Principles of Psychology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Psychology offers an introduction to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. Covering key concepts such as perception, learning, memory, emotion, development, personality, and psychological disorders, this course explores both foundational theories and current research. Through examining biological, cognitive, and social influences on human behavior, students gain insight into how psychological principles apply to everyday life, as well as an understanding of methodologies used in psychological research and practice.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology in Modules 12th Edition by
David G. Myers
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2
Chapter 1: The History and Scope of Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using examples,provide support for the claim that the same underlying processes guide the behavior and mental processes of people everywhere.
Answer: no answer
Q2) Checking on the credibility of the sources of information you use in a class report is most indicative of
A) a biopsychosocial approach.
B) critical thinking.
C) introspection.
D) functionalism.
Answer: B
Q3) Early behaviorists such as John B.Watson would have been LEAST likely to encourage research that focused on
A) maladaptive eating habits.
B) the meaning of frightening dreams.
C) effective parenting techniques.
D) crime-deterring legal practices.
Answer: B
Q4) What is the difference between structuralism and functionalism?
Answer: no answer
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Chapter 2: Thinking Critically with Psychological Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose that people who watch a lot of violence on TV are also particularly likely to behave aggressively.This relationship would NOT necessarily indicate that watching violence influences aggressive behavior because A) we most readily notice associations that confirm our beliefs. B) association does not prove causation.
C) sampling extreme cases leads to false generalizations. D) the sample may have been randomly selected.
Answer: B
Q2) The most reliable way of testing whether a newly introduced method of psychological therapy is truly effective is to use A) survey research.
B) naturalistic observation.
C) correlational research.
D) experimental research.
Answer: D
Q3) Explain how research in psychological science is used to create,test,and verify or disprove various theories.
Answer: no answer
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4
Chapter 3: Research Strategies: How Psychologists Ask and
Answer Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an arithmetic average is reported in the news,it is most important for readers to
A) determine whether it is statistically significant.
B) consider whether it is distorted by a few extreme cases.
C) be sure that it represents a standard deviation.
D) assume that it is the midpoint of a normal curve.
Answer: B
Q2) Approximately 95 percent of the cases represented by the normal curve fall within ________ standard deviation(s)from the mean.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
Answer: B
Q3) The arithmetic average of a distribution of scores is the A) mode.
B) median.
C) standard deviation.
D) mean.
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Neural and Hormonal Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the feedback system that reveals the intimate connection between the nervous and endocrine systems?
A) brain F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 pituitary F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 other glands F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 hormones
F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 brain and body
B) brain and body F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 hormones F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 pituitary F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 brain
C) hormones F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 other glands F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 pituitary F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 brain and body
D) pituitary F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 hormones F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 glands F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10 brain
Q2) The division of the peripheral nervous system controlling the body's skeletal muscles is the
A) motor nervous system.
B) sympathetic nervous system.
C) somatic nervous system.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.
Q3) The basic building blocks of our neural information system are neurons.Explain what neurons are,how they work,and how they communicate or transmit information?
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Chapter 5: The Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Our pleasurable "chills" response to a favorite piece of music is facilitated by the release of the neurotransmitter
A) GABA.
B) cortisol.
C) ACh.
D) dopamine.
Q2) Your ability to experience the physical pleasure of a hot shower is most likely to be disrupted by damage to your A) cerebellum.
B) hippocampus.
C) amygdala.
D) thalamus.
Q3) Which baseball-sized structure at the rear of the brainstem serves many functions,including helping you to judge time and to discriminate sounds and textures?
A) amygdala
B) cerebellum
C) hippocampus
D) corpus callosum
Q4) Compare and contrast the various ways that neuroscientists study the brain.
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Chapter 6: Behavior Genetics and Evolutionary Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) After Clark's left hand was amputated,the somatosensory cortex area that had processed sensations of touch from that hand gradually began to process touch sensations from his lower left arm.This best illustrates the consequences of A) neurogenesis.
B) plasticity.
C) lateralization.
D) the split brain.
Q2) Deaf people who use sign language typically
A) demonstrate greater mathematical competence than hearing persons.
B) process language in their left cerebral hemisphere.
C) have better communication skills than hearing persons.
D) have a smaller corpus callosum than hearing persons.
Q3) Which of the following is located in the temporal lobes?
A) the visual cortex.
B) the auditory cortex.
C) the motor cortex.
D) the somatosensory cortex.
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Chapter 7: Environmental Influences on Behavior, and
Reflections on Nature and Nurture
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Sample Questions
Q1) When it first emerged as a field of study,psychology was defined as the A) description and explanation of states of consciousness.
B) scientific study of observations of behavior.
C) study of mental processes and psychological disorders.
D) scientific study of mental health and its consequences.
Q2) Conscious experience arises from A) parallel processing.
B) inattentional blindness.
C) popout.
D) synchronized activity across the brain.
Q3) Simultaneously assessing the taste,texture,and temperature of food in your mouth best illustrates A) blindsight.
B) popout.
C) parallel processing.
D) the cocktail party effect.
