Principles of Radiographic Imaging Test Bank
Course Introduction
Principles of Radiographic Imaging explores the foundational concepts behind the creation and interpretation of radiographic images in medical practice. The course covers the physics of x-ray production, the structure and function of radiographic equipment, image formation, and the key factors influencing image quality such as exposure, contrast, spatial resolution, and patient positioning. Emphasis is placed on radiation protection, proper technique, and quality assurance to ensure accurate, safe, and diagnostic imaging outcomes. Students will gain both theoretical knowledge and practical insight into the standards and protocols that underpin professional radiographic procedures.
Recommended Textbook
Radiography Essentials for Limited Practice 4th Edition by Bruce W. Long
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26 Chapters
1134 Verified Questions
1134 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Role of the Limited X-Ray Machine Operator
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term reciprocity means that:
A) special credentials are required.
B) credentials issued in one state are recognized in another state.
C) a license or permit has been applied for but has not been granted.
D) there is freedom to practice without a license or permit.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following imaging modalities does not use ionizing radiation to produce the image?
A) Computed tomography
B) Fluoroscopy
C) Mammography
D) Sonography
Answer: D
Q3) Which national organization formally conducts accreditation of education programs in radiologic technology?
A) ARRT
B) ASRT
C) JRCERT
D) AERS
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Introduction to Radiographic Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The boxlike device attached under the tube housing that allows the limited operator to vary the size of the radiation field is called a:
A) collimator.
B) transformer.
C) detent.
D) tube port.
Answer: A
Q2) Where is the image originally obtained and stored in computed radiography (CR)?
A) On a film
B) In a phosphor material
C) On a laser disk
D) In a microprocessor
Answer: B
Q3) The primary radiation that enters the patient and then leaves it,traveling in all directions is called:
A) primary.
B) scattered.
C) latent.
D) remnant.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Basic Mathematics for Limited Operators
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a numerator?
A) The answer to a multiplication problem
B) The answer to a division problem
C) The bottom or lower number of a fraction
D) The upper or top number of a fraction
Answer: D
Q2) A satisfactory lateral lumbar spine radiograph is taken using 200 mA,0.6 sec,94 kVp,and 40 inches SID. If an increase in SID to 60 inches is desired,which of the following technique changes will produce a radiographic density most similar to the original?
A) 200 mA, 0.25 sec, 94 kVp
B) 200 mA, 1.33 sec, 94 kVp
C) 400 mA, 1.33 sec, 94 kVp
D) 200 mA, 1.33 sec, 108 kVp
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Basic Physics of Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term refers to the force or strength of the electron flow in the current?
A) Potential difference
B) Resistance
C) Circuit
D) Ampere
Q2) Which electron shell in the electron has the greatest binding energy?
A) K
B) L
C) M
D) N
Q3) The milliamperage used in radiology is:
A) 25.
B) 500.
C) 100 to 200.
D) 25 to 500.
Q4) In radiology,80,000 volts is converted to:
A) 0.125 volts.
B) 125 volts.
C) 80 kVp.
D) 800 kVp.
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Chapter 5: X-Ray Production
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the electromagnetic induction motor used in the x-ray machine?
A) Rotate the anode
B) Move the tabletop
C) Move the grid
D) Send electrons to the filament
Q2) X-ray equipment capable of producing 70 kVp or more must have how much equivalent aluminum filtration?
A) 0.5 mm Al equivalent
B) 1.0 mm Al equivalent
C) 2.5 mm Al equivalent
D) 3.5 mm Al equivalent
Q3) Most x-ray tubes in use today have a standard rotation speed of ______ rpm.
A) 1,500
B) 2,000
C) 3,600
D) 10,000
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Chapter 6: X-Ray Circuit and Tube Heat Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The x-ray tube capacity for a single exposure can be determined by consulting the: A) tube rating chart.
B) generator manual.
C) kVp maximum setting.
D) mA maximum setting.
Q2) What is the purpose of the filament circuit?
A) Supplies the heat required by the x-ray tube filament for thermionic emission of electrons
B) Provides the incoming power to the x-ray tube
C) Varies and stabilizes the incoming power to the high-voltage side of the x-ray circuit
D) Varies the voltage to the primary side of the step-up transformer
Q3) The maximum heat capacity of the anode of the x-ray tube is rated in terms of: A) volts.
