Principles of Radiographic Imaging
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Course Introduction
Principles of Radiographic Imaging introduces students to the foundational concepts and techniques involved in the production and analysis of medical radiographic images. The course covers the nature and properties of x-rays, the operation of radiographic equipment, and the factors that influence image quality, including exposure, contrast, resolution, and patient positioning. Emphasis is placed on understanding the relationship between radiation physics, anatomy, and the technical variables that impact diagnostic imaging. Students will also learn about radiation safety, protection principles, and quality assurance practices to ensure optimal imaging outcomes and patient care in clinical environments.
Recommended Textbook
Radiologic Science for Technologists Physics Biology and Protection 10th Edition by Stewart C. Bushong
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Chapter 1: Essential Concepts of Radiologic Science
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Q1) The formula E=mc² is the basis for the theory that led to the development of _____.
A) x-rays
B) electromagnetic radiation
C) nuclear power
D) cathode ray tubes
Answer: C
Q2) Exposure is measured in units of _____.
A) becquerel
B) sieverts
C) meters
D) grays
Answer: D
Q3) The energy of x-rays is _____.
A) thermal
B) potential
C) kinetic
D) electromagnetic
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Structure of Matter
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Q1) Rutherford's experiments in 1911 showed that the atom was composed of _____.
A) electrons with well-defined orbits
B) a nucleus with an electron cloud
C) electrified plum pudding
D) a ball of hooks and eyes
Answer: C
Q2) An atom that loses or gains one or more electrons is a(n)_____.
A) ion
B) molecule
C) isotope
D) isomer
Answer: A
Q3) The first person to describe an element as being composed of identical atoms was _____.
A) J. J. Thomson
B) John Dalton
C) Dmitri Mendeleev
D) Niels Bohr
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Electromagnetic Energy
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Q1) The _____ of electromagnetic radiation is constant.
A) amplitude
B) velocity
C) frequency
D) wavelength
Answer: B
Q2) Photons with the highest frequencies have the _____.
A) highest velocity
B) lowest energy
C) longest wavelengths
D) shortest wavelengths
Answer: D
Q3) The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its _____.
A) amplitude
B) frequency
C) velocity
D) wavelength
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Electricity, Magnetism, and Electromagnetism
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Q1) The force between magnetic poles is proportional to the _____ of the magnetic pole strengths,divided by the _____ of the distance between them.
A) square, sum
B) sum, square
C) square, product
D) product, square
Q2) On the surface of an electrified object,the charges concentrate on the _____.
A) top side
B) underside
C) sharpest curvatures
D) smoothest curvatures
Q3) In the United States,alternating current goes through a complete cycle every _____ second.
A) 1/120
B) 1/100
C) 1/60
D) 1/30
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6
Chapter 5: The X-ray Imaging System
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Q1) The most accurate type of timer is the _____ timer.
A) mechanical
B) electronic
C) synchronous
D) mAs
Q2) The first component to receive power in the x-ray circuit is the _____.
A) mA meter
B) high voltage transformer
C) rectifier
D) autotransformer
Q3) The operating console contains circuits that are _____.
A) both high voltage and low voltage
B) high voltage only
C) low voltage only
D) non-voltage
Q4) Most mammography units operate with _____ generators.
A) capacitor discharge
B) high frequency
C) single-phase
D) three-phase
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Chapter 6: The X-ray Tube
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Q1) The most widely used support structure for the x-ray tube is the _____.
A) C-arm
B) floor-to-ceiling mount
C) ceiling support system
D) floor support system
Q2) As an x-ray tube ages,the inside can become coated with tungsten,which can cause _____ in the tube.
A) convection
B) anode pitting
C) off-focus radiation
D) arcing
Q3) The _____ is/are outside the glass envelope.
A) stators
B) rotor
C) focal spot
D) filaments
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8
Chapter 7: X-ray Production
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Q1) The efficiency of x-ray production increases as _____ increases.
A) mA
B) kVp
C) time
D) both A and B
Q2) Changes in _____ result in directly proportional changes in the amplitude of the emission spectrum.
A) mA
B) time
C) kVp
D) both A and B
Q3) An increase in kVp would _____ the _____ of the emission spectrum.