Q4) Contrast the impact of behaviorism and cognitive neuroscience on psychologists' approach to the study of consciousness.Also explain why you do or do not believe that advances in cognitive neuroscience indicate that consciousness actually exerts a causal influence on our behaviors.
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Chapter 8: Prenatal Development and the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) As Inge recalled her dream,she was dancing with a tall,dark,and handsome gentleman when suddenly the music shifted to loud rock and the man disappeared.According to Freud,Inge's account represents the ________ content of her dream.
A) paradoxical
B) manifest
C) latent
D) hypnagogic
Q2) Research indicates that Canadian,American,British,German,and Japanese adults tend to sleep ________ on workdays than on other days.They also tend to go to bed ________ than did their counterparts a century ago.
A) more;earlier
B) more;later
C) less;earlier
D) less;later
Q3) Children who suffer night terrors typically
A) fail to recall these episodes the next day.
B) experience greater-than-average amounts of slow-wave sleep.
C) have dreams that they are suffocating or drowning.
D) require prescription drugs to recover from this condition.
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Chapter 9: Infancy and Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) One biological basis for addiction involves brain activity in the ________ reward system.
A) sensory
B) dopamine
C) motor
D) melatonin
Q2) When deprived of nicotine,smokers experience heightened levels of A) hallucinations.
B) distractibility.
C) dopamine.
D) endorphins.
Q3) Near-death experiences are
A) typically triggered by the release of endorphins.
B) often accompanied by visions of bright lights.
C) recalled by nearly all who have been revived from a cardiac arrest.
D) a clear indication of a substance use disorder.
Q4) A classmate believes that alcohol,marijuana,and cocaine all have similar effects on behavior and that therefore all three drugs ought to be legalized.Carefully evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of your classmate's position.
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Chapter 10: Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Depending on environmental conditions,specific genes can be either
A) monozygotic or dizygotic.
B) active or inactive.
C) identical or fraternal.
D) structured or unstructured.
Q2) At a genetic level,humans and chimpanzees are ________ percent identical.
A) 27
B) 52
C) 77
D) 96
Q3) Those who inappropriately attribute children's troubling personality traits to inadequate parental nurture should most clearly be reminded of the importance of A) our shared human nature.
B) the persistence of temperament.
C) Freudian psychology.
D) the shared family environment.
Q4) Mark and Paul are identical twins.Explain what can be expected in terms of similarities and differences (their personality,for instance).Use research findings to support your answer.
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Chapter 11: Adulthood, and Reflections on Developmental Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principle of natural selection was first advanced by A) Dmitry Belyaev.
B) Sigmund Freud.
C) Charles Darwin.
D) Steven Pinker.
Q2) The researchers who domesticated foxes through selective mating were
A) Belyaev and Trut.
B) Dawkins and Darwin.
C) Pinker and Segall.
D) Eagly and Wood.
Q3) Jason spends a lot of money on luxury possessions in order to win the sexual affections of women he finds attractive.Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to attribute his behavior to
A) social scripts.
B) a universal moral grammar.
C) a sexual overperception bias.
D) genetic predispositions.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Introduction to Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Karen and Max are opposite-sex fraternal twins.The primary sex characteristic that differentiates them first began to develop
A) at their conception.
B) about seven weeks after their conception.
C) about the fourth month after their conception.
D) about the sixth month after their conception.
Q2) The male answer syndrome suggests that men are less likely than women to demonstrate
A) individualism.
B) gender typing.
C) social modesty.
D) secondary sex characteristics.
Q3) Compared with the difference in self-esteem between the average female and the average male,the variation in self-esteem among individual males is ________ and the variations in self-esteem among individual females is ________.
A) larger;smaller
B) smaller;larger
C) larger;larger
D) smaller;smaller
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Matsuko's major research interest is the long-term effects of child-raising practices on the psychological adjustment of offspring.It is most likely that Dr.Matsuko is a ________ psychologist.
A) cognitive
B) developmental
C) biological
D) psychodynamic
Q2) Day-old American and Swedish newborns were observed to pause more in their pacifier sucking when listening to
A) familiar vowels from their mother's language.
B) unfamiliar words from their father's language.
C) the voice sounds of a sibling.
D) musical instruments over a radio.
Q3) A reflex refers to
A) decreasing responsiveness to repeated stimulation.
B) an epigenetic effect that is observable at birth.
C) an automatic response to sensory stimulation.
D) the consistency of temperament over time.
Q4) What are the three major issues in developmental psychology? Provide an example of each.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Hearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Piaget,during the formal operational stage people begin to A) reason abstractly.
B) adhere to social norms.
C) distinguish between helpful and harmful behaviors.
D) experience object permanence.
Q2) Difficult babies with an intense temperament tend to be
A) intelligent and imaginative.
B) irritable and unpredictable.
C) fearless and assertive.
D) extraverted and cheerful.
Q3) Julie understands that if 4 coins added to 5 coins equals 9 coins,then 4 coins subtracted from 9 coins equals 5 coins.This indicates that Julie has reached A) a critical period.
B) the formal operational stage.
C) a secure attachment.
D) the concrete operational stage.
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Chapter 15: Other Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ten-year-old Heidi is maturing early and already towers over all the girls and most of the boys in her fifth-grade class.Heidi is likely to be
A) the most popular student in class.
