Principles of Psychology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Psychology introduces students to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. The course covers foundational topics such as biological bases of behavior, perception, learning, memory, personality, psychological disorders, and the influence of social and cultural factors. Through an examination of key theories, research methods, and real-world applications, students gain insights into how individuals think, feel, and act, laying the groundwork for further study in psychology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Psychology Gateways to Mind and Behavior 12th Edition by Dennis Coon
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Chapter 1: Introduction the Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Petra is reading the section of her textbook entitled "The Gestalt Principles." she thinks to herself, "How many Gestalt principles are there?" "To what aspects of behavior do they pertain?" Petra is preforming the ____________________ step in the SQ4R method.
Answer: question
Q2) Susan has started college.To maximize her learning, she sets specific, objective learning goals; makes a daily, weekly, and monthly learning strategy; monitors and rewards herself; evaluates her progress, and takes corrective action when needed.Susan's actions illustrate
A)the SQ4R method.
B)the LISAN method.
C)massed practice.
D)self-regulated learning.
Answer: D
Q3) One way to be more reflective while reading a textbook is to A)use massed practice.
B)use experiential cognition.
C)use the SQ4R method.
D)reread a textbook assignment, at least four times before every test.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 1: Extension A: Introduction to Psychology and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research on "bystander apathy" reveals that people often fail to help when other possible helpers are nearby due to a "diffusion of responsibility." Explaining this perplexing problem meets which goal of psychology?
A)description
B)prediction
C)understanding
D)control
Answer: C
Q2) Professor Windham asks her general psychology students to give an example of an overt behavior.Which of the following would be an example of an overt behavior?
A)feeling happy that class is almost over
B)daydreaming about the coming weekend
C)gesturing to someone to come over to the group
D)remembering the definition of overt behavior
Answer: C
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Chapter 1: Extension B: Introduction to Psychology and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Maxwell is conducting research to determine how a person's subjective well-being is affected by his or her goals, choices, values, emotions, and personality.Dr.Maxwell's research would fit under which psychological approach?
A)behaviorism
B)psychodynamic theory
C)positive psychology
D)Gestalt principles of perception
Answer: C
Q2) One way to randomly assign students to experimental and control groups for a study of academic behaviors is to
A)flip a coin for each student to determine which group she or he will be assigned.
B)divide the group sitting in the front half of the room from the group sitting in the back.
C)ask volunteers for the experimental group to raise their hands.
D)do none of these.
Answer: A
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Chapter 1: Extension C: Introduction to Psychology and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a research study, the experimental group ate food that contained THC, while the control group ate food that did not contain THC.Both groups were asked to study a list of words and then were asked a week later to recall the words.The results of this experiment indicated that
A)the experimental group remembered less words.
B)the control group remembered less words.
C)there was no statistically significant difference between the two groups in the number of words remembered.
D)the participants were not randomly assigned to the two groups.
Q2) A psychologist who is ____________________ can best be described as drawing from many psychological approaches.
Q3) As consumption of ice cream increases during the year, so does the number of aggravated assaults.A politician advocates that ice cream be banned so that the crime rate will go down.Besides needing to be voted out of office, this politician needs to understand
A)the dangers of a single example.
B)the difference between observation and inference.
C)the difference between correlation and causation.
D)that the Barnum effect occurs only in ten-year cycles.
Page 6
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Chapter 2: Extension A: Brain and Behavior
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Q1) Recent medical research into the repair of spinal cords in rats and human trials using nerve grafts may eventually lead to procedures that will A)cure multiple sclerosis.
B)reverse conditions requiring confinement to a wheelchair.
C)reduce back pain.
D)reverse brain damage caused by excessive alcohol consumption.
Q2) Ben awoke one morning to find that he had poorer eye-hand coordination than usual, his gait was somewhat awkward, and he felt generally "clumsy." Ben is exhibiting A)soft signs of a stroke.
B)the initial onset of spatial neglect.
C)hard signs of aphasia.
D)the initial onset of Alzheimer's disease.
Q3) The production of new brain cells is known as A)neural induction.
B)depolarization.
C)neural resiliency.
D)neurogenesis.
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Chapter 2: Extension B: Brain and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sue has recovered from extensive injury to her left cerebral hemisphere and has continued her career with little sign of impairment.Her occupation is most likely
A)graphic artist.