B) ohms.
C) coulombs.
D) heat units.
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Chapter 7: Principles of Exposure and Image Quality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quantum mottle or graininess in the radiographic image because of too few photons interacting with the body part will affect image quality by decreasing the:
A) density.
B) spatial resolution.
C) contrast.
D) latitude.
Q2) If the radiographic image is overexposed,which of the following changes in exposure factors should be used to correct the problem?
A) Decrease kVp
B) Increase kVp
C) Increase mAs
D) Decrease mAs
Q3) When an image demonstrates great differences between the densities,the image is described as:
A) poor quality.
B) high quality.
C) contrast.
D) high contrast.
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Chapter 8: Digital Image Receptor Systems
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58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The viewing monitor's active viewing area is called a:
A) voxel.
B) pixel.
C) matrix.
D) window width.
Q2) One of the main advantages of using CR and DR digital systems is:
A) reduction in repeat exams.
B) lower dose to the patient.
C) ability to process images very fast.
D) ability to see greater resolution.
Q3) The system used to view and store digital x-ray images is called a ______ system.
A) CR
B) DR
C) PACS
D) postprocessing
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Chapter 9: Scatter Radiation and Its Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the photoelectric effect,an incoming photon interacts with the atom in the patient's body. What happens to the photon with this effect?
A) It scatters out of the body.
B) It is totally absorbed by the atom.
C) It scatters to a nearby atom.
D) It is totally absorbed by a nearby atom.
Q2) What is one of the most important things a limited operator can do to control scatter radiation?
A) Reduce the thickness of the part.
B) Maintain the correct field size.
C) Use the exposure technique chart.
D) Use the correct grid.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true? If the kVp increases,the:
A) number of photoelectric interactions increases.
B) scatter radiation fog increases.
C) Compton and photoelectric interactions increase.
D) Compton and photoelectric interactions decrease.
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Chapter 10: Formulating X-Ray Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Technique charts are based on:
A) patient weight and body habitus.
B) processor temperature and replenishment rates.
C) thickness of the body part to be radiographed.
D) nature of the suspected pathologic condition.
Q2) Which technical factor is used to alter radiographic contrast?
A) mA
B) Exposure time
C) kVp
D) SID
Q3) Which of the following are types of technique charts?
A) Variable mAs and fixed mAs
B) Variable mAs and variable kVp
C) Variable kVp and fixed kVp
D) Variable kVp and fixed mAs
Q4) A decrease in exposure technique would be required if a patient had:
A) cardiomegaly.
B) degenerative arthritis.
C) pleural effusion.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.
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Chapter 11: Radiobiology and Radiation Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Personnel monitors should be worn:
1) in the region of the collar.
2) on the anterior surface of the body.
3) outside the apron.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following effects of radiation exposure are predictable?
A) Short-term
B) Long-term
C) Somatic
D) Genetic
Q3) A declared pregnant radiation worker should wear a second personnel monitor. This monitor should be positioned at the:
A) collar.
B) waist level.
C) sleeve closest to the radiation.
D) the sleeve farthest from the radiation.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Introduction to Anatomy, positioning, and Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of diseases or abnormal conditions of the body is termed:
A) anatomy.
B) pathology.
C) physiology.
D) psychology.
Q2) The term applied to the back portion of the body or body part is:
A) anterior.
B) posterior.
C) cephalic.
D) caudal.
Q3) A general knowledge of ______ helps limited operators understand the reasons procedures are needed.
A) psychology
B) pathology
C) terminology
D) positioning
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Upper Extremity and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which carpal bone is located in the distal row on the medial side?
A) Trapezium
B) Scaphoid
C) Hamate
D) Pisiform
Q2) What elbow anatomy is best demonstrated on the AP oblique projection in 45-degree medial rotation?
A) Radial head and capitulum
B) Superimposed humeral epicondyles and open elbow joint
C) Olecranon process in profile
D) Coronoid process of the ulna and the trochlea
Q3) Which surface of the elbow is in contact with the IR when taking an AP projection of the elbow?
A) Medial surface
B) Lateral surface
C) Posterior surface
D) Anterior surface
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Chapter 14: Lower Extremity and Pelvis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a fabella?