B) self-assured and independent.
C) challenging her teacher's authority.
D) the object of some teasing.
Q2) Who is likely to be the most popular student in the fifth-grade class?
A) Helmut,who is the tallest boy in the class
B) Jeff,who is the statistician for the basketball team
C) Hara,who is below average in height and physical maturity
D) Sally,who is the most sexually mature girl in the class
Q3) Young children who more consistently delayed gratification in Mischel's classic marshmallow tests are best described as more
A) socially dependent.
B) self-controlled.
C) anxious.
D) self-disclosing.
Q4) Explain the concept of social identity and provide an example.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Perceptual Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shriveled protein filaments in the cell bodies of acetylcholine-producing neurons is a telltale abnormality associated with A) menopause.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) brain plasticity.
D) pneumonia.
Q2) Marie feels socially useful in her career as a financial investment adviser.Erik Erikson would have suggested that Marie experiences a sense of A) attachment.
B) autonomy.
C) generativity.
D) plasticity.
Q3) Remembering to do something at a particular time or in particular circumstances is called A) terminal decline.
B) prospective memory.
C) the social clock.
D) working memory.
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18
Chapter 17: Perceptual Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tyler formed a positive first impression of a new teacher because her facial expressions triggered memories of his favorite aunt.This best illustrates the impact of A) priming.
B) prosopagnosia.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) Weber's law.
Q2) You are the president of a corporation that owns several large department stores.A board member has a plan for preventing shoplifting: In each store,play musical soundtracks containing subliminal verbal messages such as "don't steal" and "shoplifting is a crime." Carefully discuss your reasons for supporting or rejecting this proposal to engage in subliminal persuasion.
Q3) During a hearing test,many sounds were presented at such a low level of intensity that Mr.Antall could hardly detect them.These sounds were below Mr.Antall's A) perceptual set.
B) absolute threshold.
C) prosopagnosia.
D) difference threshold.
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Chapter 18: Waking and Sleeping Rhythms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which receptor cells most directly enable us to distinguish different wavelengths of light?
A) rods
B) cones
C) bipolar cells
D) feature detectors
Q2) The direct link between a single cone and a single ________ preserves the fine details in the cone's message.
A) rod
B) ganglion cell
C) blind spot
D) bipolar cell
Q3) Bobby is reading a blog post on the Internet.Which of the following outlines the path through which the words on the screen travel through his eye?
A) pupil,lens,cornea,iris
B) cornea,pupil,lens,retina
C) pupil,lens,iris,retina
D) lens,pupil,retina,iris
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Chapter 19: Hypnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loudness is to amplitude as pitch is to A) intensity.
B) decibels.
C) rhythm.
D) frequency.
Q2) The basilar membrane is located in the A) middle ear.
B) auditory canal.
C) semicircular canal.
D) cochlea.
Q3) Suppose that unhypnotized adults who are encouraged to behave like children act just as genuinely childlike as hypnotized adults who are encouraged to act in a childlike manner.This fact would most clearly support the view that hypnosis involves A) precognition.
B) social influence.
C) psychokinesis.
D) dissociation.
Q4) Explain why both top-down and bottom-up processing are emphasized by those who take a biopsychosocial approach to understanding pain and pain control.
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Chapter 20: Drugs and Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Pavlov's experiments on the salivary conditioning of dogs,the US was A) a tone.
B) salivation to the sound of a tone.
C) the presentation of food in the dog's mouth.
D) salivation to the food in the mouth.
Q2) Classically conditioned habits are said to involve
A) observational learning.
B) respondent behavior.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) operant behavior.
Q3) Alexis is addicted to drugs.The room in which she usually takes them is likely to become a ________ for drug cravings.
A) UR
B) CR
C) US
D) CS
Q4) Describe how our capacity for associative learning enables us to anticipate events,develop highly adaptive skills,and replace bad habits with beneficial ones.
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Chapter 21: Classical Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be the most appropriate step in attempting to checking your progress on a behavior change?
A) State a realistic goal in measurable terms and announce it.
B) Decide how,when,and where you will work toward your goal.
C) Monitor how often you engage in your desired behavior.
D) Reinforce the desired behavior.
Q2) Peggy's use of foul language decreased because it was followed by the loss of her $5 weekly allowance.Taking away Peggy's allowance served as ________ for her foul language.
A) negative reinforcement
B) positive punishment
C) secondary reinforcement
D) negative punishment
Q3) A type of learning in which behavior is diminished if followed by a punisher is called A) delayed conditioning.
B) classical conditioning.
C) secondary conditioning.
D) operant conditioning.
Q4) Compare and contrast operant and classical conditioning.
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Chapter 22: Operant Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Our ability to learn by witnessing the behavior of others best illustrates
A) classical conditioning.
B) prosocial behavior.
C) operant conditioning.
D) observational learning.
Q2) After watching violent cartoons,Jeremy and Julie engaged in the very same violence they saw on TV,such as flying karate kicks.This best illustrates that one of the factors contributing to the violence-viewing effect is
A) classical conditioning.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) imitation.
D) shaping.
