visually; include medication name, strength, dose, and expiration date.
B)Verify all medications concurrently with the entering and exiting personnel at shift change or break relief.
C)Remove any unlabeled medication or solution from the field.
D)Keep all medication containers used during the procedure in the OR until the conclusion of the procedure.
E) None of the aobve
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Cardiac Surgery
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among the treatment options for tricuspid valve disease are suture annuloplasty, ring annuloplasty, and valve replacement with either a biologic or a mechanical prosthesis. Like the mitral valve, the tricuspid annulus is saddle-shaped and techniques to repair the valve should consider this anatomic configuration for optimal repair. Patients with significant tricuspid stenosis, regurgitation, or failed tricuspid (suture or ring) annuloplasty may require insertion of a prosthetic biologic or mechanical valve. Because there are no specific tricuspid prosthetic valves available, what type of prosthetic graft would be created or implanted?
A)An annuloplasty with a felt-pledgetted suture
B)A tricuspid annular permanent dilator
C)A mitral prosthesis
D)An annuloplasty ring
Q2) Select the diagnostic test that represents an invasive cardiac study.
A)Resting MUGA
B)Exercise MUGA
C)Cardiac function
D)Electrophysiology studies
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Pediatric Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) This orthopedic diagnosis is a complex deformity that is diagnosed prenatally through ultrasound or at birth. It may occur unilaterally or bilaterally and may be idiopathic or one in a combination of other syndromes with associated anomalies. The general characteristic for all cases includes inversion of the foot such that the anterior foot is located in the typical position of the posterior foot; often there is a deep crease in the midfoot. Select the orthopedic diagnosis.
A)Foot dystonia
B)Clubfoot
C)Orthopedia
D)Subtalar orthopnea
Q2) Personal comfort or security items should be permitted to accompany children to the OR who are in which developmental age?
A)Infancy to 1 year
B)Toddler to early childhood
C)Adolescence
D)All of options are correct.
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Chapter 18: Trauma Surgery
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42065
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the description of damage control surgery, and what conditions may be present?
A)Trauma surgery performed by a nontrauma surgeon; lack of specialty training
B)Surgery performed during ambulance or helicopter transfer; patient movement
C)Surgery at a non-level I center before transfer to a level I; intentional retained sponges
D)Surgery performed in the emergency department; inadequate sterile technique
Q2) What special consideration should be made when assessing a geriatric trauma patient before surgery?
A)They may have preexisting diseases and conditions.
B)They may take many prescription and nonprescription drugs.
C)They have decreased physiologic reserves.
D)All of the options can negatively impact the geriatric patient's perioperative experience.
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