A) An additional sesamoid bone that can develop in the posterior portion of the knee
B) The articular cartilage located at the condyle of the femur
C) The large sesamoid bone on the anterior surface of the knee
D) The head of the fibula
Q2) Where is the intercondylar fossa located?
A) On the proximal, anterior aspect of the femur
B) On the distal, anterior aspect of the femur
C) On the distal, posterior aspect of the femur
D) On the proximal, posterior aspect of the tibia
Q3) Small,flat,oval bones in the region of the first metatarsophalangeal joint are called: A) phalanges.
B) tarsals.
C) metatarsals.
D) sesamoid bones.
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Chapter 15: Spine
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Sample Questions
Q1) When taking an AP axial projection of the cervical spine,the central ray is directed:
A) 15 degrees caudad.
B) 15 degrees cephalad.
C) 25 degrees caudad.
D) 25 degrees cephalad.
Q2) What is one of the unique anatomical characteristics of the cervical vertebrae?
A) Cervical vertebrae do not have articular processes.
B) Cervical vertebrae, with the exception of C7, do not have spinous processes.
C) Cervical vertebrae have special articular facets on the sides of the bodies.
D) Cervical vertebrae have a transverse foramen on each side of the body.
Q3) What anatomical structures are best demonstrated by the AP oblique projections of the cervical spine?
A) Zygapophyseal joints closer to the IR
B) Zygapophyseal joints farther from the IR
C) Intervertebral foramina closer to the IR
D) Intervertebral foramina farther from the IR
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Chapter 16: Bony Thorax, Chest, and Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding persons with a hypersthenic body habitus?
A) Average body build
B) Organs are located higher and more horizontal
C) Tall and slender body build
D) Organs are longer and narrower in shape
Q2) What is the purpose of rotating the patient's shoulders anteriorly for the PA projection of the chest?
A) This motion rotates the scapulae out of the lungs.
B) This motion reduces magnification of the heart shadow.
C) This motion makes the position more comfortable for the patient.
D) This motion places the coronal plane parallel to the upright grid cabinet.
Q3) The second portion of the small bowel is called the:
A) duodenum.
B) pylorus.
C) jejunum.
D) ileum.
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Chapter 17: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the only moveable facial bone?
A) Maxilla
B) Mandible
C) Zygoma
D) Lacrimal
Q2) What is the name of the articulation between the parietal bones and the occipital bone?
A) Squamosal suture
B) Lambdoidal suture
C) Coronal suture
D) Sagittal suture
Q3) Which of the following is the positioning landmark located at the junction of the nose and the upper lip?
A) Glabella
B) Acanthion
C) Foramen magnum
D) EAM
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Chapter 18: Radiography of Pediatric and Geriatric Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Achieving quality radiographs on elderly patients with demineralized bones is best achieved by decreasing:
A) mAs by 50%.
B) kVp.
C) exposure time.
D) SID.
Q2) Ulcerated areas caused by pressure over bony prominences are called:
A) osteopenia.
B) decubitus ulcers.
C) diverticulitis.
D) ischemic ulcers.
Q3) Which of the following is a commercial immobilization device specially designed for upright chest radiography of infants and small children?
A) Mummy wrap
B) Octostop®
C) Pigg-O-Stat®
D) Tame-Em®
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Chapter 19: Image Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the proper method to hang an AP projection of the foot?
A) With the toes pointing toward the floor
B) With the toes pointing toward the ceiling
C) With the toes pointing toward the right
D) With the toes pointing toward the left
Q2) What error is evident in Figure 19-2?
A) The image is underexposed.
B) An artifact is present.
C) The radiation field is not centered over the anatomy.
D) Anatomy is not oriented correctly for this projection.
Q3) What error is evident in Figure 19-6?
A)Artifacts are present.
B)Part of the anatomy of interest is not included on the image.
C)Anatomy of interest is not properly positioned.
D)The image contrast is too high.
Q4) Which of the following will improve the quality of Figure 19-3?
A) Center the IR and CR more distal and right on the patient.
B) Center the IR and CR more distal and left on the patient.
C) Center the IR and CR more proximal and right on the patient.
D) Center the IR and CR more proximal and left on the patient.