Q3) Sandy finds it harder to frown when watching her brother smile than when seeing him frown.Scientists are currently debating whether this can be attributed to the activation of
A) instinctive drift.
B) extrinsic motives.
C) mirror neurons.
D) cognitive maps.
Q4) Explain how cognitive processes affect operant and classical conditioning.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Learning by Observation
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Q1) After Maya told her friend the 5-digit password to a protected website,her friend was able to remember it only long enough to type it into the password box.In this instance,the password was clearly stored in her friend's ________ memory.
A) procedural
B) short-term
C) iconic
D) implicit
Q2) In Alan Baddeley's model of working memory,the hypothetical central executive engages in A) chunking.
B) focusing attention.
C) automatic processing.
D) mnemonics.
Q3) Explain the updated Atkinson and Shiffrin model of memory,which includes working memory and automatic processing.
Q4) Describe two mnemonic techniques that would enable you to remember the following list of grocery items: milk,eggs,margarine,oranges,rhubarb,ice cream,eggplant,and sausage.Explain why each would be effective.
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Memory
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Q1) Semantic memory is best described as ________ memory of ________.
A) explicit;personally experienced events
B) implicit;personally experienced events
C) explicit;facts and general knowledge
D) implicit;facts and general knowledge
Q2) Damage to the hippocampus would be most likely to interfere with a person's ability to develop
A) procedural memories.
B) episodic memories.
C) implicit memories.
D) classically conditioned associations.
Q3) During the day,Bekah learned a lot of information about World War II.During her sleep that night,memories of this history were transferred from her hippocampus to areas within her brain's cortex.This transfer best illustrates
A) working memory.
B) the spacing effect.
C) episodic memory.
D) memory consolidation.
Q4) Detail how emotions impact memory.Provide some real-life examples.
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Chapter 25: Encoding: Getting Information In
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Q1) After having seen many pictures of the Lincoln Memorial during his lifetime,Mr.Adams mistakenly recalled that he had actually visited the site.This best illustrates A) source amnesia.
B) proactive interference.
C) implicit memory.
D) positive transfer.
Q2) Austin can't remember Jack Smith's name because he wasn't paying attention when Jack was formally introduced.Austin's poor memory is best explained in terms of A) proactive interference.
B) encoding failure.
C) retroactive interference.
D) source amnesia.
Q3) Ebbinghaus' forgetting curve most clearly indicates that A) our sensory memory capacity is essentially unlimited.
B) short-term memory fades more rapidly than sensory memory.
C) prior learning disrupts the recall of new information.
D) the most rapid memory loss for new information occurs shortly after it is learned.
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Chapter 26: Storage: Retaining Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) Environments that maximize creativity are likely to be those that foster A) convergent thinking.
B) contemplation.
C) belief perseverance.
D) extrinsic motivation.
Q2) The easier it is for people to remember an instance in which they were betrayed by a friend,the more they expect such an event to recur.This best illustrates the impact of A) framing.
B) confirmation bias.
C) an algorithm.
D) the availability heuristic.
Q3) Professional hockey players can make correct game moves at such speed that their acquired expertise feels like
A) an algorithm.
B) divergent thinking.
C) extrinsic motivation.
D) intuition.
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Chapter 27: Retrieval: Getting Information Out
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Q1) For many skills,childhood represents a(n)________ for mastery of that skill.
A) critical period
B) outcome simulation
C) telegraphic speech
D) linguistic determinism
Q2) In the words lightly,neatly,and shortly,the ly ending is a(n)
A) concept.
B) phoneme.
C) morpheme.
D) aphasia.
Q3) Many people who are bilingual experience a different sense of self depending on which language they are using.This most clearly illustrates the implications of A) Whorf's linguistic determinism hypothesis.
B) Wernicke's speech comprehension theory.
C) Broca's speech production theory.
D) Chomsky's language acquisition theory.
Q4) Discuss evidence demonstrating the importance of critical periods for learning language.Explain what these critical periods suggest regarding the biological and environmental influences on language development.
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Chapter 28: Forgetting, Memory Construction, and Applying
Memory Principles to Your Own Education
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Q1) Mary often thinks about the development of the human species,the meaning of life,and what happens after death.She is demonstrating which of Gardner's types of intelligence?
A) linguistic
B) bodily-kinesthetic
C) spatial
D) existential
Q2) With whom do you associate the triarchic theory of intelligence?
A) L.L.Thurstone
B) Howard Gardner
C) Charles Spearman
D) Robert Sternberg
Q3) University students who focus on innovation and generating novel ideas in their studies rather than on simply meeting deadlines and securing good grades are especially likely to demonstrate
A) emotional intelligence.
B) creative intelligence.
C) practical intelligence.
D) existential intelligence.
Q4) Compare and contrast the theories of multiple intelligences.
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Chapter 29: Thinking
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Q1) Raul has taken the GRE three times and his scores varied by only 10 points each time.Raul's test scores reflect the GRE's
A) standardization.
B) predictive validity.
C) reliability.
D) content validity.
Q2) A test that measures or predicts what it is supposed to is said to have a high degree of
A) validity.
B) standardization.
C) reliability.
D) test-retest reliability.