A) increase, position alone
B) increase, amplitude alone
C) increase, amplitude and position
D) not affect, amplitude and position
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Chapter 8: X-ray Emission
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Q1) An increase of 15% in kVp is equivalent to increasing mAs _____.
A) 15%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 100%
Q2) If the intensity of a 70 kVp exposure at 20 mAs is 1.0 mGy ,what would it be at 5 mAs?
A) 0.25 mGya
B) 0.5 mGya
C) 2.0 mGya
D) 4.0 mGya
Q3) The inverse square law has the same effect on optical density and x-ray _____.
A) intensity
B) exposure
C) quantity
D) all of the above
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Chapter 9: X-ray Interaction with Matter
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Q1) Which has the greatest mass density?
A) fat
B) soft tissue
C) bone
D) air
Q2) X-rays transmitted without interaction contribute to _____.
A) photoelectric absorption
B) the radiographic image
C) the image fog
D) beam attenuation
Q3) Attenuation is caused by _____.
A) absorption
B) scattering
C) transmission
D) both A and B
Q4) A negative contrast agent is _____.
A) air
B) iodine
C) barium
D) water
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Chapter 10: Concepts of Radiographic Image Quality
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Q1) Subject contrast is affected by _____.
A) mAs
B) focal spot size
C) patient thickness
D) voltage ripple
Q2) What is the formula for optical density?
A) OD = log10(Io/It)
B) OD = log10(It/Io)
C) OD = Io/It
D) OD = It/ Io
Q3) If 10% of the viewbox light is transmitted through an area of film,what is the optical density in that area?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
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Chapter 11: Control of Scatter Radiation
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Q1) Federal regulations passed in _____ required that positive beam limiting devices be on all manufactured x-ray collimators.
A) 1954
B) 1974
C) 1994
D) 2000
Q2) Scatter radiation increases as _____ increases.
A) photoelectric absorption
B) field size
C) filtration
D) contrast
Q3) The most commonly used beam restricting device is the _____.
A) extension cone
B) variable collimator
C) aperture diaphragm
D) compression device
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Chapter 12: Screen-Film Radiography
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Q1) The main purpose of the gelatin emulsion in radiographic film is to _____.
A) resist chemical penetration
B) hold the silver halide crystals
C) maintain dimensional stability
D) protect the base
Q2) Image noise in increased with increased _____.
A) detective quantum efficiency (DQE)
B) conversion efficiency (CE)
C) both A and B
D) none of the above
Q3) Photon interactions in the emulsion occur with exposure to _____.
A) x-rays
B) light
C) heat
D) both A and B
Q4) The layer of screen that lies closest to the film is the _____.
A) screen base
B) fluorescent layer
C) protective coating
D) reflective layer
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Chapter 13: Screen-Film Radiographic Technique
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Q1) List the following tissues in order from the most radiolucent to the most radiopaque.
I. muscle
II. fat
III. lung
IV. bone
A) IV, I, II, III
B) III, I, II, IV
C) III, II, I, IV
D) II, III, I, IV
Q2) The small focal spot will provide a _____.
I. higher quality x-rays beam
II. greater quantity of x-rays
III. finer detail of image
A) I only
B) I & III
C) III only
D) I, II & III
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Chapter 14: Computers in Medical Imaging
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Q1) In computer language,_____ is a "word."
A) 2 bytes
B) 2 bits
C) 16 units
D) 8 pixels
Q2) MAC-OS,Windows,and Unix are three different _____ systems.
A) hardware
B) printer
C) operating
D) output
Q3) The active storage of a computer is stored in _____ chips.
A) DRAM
B) SRAM
C) ROM
D) all of the above
Q4) The _____ represents zero or one.
A) byte
B) bit
C) gigabyte
D) terabyte
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Chapter 15: Computed Radiography
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Q1) Switching from screen-film imaging to computed radiography can _____ patient dose.
A) increase
B) reduce
C) not effect
D) remove
Q2) The computed radiography cassette is called a(n)_____ plate.
A) optical
B) imaging
C) laser
D) thermoluminescent
Q3) When switching from screen-film imaging to computed radiography,which step is eliminated?
A) creating the latent image
B) reloading the cassette
C) selecting an exposure technique
D) processing the latent image
Q4) The digital imaging plate can sit for some time after the erase cycle.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Digital Radiography
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Q1) Computed radiography uses (a)_____ for latent image formation.