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Chapter 20: Ethics, Legal Considerations, and Professionalism
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a qualified interpreter is used for non-English-speaking patients,the interpreter will:
A) translate only what is said by and to the patient.
B) tell the patient what is likely to happen.
C) insist that the family remain in the room for legal protection.
D) edit the conversation to save valuable time.
Q2) When family members make angry and persistent demands on the staff,this is most likely the result of:
A) lack of confidence in your ability.
B) normal frustration with the health care system.
C) the reasonable expectations of the socially elite.
D) fear over the condition of their relative.
Q3) Which of the following are types of intentional misconduct?
1) Assault
2) Battery
3) Invasion of privacy
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 21: Safety and Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be done for a patient in the supine position who complains of being short of breath while lying down?
A) Place the patient in the Fowler position.
B) Assist the patient into a wheelchair.
C) Place a bolster support under the knees.
D) Call 911.
Q2) The greatest risk of serious infection transmission to health care workers from patients is:
A) HIV and AIDS.
B) hepatitis B.
C) anthrax.
D) pneumonia.
Q3) The duty to ensure that a surgical pack is sterile before it is used is the responsibility of the:
A) manufacturer or the central supply staff that sterilizes equipment.
B) physician who uses the pack.
C) person who opens the pack.
D) nurse who assists the physician.
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Chapter 22: Assessing Patients and Managing Acute Situations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Statements regarding onset,duration,location,and pain quality are essential parts of which of the following?
A) Progress note
B) Medical history
C) Physician's order
D) Requisition for imaging studies
Q2) Temperature readings are highest when taken with which of the following methods?
A) Rectal method
B) Oral method
C) Tympanic method
D) Axillary method
Q3) What is the normal range of temperature when measured orally?
A) 90° to 98° F
B) 96.8° to 99.6° F
C) 98.6° to 99.0° F
D) 100.4° to 101.4° F
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Chapter 23: Medications and Their Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the drug category that is used to relieve pain?
A) Analgesics
B) Antidepressants
C) Cathartics
D) Emetics
Q2) Drugs that are used to treat mild to moderate allergic reactions are called:
A) anticholinergics.
B) antihistamines.
C) analgesics.
D) anesthetics.
Q3) What term is used to indicate when IV fluids or medications are accidentally injected into surrounding tissues rather than the vein?
A) Idiosyncratic
B) Intradermal
C) Extravasation
D) Absorption
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Chapter 24: Medical Laboratory Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vein most commonly used to draw blood specimens is the _____ vein.
A) median cubital
B) cephalic
C) basilic
D) saphenous
Q2) Before placing an adhesive bandage or tape to cover the puncture site,the limited operator should check to see if the patient is:
A) HIV positive.
B) still bleeding.
C) allergic to adhesives.
D) taking anticoagulant medications.
Q3) If the collection tube fails to fill with blood during the venipuncture procedure,the most likely cause is which of the following?
A) Damage to the tube
B) Damage to the needle
C) Failure to secure the tourniquet correctly
D) Failure to place the tip of the needle correctly within the vein
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26
Chapter 25: Additional Procedures for Assessment and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of problem with visual acuity commonly occurs with advancing age?
A) Myopia
B) Hyperopia
C) Presbyopia
D) Color blindness
Q2) To standardize an ECG,the standardization button emits a 1-mV signal. At the 1-STD setting,this signal should be recorded on the graph paper by a deflection of _____ mm.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 5
D) 10
Q3) On an ECG tracing,the P wave represents:
A) atrial contraction.
B) atrial recovery.
C) ventricular recovery.
D) ventricular contraction.
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Chapter 26: Bone Densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) When scanning a lumbar spine,what is one of the external landmarks used for placement of the central ray?
A) 2 cm below the greater trochanter
B) 2 cm below the iliac crest
C) 2 cm above the xiphoid process
D) 2 cm below the xiphoid process
Q2) What is the purpose of vertebral fracture assessment (VFA)?
A) Measures bone density
B) Measures fatty tissue
C) Detects vertebral fractures
D) Detects hip fractures
Q3) Which of the following cells are responsible for building bone?
A) Osteotytes
B) Osteolytes
C) Osteoclasts
D) Osteoblasts
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