Q3) The nineteenth-century English scientist Sir Francis Galton believed that A) mental abilities cannot be measured.
B) superior intelligence is biologically inherited.
C) academic aptitude measures chronological age rather than mental age.
D) intelligence test performance depends on motivation rather than ability.
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Chapter 30: Language and Thought
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Q1) Different age groups are tested at the same point in time in a(n)
A) longitudinal study.
B) cohort study.
C) cross-sectional study.
D) intelligence test.
Q2) One criticism of gifted education programs is that by labeling children as "ungifted" we may be
A) taking away their hope for a brighter future.
B) creating a self-fulfilling prophecy.
C) providing them with a higher-level goal.
D) denying them access to higher levels of education.
Q3) Research has found that older adults tend to outperform younger adults in their responses to New York Times crossword puzzles.The superior performance of these older adults best illustrates the value of
A) cohorts.
B) fluid intelligence.
C) cross-sectional studies
D) crystallized intelligence.
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Chapter 31: Introduction to Intelligence
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Q1) Compared with men,women are ________ capable of remembering objects' spatial locations and they are ________ sensitive to taste and color.
A) more;less
B) less;more
C) more;more
D) less;less
Q2) Males' reading ability scores vary ________ than females' scores,and males' math test performance scores vary ________ than females' scores.
A) less;more
B) more;less
C) less;less
D) more;more
Q3) Brenda notices that men tend to take more risks than women do.Based on what she has learned about evolutionary psychologist Steven Pinker,she is likely to attribute this observed difference to
A) biology.
B) environment.
C) nurture.
D) experience.
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Chapter 32: Assessing Intelligence
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Q1) After working all afternoon cleaning up the attic,Mr.Dixon is very thirsty and drinks a big glass of orange juice.His motivation to drink in order to reduce his feeling of thirst can best be explained by
A) the Yerkes-Dodson law.
B) drive-reduction theory.
C) incentive theories.
D) arousal theory.
Q2) Adventurous people who relish the pursuit of novel and intense experiences are said to be
A) sensation-seekers.
B) self-transcendent.
C) incentive seekers.
D) self-actualized.
Q3) According to the Yerkes-Dodson law,the level of arousal typically associated with peak performance tends to be
A) lower on tasks that are well-learned.
B) higher on tasks that are difficult.
C) lower on tasks that are easy.
D) lower on tasks that are difficult.
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Chapter 33: Genetic and Environmental Influences on Intelligence
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Q1) Feelings of hunger accompany ________ levels of blood glucose and ________ levels of ghrelin.
A) low;low
B) high;high
C) low;high
D) high;low
Q2) Among dieters who consciously restrain their eating,the urge to eat is likely to be unleashed by
A) drinking alcohol.
B) eating early in the day.
C) brief periods of exercise.
D) focusing attention on what they are eating.
Q3) Research on the physiological basis of hunger has indicated that A) stomach contractions are unrelated to feelings of hunger.
B) hunger continues in humans whose cancerous stomachs have been removed.
C) rats whose stomachs have been removed must be force-fed to prevent starvation.
D) less ghrelin is secreted when the stomach is empty.
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Chapter 34: Introduction to Motivation
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Q1) Sex hormone levels experienced by the fetus during the second trimester are most likely to influence a male's sexual orientation in later life because of their impact on
A) the X chromosome
B) the Y chromosome.
C) brain development.
D) sexually transmitted infections.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true with respect to sexual orientation?
A) Virtually all cultures in all times have been predominantly heterosexual.
B) The environmental factors that influence sexual orientation are presently unknown.
C) Identical twins are somewhat more likely than fraternal twins to share a homosexual orientation.
D) With the help of a therapist,most people find it easy to change their sexual orientation.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true about sexual fantasizing?
A) Our imagination can increase our sexual arousal and desire.
B) In some women sexual fantasies can lead to sexual orgasm.
C) Men fantasize about sex more often and less romantically.
D) Fantasizing about sex indicates a sexual problem or dissatisfaction.
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Chapter 35: Hunger
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Q1) Narcissism refers to feeling
A) happy.
B) overweight.
C) ostracized.
D) self-important.
Q2) Those who trace the origins of social bonding to its survival value are most likely to agree that the need to belong is
A) an incentive.
B) genetically influenced.
C) a sexual instinct.
D) Maslow's highest-level need.
Q3) Sheila is more fearful of loneliness than of remaining in a physically abusive relationship with her boyfriend.This best illustrates the potentially harmful impact of ________ needs.
A) achievement
B) affiliation
C) sexual
D) safety
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Chapter 36: Sexual Motivation and the Need to Belong
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Q1) Who suggested that "we feel sorry because we cry ...afraid because we tremble"?
A) Stanley Schachter
B) William James
C) Walter Cannon
D) Richard Lazarus
Q2) According to the Cannon-Bard theory,the experience of an emotion
A) depends on the intensity of physiological arousal.
B) can occur only after physiological arousal.
C) occurs simultaneously with physiological arousal.
D) precedes physiological arousal.
Q3) Which of the following is activated when we experience negative social emotions,such as disgust?
