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Course Introduction
Principles of Radiographic Imaging provides an in-depth exploration of the foundational concepts and techniques essential for producing high-quality medical radiographs. This course covers the physics of x-ray production, image formation, and the effects of various exposure factors on image quality. Students will learn about the properties of radiation, equipment operation, image receptor systems, and the critical principles of radiation protection. Emphasis is placed on understanding image quality determinants such as contrast, density, resolution, and distortion, as well as the safe and ethical application of radiographic procedures in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Radiographic Physics and Imaging 1st Edition by James Johnston
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16 Chapters
1558 Verified Questions
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Q1) Permanently installed radiographic equipment can never be replaced because it is permanent.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Kilograms-meters per second (kg-m/s)is the unit of measure of:
A) velocity
B) momentum
C) force
D) acceleration
Answer: B
Q3) The first radiograph produced by Dr.Roentgen was of:
A) his own hand
B) his daughter's hand
C) his son's hand
D) his wife's hand
Answer: D
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Q1) The most commonly known modern atomic theory was developed by:
A) Bohr
B) Rutherford
C) Dalton
D) Thomson
Answer: A
Q2) The mass of an atom is primarily due to the mass of the:
A) neutrons
B) nucleus
C) electrons
D) protons
Answer: B
Q3) If an atom has more protons than electrons it will:
A) have a negative charge
B) have a positive charge
C) be electrically neutral
D) have neither a positive not negative charge
Answer: B
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Q1) Electromagnetic radiation:
A) has no mass
B) has significant mass
C) has varying amounts of mass
D) none of the above
Answer: A
Q2) All electromagnetic radiation travels at the same speed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The inverse square law relates the intensity (of light/x-rays)to:
A) velocity
B) time
C) mass
D) distance
Answer: D
Q4) All of the electromagnetic radiations are capable of ionizing matter.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Like poles of a magnet _________ each other and opposite poles ________ each other.
A) attract;attract
B) repel;repel
C) attract;repel
D) repel;attract
Q2) A material that resists the movement of electrons is a(n):
A) ohm
B) insulator
C) conductor
D) inductor
Q3) A capacitor and rheostat are used in electronic timers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ampere is the unit of measure for:
A) electric current
B) electric potential
C) resistance
D) electrostatics
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Q1) Based on the anode heel effect,an image taken at 40 inches SID.may demonstrate:
A) decreased exposure toward the anode end of the beam
B) decreased exposure toward the cathode end of the beam
C) decreased exposure toward the left side of the beam
D) decreased exposure toward the right side of the beam
Q2) When x-rays are produced inside the tube they travel in all directions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The effective focal spot is smaller than the actual focal spot because the face of the anode is angled.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tungsten is used to coat the anode disc because it:
A) has a high melting point
B) has a low melting point
C) has a low atomic number
D) does not conduct heat well
Q5) When the electrons strike the anode target,they all produce x-rays.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The total number of x-ray photons in a beam is referred to as the:
A) x-ray quality
B) x-ray number
C) x-ray quantity
D) x-ray beam
Q2) The discrete emission spectrum is limited to a few specific values.
A)True
B)False
Q3) L-characteristic and higher photon energies are not usually displayed on a discrete emission spectrum because:
A) there are no photons produced at those levels
B) the energies of the photons produced are too high for image production
C) the energies of the photons produced are too low for image formation
D) none of the above;these photon energies are displayed
Q4) The process of a series of outer-shell electrons filling inner-shell vacancies right after the other is called:
A) characteristic tumble
B) characteristic x-rays
C) characteristic sequence
D) characteristic cascade
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Q1) In reference to patient radiation dose,classical scatter interactions:
A) slightly increase dose
B) significantly increase dose
C) have no effect on dose
D) slightly decrease dose
Q2) Dense material,like bone,is considered:
A) radiopaque
B) easy to penetrate
C) radiolucent
D) less likely to absorb radiation
Q3) Secondary x-ray photons are the result of:
A) Compton interactions
B) Thompson scattering
C) photoelectric interactions
D) A and C
Q4) To produce a radiographic image that represents anatomy,there must be:
A) photoelectric interactions
B) transmitted photons
C) differential absorption
D) all of the above
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Q1) Brightness gain of the image intensifier is the:
A) increase in the number of light intensities at the output phosphor
B) increased brightness of the image because the output phosphor is much smaller than the input phosphor
C) combination of minification gain and flux gain
D) none of the above
Q2) Before processing,the image receptor has a(n)__________ image.