A) thin film transistors
B) photosensitive silicon chips
C) photostimulable phosphor
D) semiconductor material
Q2) Conventional x-ray tubes and cassettes are used with _____ radiography systems.
A) computed
B) scanned projection
C) direct capture
D) all of the above
Q3) The dynamic range determines the degree of _____ in the image.
A) contrast resolution
B) spatial resolution
C) motion blur
D) all of the above
Q4) Digital imaging could only be developed after advances were made in _____.
A) microprocessors
B) semiconductor memory
C) photostimulable phosphors
D) both A and B
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Digital Radiographic Technique
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Q1) The use of two screens in imaging results in a higher _____.
A) spatial frequency
B) pixel size
C) MTF
D) spatial resolution
Q2) If an image receptor has a high probability of interacting with the x-ray beam,then it has a high _____.
A) DQE
B) SNR
C) MTF
D) lp/mm
Q3) The portion of useful image-forming x-rays is referred to as the _____.
A) frequency
B) MTF
C) signal
D) noise
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Chapter 18: Viewing the Digital Radiographic Image
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Q1) PACS stands for _____.
A) Processing, Applications, and Computer Storage
B) Processing, Archiving, and Computer Storage
C) Physician Applications and Communication Systems
D) Picture Archiving and Communication Systems
Q2) The science of _____ is the study of the response of the human eye to light.
A) physiology
B) optometry
C) photometry
D) ophthalmology
Q3) What is the file size of an image with a 1026 * 1026 matrix and a 2.5 byte gray scale depth?
A) 2,565 bits
B) 1,053 bits
C) 26 MB
D) 2.6 MB
Q4) A digital display device with higher megapixels has better spatial resolution.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Screen-Film Radiographic Artifacts
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Q1) A streak of high optical density on the finished radiograph can be caused by _____.
A) film boxes stacked too high in storage
B) light leaks in the cassette or darkroom
C) inadequate washing in the processor
D) high humidity in the darkroom
Q2) A screen film radiographic artifact can be _____.
A) an object that is not part of the radiographed anatomy
B) patient motion
C) an improper grid or warped cassette
D) any of the above
Q3) Misalignment of the processor turnaround assembly can cause _____.
A) tree static
B) grid cut-off
C) Pi lines
D) guide-shoe marks
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Chapter 20: Screen-Film Radiographic Quality Control
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Q1) The measured kVp should be within ±_____% of the kVp indicated on the console.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Q2) A quality control program is for _____.
A) film processors
B) CT scanners
C) x-ray tubes
D) all of the above
Q3) Most quality control testing on radiographic equipment is done _____.
A) annually
B) semiannually
C) monthly
D) weekly
Q4) A positive beam limitation (PBL)device is involved in?
A) Collimation
B) Exposure control
C) Dose reduction
D) Protocol monitoring
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Digital Radiographic Artifacts
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Q1) During preprocessing the digital output of the image receptor may need to be manipulated to correct for _____.
A) dead pixels
B) image blur
C) ghost images
D) radiation fatigue
Q2) What size is the average CR or DR image file?
A) 10 KB
B) 100 KB
C) 20 MB
D) 200 MB
Q3) Radiation fatigue occurs in _____.
A) film-screen radiography
B) CR digital image plates
C) DR digital image plates
D) all of the above
Q4) Artifacts are an acceptable part of digital imaging.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Digital Radiographic Quality Control
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Q1) There are _____ types of photometers commonly used.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Q2) Daily quality control testing is done by the medical physicist.
A) True
B) False
Q3) A standard pattern made to measure the resolution of digital display systems is called the _____.
A) VESA pattern
B) SMPTE pattern
C) Gray Scale Display Function
D) DICOM standard
Q4) Specular reflection can be assessed by only turning off the monitor in ambient light.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Mammography
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Q1) It is recommended that women obtain their first baseline mammogram before the age of _____.
A) thirty
B) forty
C) fifty
D) sixty
Q2) Mammograms are taken with _____ cassettes.
A) double screen
B) single screen
C) non-screen
D) both A and B
Q3) The American Cancer Society recommends that all women _____ years of age and above have an annual screening mammogram.