B)accountant.
C)English teacher.
D)sports writer for a newspaper.
Q2) The brain center for hearing is in the _____ lobe.
A)temporal
B)parietal
C)occipital
D)frontal
Q3) In a study of person's with similar IQs, men's gray matter was split between their _____ lobes, while their white matter was concentrated mostly in the _____ lobes.
A)temporal and occipital; frontal
B)parietal and temporal; occipital
C)occipital and frontal; parietal
D)frontal and parietal; temporal
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Chapter 2: Extension C: Brain and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) As you are walking down a dark street, you hear a noise directly behind you, and you immediately dart off the sidewalk because of the activation of your amygdala.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Working in Montreal in the 1950s, _____ found self-stimulation sites, or "pleasure centers" in the rat's brain and showed how rats would endure even painful shocks to receive a stimulation of this "pleasure center."
A) James Olds
B) John B. Watson
C) B. F. Skinner
D) Carl Rogers
Q3) When one looks at a model of the cerebral cortex, the ridges are called _____, while the furrows are called _____.
A)gyri; sulci
B)sulci; gyri
C)hillocks; arcs
D)arc; hillocks
Q4) Another term for "mindblindness" is ____________________.
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Chapter 3: Extension A: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) By around _____ month(s) of age, babies generally become truly attached to their mothers, crawling after her if they can, and forming attachments to other people shortly thereafter.
A)one
B)three
C)five
D)seven
Q2) The existence of easy, difficult, and slow-to-warm-up children is considered evidence for
A)early critical periods in development.
B)lasting effects of the intra-uterine environment.
C)affective needs in infancy.
D)hereditary differences in temperament.
Q3) There are _____ chromosomes in the nucleus of every human cell, except for the sperm and ova.
A)24
B)36
C)46
D)60
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Chapter 3: Extension B: Human Development
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Q1) Six-year-old Gerean is taking music, dance, gymnastic, and art lessons each week as well as watching educational videos and going through stacks of math flashcards each night.Gerean's schedule illustrates
A)the "one-step-ahead strategy."
B)forced teaching or "hothousing."
C)adaptive processes of assimilation and accommodation.
D)the method typically utilized for teaching formal operational thinking.
Q2) The development of object permanence is to the sensorimotor stage as the development of conservation and reversibility are to the
A)formal operations stage.
B)preoperational stage.
C)informal operational stage.
D)concrete operational stage.
Q3) The life stage known as adolescence is
A)a biologically defined event that begins at puberty.
B)a culturally-defined period between childhood and adulthood.
C)a stage of biological stability but social upheaval.
D)recognized as the time between 13 and 18 in all cultures.
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Chapter 3: Extension C: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Erikson, between one and three years of age, the primary developmental crisis is autonomy versus A)shame and doubt.
B)mistrust.
C)guilt.
D)feelings of inferiority.
Q2) Greg is a 39-year-old college professor.If he is like a majority of men in Levinson's study of midlife, he will see the next few years as a A)time to rededicate himself to his family and his job.
B)mellowing period in his life.
C)time of unmanageable stress regarding his job and family.
D)"last chance" to achieve his life goals.
Q3) According to Kübler-Ross, the most common order of emotional reactions in preparing for death is
A)anger, depression, bargaining, denial and isolation, acceptance.
B)denial and isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance.
C)anger, depression, denial and isolation, bargaining, acceptance.
D)depression, anger, denial and isolation, bargaining, acceptance.
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Chapter 3: Extension D: Human Development
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Q1) If you slam a door (making a loud noise), an infant is likely to show the ____________________ reflex. or or
Q2) According to Chomsky, humans have a biological predisposition to develop language.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The attachment study of infant monkeys to wire and cloth surrogates suggested that the source of food is the most important factor in attachment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After reviewing many studies, psychologist Elizabeth Gershoff concluded that parents should minimize spanking or avoid it entirely.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A researcher who studies death is known as a(n) ____________________.
Q6) Describe the three attachment styles identified by Mary Ainsworth.
Q7) Discrimination or prejudice on the basis of age is called ____________________.
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Chapter 4: Extension A: Sensation and Reality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Limen refers to A)a threshold.
B)perceptual defense.
C)a sensation.
D)subliminal messages.
Q2) Sensory localization means that the sensation experienced depends on the A)area of the brain activated.