A) sympathetic division of the ANS
B) insula
C) amygdala
D) left frontal lobe
Q4) A newspaper advice columnist suggests that thinking can be voluntarily controlled and changed but that emotions are gut-level,biological reactions that can't be voluntarily controlled or modified.Use your knowledge of emotion research and theory to either support or refute the columnist's claim.
38
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Chapter 37: Motivation at Work
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Q1) When viewing subliminally flashed words,we are especially likely to sense the presence of words such as A) mind.
B) body.
C) life.
D) death.
Q2) Compare and contrast the facial feedback effect and the behavior feedback effect.Provide an example of each.
Q3) Repeatedly saying the word "me" puts people in a better mood than repeatedly saying "you." This best illustrates the A) catharsis hypothesis.
B) feel-good,do-good phenomenon.
C) adaptation-level phenomenon.
D) facial feedback effect.
Q4) The facial expressions associated with particular emotions are A) learned in early childhood.
B) different in Eastern and Western cultures.
C) the same throughout the world.
D) more similar in adults than they are in children or adolescents.
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Chapter 38: Introduction to Emotion
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Q1) A sense of satisfaction with life is known as
A) the experience of flow.
B) the adaption-level phenomenon.
C) subjective well-being.
D) the feel-good,do-good phenomenon.
Q2) For which of the following people would "money buy happiness"?
A) Jacob,who received a 2 percent raise this year
B) Kelly,who receives a weekly allowance from her parents
C) Cassi,who lives with her parents and works part-time
D) Tina,a single mom who just got offered a job making $60,000 a year
Q3) When Mrs.Van Dyke first acquired a new luxury car,she was ecstatic.After several months,however,she took the car for granted and it gave her little sense of emotional excitement.This change in her feelings can best be explained in terms of
A) the adaptation-level phenomenon.
B) relative deprivation.
C) the catharsis hypothesis.
D) the do-good,feel-good phenomenon.
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Chapter 39: Experienced Emotion
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Q1) There's a dramatic increase in the likelihood of a person becoming ill or dying the year following the death of a spouse.Describe some of the specific biological and psychological processes that may contribute to this effect.
Q2) Heart disease and depression may both result when chronic stress triggers
A) blood vessel inflammation.
B) the release of NK cells.
C) the production of lymphocytes.
D) the release of oxytocin.
Q3) Friedman and Rosenman referred to competitive,hard-driving,impatient,and easily angered individuals as ________ personalities.
A) Type A
B) Type B
C) Type C
D) Type D
Q4) Alarm,resistance,and exhaustion characterize the phases of
A) the fight-or-flight response.
B) the tend-and-befriend response.
C) the general adaptation syndrome.
D) the immune response.
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Chapter 40: Expressed Emotion
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Q1) In the long run,people who practice resisting the urge to drink too much alcohol or overeat high-fat foods are likely to experience an increase in A) the feel-good,do-good phenomenon.
B) mindfulness meditation.
C) relative deprivation.
D) self-control.
Q2) The best way to increase the production of serotonin is to A) avoid emotion-focused coping.
B) develop an external locus of control.
C) engage in aerobic exercise.
D) receive training in meditation.
Q3) Aerobic exercise has been most closely linked to a decrease in A) emotion-focused coping.
B) the brain's serotonin activity.
C) the experience of anxiety.
D) an external locus of control.
Q4) Describe two continuing sources of stress at this time in your life.For each source of stress,propose a specific problem-focused or a specific emotion-focused coping strategy that is likely to effectively reduce your stress.
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Chapter 41: Stress and Illness
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Q1) Steven is driving on the interstate when suddenly a car cuts him off.Steven had to slam on his brakes to avoid hitting the car.Based on the fundamental attribution error,how might Steven interpret the situation?
Q2) Cognitive dissonance theory was proposed by
A) Fritz Heider.
B) Phillip Zimbardo.
C) Leon Festinger.
D) Solomon Asch.
Q3) The set of prescribed behaviors associated with a particular social position is best described as a(n)
A) cognitive dissonance.
B) attribution.
C) attitude.
D) role.
Q4) One explanation for the fundamental attribution error involves observers' A) cognitive dissonance.
B) limited visual perspective.
C) role playing.
D) central route persuasion.
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Chapter 42: Coping With Stress
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Q1) You have an assignment for one of your classes that requires you to work with a group of four other college students.Based on what you know about social loafing,what can you do to reduce the chance of some students not helping to complete this assignment?
Q2) In Milgram's obedience experiments,"teachers" exhibited a somewhat lower level of compliance with an experimenter's orders when
A) the experiment was not associated with a prestigious institution like Yale University. B) the "learner" complained of a slight heart condition just before the experiment began. C) the "learner" screamed as the shocks became more punishing.
D) the "learner" was in another room where his physical well-being couldn't be observed by the "teacher."
Q3) Emma wants to ask Robert out,but decides to wait for him to ask her out.Emma's behavior illustrates the importance of A) groupthink. B) mood linkage. C) social norms. D) social facilitation.
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Chapter 43: Modifying Illness-Related Behaviors
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Q1) Although 65 percent of all people now say it is very important that women have the same rights as men,________ gender prejudice and discrimination persist(s).