A) 45
B) 50
C) 55
D) 60
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Chapter 24: Mammography Quality Control
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Q1) The medical physicist is responsible for the _____.
A) monthly equipment check
B) quarterly conference with the radiologist
C) annual artifact evaluation
D) semiannual compression check
Q2) The purpose of a quality assurance program is to maintain the maximum _____ with the minimum _____.
A) equipment function, department costs
B) patient satisfaction, exam time
C) quality of mammograms, patient dose
D) patient care, exam time
Q3) The first step in quality control is the daily _____.
A) darkroom cleaning
B) sensitometric strip
C) screen cleaning
D) phantom image
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Chapter 25: Fluoroscopy
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Q1) The number of light photons emitted within the image intensifier is _____ to the amount of x-ray photons exiting the patient.
A) equal
B) unrelated
C) inversely proportional
D) directly proportional
Q2) An image intensifier tube is identified by the diameter of its _____.
A) input phosphor
B) glass housing
C) output phosphor
D) focusing lenses
Q3) Automatic brightness control (ABC)maintains the brightness of the image by varying _____.
A) monitor settings
B) kVp and mA
C) monitor bandwidth
D) all of the above
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Chapter 26: Digital Fluoroscopy
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Q1) Digital fluoroscopy with a charge-coupled device has lower _____ and higher _____ than conventional fluoroscopy.
A) light sensitivity, patient dose
B) patient dose, light sensitivity
C) detective quantum efficiency, maintenance
D) signal-to-noise ratio, patient dose
Q2) The combination of temporal and energy subtraction techniques is called _____.
A) interlacing mode subtraction
B) hybrid subtraction
C) dual subtraction
D) superimposition
Q3) Digital fluoroscopy systems with hybrid capabilities use both _____.
A) interlace and progressive modes
B) high mAs and low mass techniques
C) temporal and energy subtraction
D) charge coupled devices and TV monitors
Q4) Digital fluoroscopic dose rate is lower than that for continuous analog fluoroscopy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Interventional Radiography
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Q1) The patient table is moved with a floor switch to maintain a _____.
A) better motion control
B) smooth movement
C) low exposure rate
D) sterile field
Q2) During an interventional procedure,_____ must be maintained on the patient.
A) pulse oximetry
B) blood pressure measurement
C) electrocardiography
D) all of the above
Q3) The size and construction of the _____ determines the anode heat capacity.
A) tube housing
B) cathode wire
C) bearing assembly
D) anode disk
Q4) When imaging a flow of contrast from the abdomen to the feet,a _____ is used.
A) tilting table
B) stepping table
C) sliding tube
D) cine camera
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Chapter 28: Computed Tomography
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Q1) Many CT x-ray tubes have the capacity for millions of _____ with each exam.
A) heat units
B) rotations
C) volts
D) Hertz
Q2) Image noise in CT scanning depends on _____.
A) pixel size
B) detector efficiency
C) slice thickness
D) all of the above
Q3) A high variation in pixel values in a homogenous phantom is a measure of _____.
A) spatial resolution
B) image noise
C) contrast resolution
D) motion artifact
Q4) Each sweep of the source-detector around the body during CT is called a _____.
A) rotation
B) reconstruction
C) translation
D) projection
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Chapter 29: Human Biology
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Q1) The human body is composed of about 80% _____.
A) carbohydrates
B) protein
C) nucleic acids
D) water
Q2) The most radiosensitive target molecule in the human cell is the _____.
A) protein
B) DNA
C) hormone
D) glucose
Q3) The _____ is the basic functional unit of all plants and animals.
A) DNA
B) cell
C) macromolecule
D) lipid
Q4) DNA is located in the _____ of the cell.
A) nucleus
B) cytoplasm
C) wall
D) both A and B
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Fundamental Principles of Radiobiology
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Q1) Which dose-response relationship can follow a sigmoid curve?
A) linear-nonthreshold
B) linear-threshold
C) nonlinear-nonthreshold
D) nonlinear-threshold
Q2) A _____ response to radiation is directly proportional to the dose received.
A) linear
B) nonlinear
C) curvilinear
D) non-threshold
Q3) The human dose-response relationship at low ranges of radiation is calculated using _____.