B)rate of firing of the nerve impulse.
C)the type of receptor stimulated.
D)the neural stimulation pattern.
Q3) You have experienced damage to a large number of rods in the periphery of your eye and feel like you are wearing blinders with no vision to the left and right sides.You are suffering from A)myopia.
B)hyperopia.
C)tunnel vision.
D)retinitis.
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Chapter 4: Extension B: Sensation and Reality
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Q1) Hearing loss caused by the immobilization of the auditory ossicles
A)can sometimes be overcome by the use of hearing aids.
B)is called conductive hearing loss.
C)may result from disease or injury.
D)is characterized all of these.
Q2) The three auditory ossicles are the malleus, incus, and the A)stapes.
B)anvil.
C)cochlea.
D)organ of Corti.
Q3) If you are experiencing motion sickness, it is good advice to lie down because the _____ are less sensitive to vertical movements when you are horizontal, and your head will move less.
A)otolith organs
B)olfactory bulbs
C)tympanic cavities
D)cochlea sacs
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Chapter 5: Extension A: Perceiving the World
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Q1) _____ is the perceptual principle involving the nearness in time and space and which is often responsible for the perception that one thing has caused another.
A)Closure
B)Continuation
C)Figure-ground
D)Contiguity
Q2) After a lifetime of blindness, newly sighted people must learn to
A)identify objects.
B)judge sizes.
C)judge distances.
D)do all of these.
Q3) Studies using random dot stereograms show that depth information is provided by the _____ of information received by the two eyes.
A)mismatch
B)convergence
C)accommodation
D)habituation
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Chapter 5: Extension B: Perceiving the World
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are low on gas and you see a sign saying "FUEL AHEAD." However, as you draw closer to the sign, you realize it actually says "FOOD AHEAD." This is an example of a A)cognitive bias.
B)perceptual deficit.
C)perceptual expectancy.
D)sane hallucination.
Q2) The purported ability to perceive events or gain information in ways that appear unaffected by distance or normal physical barriers is called A)telepathy.
B)precognition.
C)clairvoyance.
D)psychokinesis.
Q3) The Müller-Lyer illusion
A)is based on the size-distance invariance.
B)is based on directly misperceiving the location of the ends of the lines.
C)can be explained by the same concept as the moon illusion.
D)is characterized by all of these statements.
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Chapter 6: Extension A: States of Consciousness
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Q1) Regarding REM sleep, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Almost 85 percent of the time, people awakened during REMs report having vivid dreams.
B)People who are born blind do not have REM patterns.
C)Reptiles show no signs of REM sleep.
D)REM sleep dramatically increases when there is a death in the family, trouble at work, a marital conflict, or other emotionally-charged events.
Q2) Differences between nightmares and night terrors include
A)that nightmares occur during REM sleep; night terrors occur during NREM sleep.
B)that nightmares are difficult to remember; night terrors are easy to remember.
C)that nightmares involve hallucinations; night terrors are just bad dreams.
D)all of these.
Q3) _____ dramatically increases when there is a death in the family, trouble at work, a marital conflict, or other emotionally-charged events.
A)Delta waves
B)Beta waves
C)REM sleep
D)NREM Stage 4 (deep sleep)
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Chapter 6: Extension B: States of Consciousness
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Q1) The main purpose of meditative exercises is to A)increase energy.
B)interrupt the typical flow of thoughts.
C)solve problems and worries.
D)sharpen normal consciousness.
Q2) Hypnosis has been shown to be most effective in helping clients to A)change subjective experiences.
B)quit smoking.
C)stop overeating.
D)remember past instances of child abuse.
Q3) Psychodynamic theories of dreaming emphasize A)internal conflicts and unconscious forces.
B)how random activity in lower brain centers results in the manufacture of relatively bizarre dreams by higher brain centers.
C)that dreams reflect everyday waking thoughts and emotions.
D)the detached part of the dreamer's awareness that silently observes events.
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Chapter 6: Extension C: States of Consciousness
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Q1) While sleeping, you begin to feel as if you are awake during the dream and capable of normal thought.You are experiencing
A)somnambulism.
B)imagery rehearsal.
C)lucid dreaming.
D)daydreaming.
Q2) If you have trouble remembering your dreams, some strategies to help include
A)keeping a paper and pen or recorder next to your bed.
