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Principles of Radiographic Exposure introduces students to the fundamental concepts and technical factors involved in producing high-quality diagnostic radiographs. The course covers the interactions between X-rays and matter, the characteristics of X-ray beam production, and the critical elements that influence image formation, such as exposure time, tube current, voltage, distance, and image receptor types. Emphasis is placed on the relationship between exposure parameters and image quality attributes like density, contrast, resolution, and distortion, as well as radiation safety practices. Students will develop an understanding of how to select and adjust exposure factors to optimize image quality while minimizing patient dose.
Recommended Textbook
Radiographic Imaging and Exposure 3rd Edition by Terri L. Fauber
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12 Chapters
345 Verified Questions
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Q1) Which of the following is a correct description of the relationship between the wavelength and the frequency of the x-ray photon?
A) Wavelength and frequency are directly proportional.
B) Wavelength and frequency are inversely related by the square root of lambda.
C) Frequency and wavelength are inversely related.
D) Wavelength and frequency have no relationship to each other.
Answer: C
Q2) The letter "x" in x-ray is the symbol for:
A) electricity.
B) the unknown.
C) penetrating.
D) discovery.
Answer: B
Q3) The first radiograph produced by Roentgen, of his wife's hand, required an exposure time of:
A) 15 seconds.
B) 150 seconds.
C) 15 minutes.
D) 150 minutes.
Answer: C
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Q1) What is the name of the exact area on the anode that is struck by the electron beam?
A) Focal spot
B) Focal point
C) Target
D) Any of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following could be defined as the production of an x-ray photon by the electrostatic attraction between the incident electron and the nucleus of the tungsten atom?
A) Photoelectric interaction
B) Bremsstrahlung interaction
C) Characteristic interaction
D) Pair production interaction
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) During image intensification, the electrons are focused by the:
A) input phosphor.
B) output phosphor.
C) electrostatic lenses.
D) TV monitor.
Answer: C
Q2) The digital radiographic system that uses a cassette is:
A) DR.
B) CT.
C) CS.
D) CR.
Answer: D
Q3) When the x-ray photon strikes an atom within the tissue being imaged and loses all of its energy to an inner shell electron of that atom, the photon is said to have been _____ and undergone the _____.
A) transmitted, Compton effect
B) absorbed, photoelectric interaction
C) attenuated, Compton effect
D) scattered, coherent interaction
Answer: B
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Q1) Generally speaking, what is the kVp value for a pediatric (less than 6 years old) skull compared with the adult skull?
A) 5% less
B) 15% less
C) 50% less
D) 50% more
Q2) If the kVp were decreased by 15% and no changes were made to the mAs:
A) density would be unchanged and contrast would decrease.
B) density would increase and contrast would decrease.
C) density would decrease and contrast would increase.
D) there would be no change in either contrast or density.
Q3) What is the primary controller of image contrast?
A) kVp
B) mA
C) Seconds
D) None of the above
Q4) Kilovoltage does not affect radiographic density until adequate penetration is reached.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The SOD can be found by:
A) adding SID and OID.
B) adding the MF to the OID.
C) subtracting the OID from SID.
D) subtracting the SID from the MF.
Q2) The most detrimental factor to maximum recorded detail is:
A) increased OID.
B) decreased SID.
C) large focal spot size.
D) motion.
Q3) If the object size measures 6.2 inches and the image size measures 7.5 inches, what is the magnification factor?
A) 0.83
B) 1.21
C) 1.30
D) 13.7
Q4) What effect will using a slower speed imaging system have on recorded detail?
A) Increased recorded detail
B) Decreased recorded detail
C) No effect on recorded detail
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Q1) If an excellent knee radiograph is produced using 10 mAs and an 8:1 ratio grid, how much mAs will be needed if no grid is available?
A) 2.5 mAs
B) 4 mAs
C) 8 mAs
D) 10 mAs
Q2) When a grid is needed but not available, the _____ may be used for certain examinations.
A) tomographic technique
B) air-gap technique
C) Seldinger technique
D) reverse collimation technique
Q3) Also called lateral decentering, the _____ grid error results when the central ray is not aligned to the middle of a focused grid.
A) off-level
B) off-focus
C) off-center
D) upside-down focused
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Q1) What kind of radiographic film is designed to respond specifically to x-radiation and not to the light emitted from intensifying screens?
A) Direct exposure film
B) Screen film
C) Orthochromatic film
D) Panchromatic film
Q2) What is the term specifically used to describe the emission of light during stimulation only?
A) Luminescence
B) Phosphorescence
C) Fluorescence
D) Incandescence
Q3) The DR detector array is typically located:
A) inside the cassette.
B) by the computer keyboard.
C) on top of the table.
D) where you would normally find the Bucky tray.
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Q1) A safelight fog quality control test should be performed:
A) daily.
B) weekly.
C) quarterly.
D) semi-annually.
Q2) The process of replacing processing chemicals with fresh chemicals is known as:
A) recirculation.
B) replenishment.
C) temperature control.
D) transport.
Q3) Compared to baseline measurements, speed and contrast indicators should not vary more than _____ optical density.
A) 0.05
B) 0.10
C) 0.15
D) 0.20
Q4) To achieve proper replenishment, the film should be placed on the feed tray so that the leading edge is the shorter dimension.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the area on the sensitometric curve that represents the minimum level of density?
A) Toe
B) Shoulder
C) Slope
D) Dmax
Q2) What aspect of a film is being assessed by looking at the amount of exposure required to achieve a density of 1.0 plus B+F?
A) Gamma
B) Latitude
C) Speed
D) Dmax
Q3) Where does the area of the characteristic curve known as a solarization occur?
A) Prior to the shoulder
B) After the shoulder
C) Along the slope
D) Before the toe
Q4) The lower the speed exposure point, the faster the film speed.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Technique charts are still needed when using Automatic Exposure Control (AEC).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Radiographic contrast would be standardized with the:
A) variable kVp/fixed mAs technique chart design.
B) variable kVp/variable mAs technique chart design.
C) fixed kVp/variable mAs technique chart design.
D) fixed kVp/fixed mAs technique chart design.
Q3) What are calipers used for?
A) To measure the mA
B) To select the S number
C) To select focal spot size
D) To measure the part
Q4) A technique chart should be established for:
A) each radiographer.
B) each radiographic tube.
C) each radiologist.
D) a and c
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Q1) AEC eliminates the need for the radiographer to select the actual _____ the examination will require.
A) kVp
B) SID
C) time
D) focal spot size
Q2) The most common cause for repeating images done with film-screen and AEC is inaccurate:
A) kVp selection.
B) back-up mAs selection.
C) centering.
D) alignment of the tube and image receptor.
Q3) In order to become familiar with manual technical factors (i.e., setting mAs and kVp and not using AEC), it is very helpful to pay attention to the:
A) exposure time.
B) heat units.
C) density control.
D) mAs readout.
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Q1) A significant advantage of digital compared to film-screen radiography is:
A) reduced patient exposure.
B) latent image formation.
C) spatial resolution.
D) postprocessing image enhancement.
Q2) _____ is the postprocessing technique that suppresses image noise.
A) Contrast enhancement
B) Edge enhancement
C) Subtraction
D) Smoothing
Q3) Which imaging method(s) require(s) the shortest time from exposure to image viewing?
A) Film-screen
B) CR
C) DR
D) a and b
Q4) The pixel bit depth determines the amount of shades of gray the system is capable of displaying on the digital image.
A)True
B)False
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