A) known responses from low doses
B) extrapolation from high ranges
C) human experiments
D) all of the above
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Chapter 31: Molecular Radiobiology
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Q1) A type of DNA damage that may not be reversible is a _____.
A) cross-linking
B) base change or loss
C) rung breakage
D) severed side rail
Q2) The principal radiation interactions within the human body are assumed to be
A) indirect effects
B) direct effects
C) DNA damage
D) cell destruction
Q3) Two OH* free radicals can join to form _____ molecules.
A) organic free radical
B) hydroperoxyl
C) hydrogen peroxide
D) DNA
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Chapter 32: Cellular Radiobiology
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Q1) A target molecule that is _____ will always cause cell death.
A) inactivated
B) damaged
C) hit
D) ionized
Q2) The mean lethal dose for high LET radiation is ______ than after low LET radiation.
A) higher
B) lower
C) the same
D) unknown
Q3) Human cells are most radiosensitive during the _____ phase of the cell cycle.
A) gap2
B) gap1
C) mitosis
D) synthesis
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Chapter 33: Deterministic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) Gonadal responses to radiation have been observed at doses as low as _____ Gy.
A) 1
B) 0.5
C) 0.2
D) 0.1
Q2) Localized doses of 7 Gy to the skin can cause _____.
A) death
B) permanent hair loss
C) gastrointestinal syndrome
D) all of the above
Q3) About half of the population will experience skin erythema following a localized dose of _____ Gy.
A) 5
B) 3.5
C) 1
D) 0.5
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Chapter 34: Stochastic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) Ankylosing spondylitis patients treated with radiation showed an increased incidence of _____.
A) leukemia
B) cancer
C) early death
D) infertility
Q2) An epidemiological study of the stochastic effects of very low doses of radiation requires a population of _____ of people.
A) millions
B) thousands
C) hundreds
D) dozens
Q3) Low doses of radiation have been shown to cause _____.
A) chromosome damage
B) loss of fertility
C) cataracts
D) radiodermatitis
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Chapter 35: Health Physics
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Q1) When using the inverse square law during fluoroscopy,the patient should be considered a(n)_____ source of radiation.
A) area
B) linear
C) round
D) point
Q2) Health physics is concerned with minimizing radiation dose to _____.
A) radiation physicists
B) radiation workers
C) the public
D) all of the above
Q3) What is the NCRP?
A) National Council of Radiation Protection
B) National Council of Radiology Personnel
C) National Committee on Radiation Prevention
D) National Committee on Random Particles
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Chapter 36: Designing for Radiation Protection
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15681
Sample Questions
Q1) A controlled area is one occupied primarily by _____.
A) radiology personnel
B) patients
C) the general public
D) both A and B
Q2) A secondary barrier is designed to absorb _____ radiation
A) leakage
B) scattered
C) primary
D) both A and B
Q3) The output intensities of reproduced exposures should not vary more than _____% from each other.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Patient Radiation Dose Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glandular dose from mammography is approximately _____ of the ESE.
A) 5%
B) 15%
C) 100%
D) 200%
Q2) If the output intensity of an x-ray machine is 0.064 mGy/mAs at 80 kVp,what is the patient's ESE for an exam done at 20 mAs at 80 kVp?
A) 1.6 mGy
B) 1.28 mGy
C) 0.64 mGy
D) 0.064 mGy
Q3) Patient skin exposure can be measured indirectly by using a _____.
A) thermoluminescent dosimeter
B) nomogram
C) G-M counter
D) stop watch
Q4) CT is considered a low-dose procedure.
A) True
B) False
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Chapter 38: Occupational Radiation Dose Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Technologists working fluoroscopy should use the radiologist as shielding whenever possible in addition to the apron and curtain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The tissue weighting factor has a higher value for tissues with more _____.
A) density
B) thickness
C) radiosensitivity
D) radioresistance
Q3) Occupational dose is described as _____.
A) exposure dose
B) threshold dose
C) effective dose
D) dose equivalent
Q4) The dose limit to the general public is _____.
A) 1 mSv/yr (100 mrem/yr)
B) 10 mSv/yr (1000 mrem/yr)
C) 100 mSv/yr (10 rem/yr)
D) 1 Sv/yr (100 rem/yr)
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