A) only implicit
B) only explicit
C) both implicit and explicit
D) neither implicit nor explicit
Q2) The ingroup is the set of people with whom we share a common A) outgroup homogeneity.
B) hindsight bias.
C) social identity.
D) unconscious patronization.
Q3) Sean believes that all college athletes are egotistical and self-centered,and have an entitlement mentality.These negative feelings are reflected in his refusal to support or watch any college athletic events.Sean's attitude toward college athletes illustrates A) prejudice.
B) social scripts.
C) ingroup bias.
D) blaming the victim.
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Chapter 44: Psychoanalytic Perspective
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Q1) Orville thinks his girlfriend derives more benefits from their relationship than he does,even though he contributes more to the relationship.Orville most clearly believes that their relationship lacks
A) self-disclosure.
B) romantic love.
C) equity.
D) superordinate goals.
Q2) When 12-year-old Jamilah saw an old man lying on the sidewalk,he prepared to offer help.But when he noticed several adults walk past the man,he concluded that the man did not need any help.His reaction most clearly illustrates one of the dynamics involved in
A) social exchange theory.
B) the reciprocity norm.
C) GRIT.
D) the bystander effect.
Q3) The most powerful predictor of whether friendship begins is A) attitude.
B) proximity.
C) self-disclosure.
D) altruism.
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Chapter 45: Humanistic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the modern view of the unconscious mind with that of Freud.
Q2) Which psychosexual stage of development focuses on coping with incestuous sexual feelings?
A) oral
B) anal
C) genital
D) phallic
Q3) Freud suggested that pleasure-seeking energies focus on distinct erogenous zones as we progress through various
A) defense mechanisms.
B) psychosexual stages.
C) free associations.
D) identifications.
Q4) Freud indicated that defense mechanisms
A) increase anxiety by consciously distorting reality.
B) reduce anxiety by consciously distorting reality.
C) increase anxiety by unconsciously distorting reality.
D) reduce anxiety by unconsciously distorting reality.
Q5) Outline Freud's proposed stages of psychosexual development.
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Chapter 46: Contemporary Research on Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) People who typically remain quiet because they constantly fear that others will evaluate them negatively most clearly demonstrate
A) introversion.
B) agreeableness.
C) shyness.
D) self-transcendence.
Q2) A personality test reveals that Jacqueline is antagonistic,ruthless,and suspicious,whereas Melissa is acquiescent,soft-hearted,and trusting.It appears that Jacqueline and Melissa have scored at opposite ends of the ________ dimension of the Big Five.
A) conscientiousness
B) openness to experience
C) extraversion
D) agreeableness
Q3) Evidence that our traits persist over time and across different settings is of greatest relevance to
A) positive psychology.
B) self-transcendence.
C) unconditional positive regard.
D) the person-situation controversy.
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Chapter 47: Introduction to Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Our genetically influenced traits evoke certain responses in others,which lead us to develop specific social-interaction skills.This best illustrates the impact of A) free association.
B) the spotlight effect.
C) unconditional positive regard.
D) gene-environment interactions.
Q2) Middle school students whose families struggle financially are more likely to earn high grades if they have a clear vision of themselves succeeding in school.This best illustrates the motivational significance of A) possible selves.
B) unconditional positive regard.
C) the spotlight effect.
D) the psychodynamic perspective.
Q3) Athletes often privately attribute their losses to bad officiating.This best illustrates A) secure self-esteem.
B) the spotlight effect.
C) self-serving bias.
D) free association.
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Chapter 48: Anxiety Disorders
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Q1) After George learned that Mrs.Min suffered from schizophrenia,he mistakenly concluded that her tendencies to laugh easily and smile frequently were symptoms of her disorder.This best illustrates the
A) unreliability of the DSM-5.
B) shortcomings of the medical model.
C) biasing power of diagnostic labels.
D) dangers of the biopsychosocial approach.
Q2) Which of the following has provided support for the medical perspective on psychological disorders?
A) dysfunctional or maladaptive symptoms associated with some psychological disorders
B) the effectiveness of moral treatment in therapies for those with psychological disorders
C) the epigenetic links between gene expression and environmental factors and psychological disorders
D) how brain structure abnormalities and biochemistry relate to psychological disorders
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Chapter 49: Dissociative and Personality Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following people is LEAST likely to develop PTSD?
A) Anna,who was raped and has a history of anxiety
B) Bill,who experienced war trauma and has a smaller amygdala than average
C) Stan,who experienced a mugging but has no history of PTSD in his family
D) Jessica,who was recently assaulted and has a twin sister with PTSD
Q2) Dion avoids all situations that involve him having a conversation with others,especially with women.He spends an inordinate amount avoiding situations that he fears may cause him to be judged or evaluated.Dion is demonstrating the symptoms of
A) panic disorder.
B) social anxiety disorder.
C) free-floating anxiety.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Q3) Rishi,a college student,complains that he feels apprehensive and fearful most of the time but doesn't know why.Without warning,his heart begins to pound,his hands get icy,and he breaks out in a cold sweat.Rishi most likely suffers from
A) social anxiety disorder.
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) a phobia.