A) latent
B) visible
C) invisible
D) A and C
Q3) At higher kilovoltages within the diagnostic range:
A) the percentage of photoelectric interactions increase
B) the percentage of photoelectric interactions decrease
C) the percentage of photoelectric interactions remains the same
D) none of the above
Q4) Imaging tissues with lower atomic numbers results in:
A) increased attenuation
B) decreased attenuation
C) no change in attenuation
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Q1) If there were no contrast in a radiograph,the image would include:
A) only the same shade of gray
B) black and white
C) light gray and dark gray
D) black and light gray
Q2) The spatial resolution of film-screen imaging systems is:
A) excellent
B) poor
C) horrible-that's why we now use digital imaging
D) none of the above
Q3) Increasing visibility of darker anatomic regions is accomplished by:
A) raising the window level
B) lowering the window level
C) increasing the window width
D) decreasing the window width
Q4) Sensitometry is used to evaluate:
A) beam quality
B) film characteristics
C) chemical processing performance
D) B and C
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Q1) Whenever magnification is increased:
A) recorded detail is decreased
B) recorded detail is increased
C) recorded detail stays the same
D) exposure to the image receptor increases
Q2) If a film image has sufficient but not optimal density:
A) it should not be repeated
B) it should be repeated using 30% more or less mAs
C) it should be repeated using twice or half the mAs
D) none of the above
Q3) With digital imaging,if the mAs is too high:
A) the image brightness will appear low (dark)
B) the image brightness will appear appropriate
C) the image brightness will appear high (light)
D) none of the above
Q4) What type of relationship does kVp have with the density of a film image?
A) direct proportional
B) direct but not proportional
C) inverse proportional
D) inverse but not proportional
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Sample Questions
Q1) A focused grid's lead strips are angled to match:
A) the anode angle
B) the angle of the x-rays in the primary beam
C) the angle of the scattered photons leaving the patient
D) the tube angulation
Q2) Which of the following factors need to be considered when determining the grid to be used for a specific examination?
A) patient exposure
B) level of contrast improvement needed
C) focal range
D) all of the above
Q3) Which of the following is the formula used to determine grid ratio?
A) Grid ratio = distance between the lead strips / height of the lead strips
B) Grid ratio = width of the lead strips / height of the lead strips
C) Grid ratio = height of the lead strips / distance between the lead strips
D) Grid ratio = height of the lead strips / width of the lead strips
Q4) The air gap technique is a frequently used method for reducing the amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Scatter control is ___________ important with digital imaging as compared with film-screen.
A) less
B) more
C) the same
D) none of the above
Q2) The fixing stage:
A) hardens the emulsion
B) removes unexposed silver halide crystals
C) makes the image permanent
D) all of the above
Q3) One half of the Nyquist frequency is equal to:
A) the spatial resolution of a digital system
B) the contrast resolution of a digital system
C) the amount of noise in a digital system
D) none of the above
Q4) The wall between a radiographic room and the darkroom should be lined with lead.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When your patient for an AP abdomen is very heavy,using AEC results in:
A) underexposure to the IR
B) overexposure to the IR
C) appropriate exposure to the IR
Q2) The device that converts the light energy to an electrical signal is the:
A) photodiode
B) photocathode
C) photomultiplier tube
D) A and C
Q3) With film-screen imaging using AEC,if an AP thoracic spine is imaged using 110 kVp instead of 80 kVp,the density in the area of interest will be __________________ and the image contrast will be ________________________.(Assume all other factors are appropriate. )
A) light;lower
B) dark;higher
C) the same;lower
D) the same;higher
Q4) All APR settings use AEC
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The diameter of the input phosphor typically measures between:
A) 5-10 cm
B) 15-30 cm
C) 40-65 cm
D) 75-100 cm
Q2) In reference to image intensification,the function that adjusts and maintains the overall image density and contrast during the fluoroscopic procedure is:
A) DQE
B) APR
C) ABC
D) AEC
Q3) Which of the following requires more radiation to produce quality fluoroscopic images?
A) conventional image intensifier
B) flat-panel detector in place of image intensifier
C) there is no difference between the two
Q4) The purpose of a camera tube or CCD is to record the fluoroscopic image.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) AEC devices are always used for mobile radiographic imaging.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As compared with a standard radiographic grid,the grid used for mammography has a __________ grid ratio and a ____________ grid frequency.
A) lower;lower
B) lower;higher
C) higher;lower
D) higher;higher
Q3) During a linear tomographic study,the exposure time must be the same as the:
A) tomographic amplitude
B) section thickness
C) fulcrum level
D) exposure amplitude
Q4) This dedicated unit is used to determine if a patient has osteoporosis.
A) chest
B) panorex
C) mammography
D) bone densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) This refers to all the settings that must be determined for a CT imaging study.
A) protocol
B) SFOV
C) DFOV
D) pitch
Q2) Which of the following data needs to be known to perform an attenuation calculation?
A) thickness of the part
B) age of the patient
C) anatomy being imaged
D) A and C
Q3) Scan time remains constant for all CT studies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The beam-hardening artifact can be reduced by:
A) setting a lower mA
B) using a computer algorithm
C) increasing the matrix
D) increasing the pitch
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