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Chapter 50: Mood Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following disorders typically occurs in periodic episodes that eventually terminate by themselves even without professional help?
A) bipolar disorder
B) linkage analysis
C) major depressive disorder
D) disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
Q2) Sanja suffers from major depressive disorder.She is most likely to feel some relief during
A) the winter.
B) the fall.
C) December.
D) the spring.
Q3) Daniel has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder.Describe the symptoms he most likely experienced prior to treatment.
Q4) Internal,stable,and global explanations of one's own failures are indicative of A) optimism.
B) learned helplessness.
C) pessimism.
D) linkage analysis.
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Chapter 51: Schizophrenia
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Q1) In which type of disorder is a person's speech likely to be so full of unrelated words and phrases that it could be characterized as a word salad?
A) panic disorder
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder
C) schizophrenia
D) dissociative disorder
Q2) Periods of immobility or exercise is referred to as A) catatonia.
B) flat affect.
C) an impaired theory of mind.
D) delusions.
Q3) Wilma is extremely agitated because she hears voices that tell her to sexually seduce the male nurses in her hospital ward.Wilma is most clearly suffering from A) multiple personalities.
B) catatonia.
C) a dissociative disorder.
D) hallucinations.
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Chapter 52: The Psychological Therapies
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Q1) Anthony is 32 years old,well above average in intelligence,and quite charming.He has swindled several older people out of their life savings,and he seems to have little feeling for his victims,nor does he fear the consequences of getting caught.His behavior is evidence of
A) borderline personality disorder.
B) schizotypal personality disorder.
C) antisocial personality disorder.
D) a dissociative disorder.
Q2) William,an airplane pilot,is unable to remember anything of a bombing raid in which his plane was severely damaged and two crew members were killed.Because he himself suffered no physical injuries,psychologists suspect that William probably suffers from A) schizotypal personality disorder.
B) a dissociative disorder.
C) binge eating disorder.
D) borderline personality disorder.
Q3) Describe the characteristics of dissociative identity disorder,and discuss the factors that have been implicated in its development.Why are many mental health professionals skeptical about the validity of this disorder?
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Chapter 53: Evaluating Psychotherapies
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Q1) Dr.Vaughn's client feels as though she can tell her anything without being judged or criticized.Dr.Vaughn appears to have done well at expressing A) genuineness.
B) acceptance.
C) empathy.
D) interpretation.
Q2) The belief that no person is an island is the fundamental assumption of A) family therapy.
B) client-centered therapy.
C) cognitive therapy.
D) systematic desensitization.
Q3) Olivia's boyfriend,Liam,told her that he did not want to see her any more.According to cognitive therapists,which "self-talk" would allow her to best handle the loss?
A) "I will never find another boyfriend as good as Liam."
B) "I am unlovable,I don't blame him for breaking up with me."
C) "I am totally responsible for the break-up."
D) "I am sad,but I guess it was not meant to be.I will grow from this experience."
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Chapter 54: The Biomedical Therapies
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Q1) Because she mistakenly thought that completing a diagnostic test was a therapeutic treatment for her anxiety disorder,Mrs.Shyam felt considerable relief for several weeks following the test.Mrs.Shyam's reaction best illustrates A) meta-analysis.
B) animal magnetism.
C) the placebo effect.
D) a randomized clinical trial.
Q2) Although Dr.Anderson uses systematic desensitization for the treatment of phobias,he prescribes antianxiety drugs as well.It is most likely that Dr.Anderson is a A) psychoanalyst.
B) client-centered therapist.
C) cognitive therapist.
D) psychiatrist.
Q3) Light exposure therapy sparks activity in a brain region that influences A) the body's arousal.
B) self-awareness.
C) effort justification.
D) meta-analysis.
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Chapter 55: Social Thinking
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Q1) The treatment of depression with ECT best illustrates A) biomedical therapy.
B) cognitive-behavioral therapy.
C) psychodynamic therapy.
D) client-centered therapy.
Q2) Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation is administered to patients who ________,and it produces ________ memory loss than ECT.
A) first receive a general anesthetic;less B) first receive a general anesthetic;more C) are wide awake;less D) are wide awake;more
Q3) Tardive dyskinesia is associated with the long-term use of certain ________ drugs. A) antianxiety B) antipsychotic
C) antidepressant D) mood-stabilizing
Q4) Explain how the advent of drug therapies revolutionized the treatment of psychological disorders.Describe the different drug therapies,noting for which disorder each is used.
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Chapter 56: Appendix
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Q1) Employee engagement is most likely to be facilitated by A) transformational leadership.
B) unstructured interviews.
C) halo errors.
D) human factors psychology.
Q2) The practice of 360-degree feedback is especially likely to involve
A) a democratic management style.
B) the experience of flow.
C) behavior checklists and rating scales.
D) transformational leadership.
Q3) You just started a supervisory position at a company.What is one thing that you can do to increase employee engagement,customer satisfaction,and profitability?
A) punish employee deficiencies
B) identify and enhance employee strengths
C) promote employee independence
D) encourage employee privacy
Q4) Describe how a company might initiate annual reviews of employee performance without discouraging worker satisfaction and engagement.
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