B)setting an alarm to go off an hour before you usually awaken.
C)maintaining a diary of your dreams.
D)all of these.
Q3) Which of the following would be helpful dream exercises to aid interpretation?
A)Watch for verbal or visual puns and other playful elements in dreams.
B)Describing your dream may help you relive some of the feelings in the dream.
C)Family members or friends may be able to offer interpretations to which you would be "blind."
D)All of these suggestions would be helpful in interpreting your dreams.
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Chapter 6: Extension D: States of Consciousness
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Q1) As a sleep researcher is monitoring you, he notices that your brain waves are showing almost all delta waves.He awakens you at this point, and you awaken in a complete state of confusion.You are most likely in REM sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Your sister and her daughter are visiting you.On the first night of their visit, your preschool niece awakens everyone by sitting up in bed screaming.She is still screaming when you and your sister get to her.As you try to console her, you realize that she is sweating profusely and is not really awake.The next morning, you ask her what caused her to scream, "Was it a bad dream?" Your niece does not seem to know what you are talking about.Then, you remember what the problem could be.Describe the sleep disturbance your niece is experiencing, and explain why it is not a bad dream.
Q3) Arthur has been driving for almost ten hours straight, and he is tired and drowsy.He momentarily falls asleep for a few seconds.Arthur has experienced a(n)
Q4) LSD tends to decrease REM sleep slightly, while alcohol increases REM sleep.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Extension A: Conditioning and Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Learned reactions worsen many cases of hypertension.Traffic jams and arguments with a spouse can become _____ that trigger a dangerous rise in blood pressure.
A)conditioned stimuli
B)conditioned responses
C)unconditioned stimuli
D)unconditioned responses
Q2) In classical conditioning, _____ is the tendency to respond to stimuli similar to, but not identical to, a conditioned response.
A)stimulus generalization
B)spontaneous recovery
C)transfer of training
D)vicarious conditioning
Q3) Which of the following is the appropriate sequence for classically conditioning an eyeblink response to an auditory stimulus?
A)deliver a puff of air to the eyelid, sound the tone
B)sound the tone, deliver a puff of air to the eyelid
C)follow the eyeblink response with a mild shock
D)follow the eyeblink response with a soft drink
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Chapter 7: Extension B: Conditioning and Learning
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Q1) What do positive and negative reinforcement have in common?
A)They both have aversive qualities.
B)They both have pleasant qualities.
C)They both lead to a decrease in response frequencies.
D)They both lead to an increase in response frequencies.
Q2) The chief contribution of computer-assisted instruction is that it
A)leads to greater cooperation among students.
B)can save much time and effort.
C)provides an easy means of evaluating student performance.
D)leads to higher levels of mastery.
Q3) Using poker chips to reinforce mentally ill patients for healthy behavior would be an example of using A)negative reinforcement.
B)classical conditioning.
C)extinction.
D)tokens.
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Chapter 7: Extension C: Conditioning and Learning
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Q1) Negative reinforcement and punishment both decrease the behavior they follow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compared with learning by rote, _____ produces learning that is more lasting and flexible.
A)discovery learning
B)instrumental learning
C)respondent conditioning
D)shaping
Q3) Requiring a resistant child to eat half of each of the foods on his dinner plate before receiving a favorite dessert is an example of A)generalized reinforcers.
B)punishment.
C)the Premack principle.
D)the partial reinforcement effect.
Q4) People who have a snake phobia also tend to become fearful when they see garden hoses or a rope at a distance.This phenomenon illustrates stimulus
Q5) Describe three problems that occur as punishment increases in severity.
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Chapter 8: Extension A: Memory
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Q1) Nelson Cowan believes that short-term memory may actually hold only _____ items, unless some chunking has occurred.
A)two
B)four
C)eight
D)ten
Q2) _____ refers to the pattern of associations among items of information.
A)Memory structure
B)Eidetic imagery
C)Priming
D)Internal imaging
Q3) _____ involves supplying or reproducing memorized information with a minimum of external cues.
A)Relearning
B)Recognition
C)Recall
D)Retroactive reproduction
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Chapter 8: Extension B: Memory
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Q1) Consolidation refers to the
A)time taken for short-term memory to be complete.
B)ability to see relationships between objects or events.
C)process whereby memory storage is speeded by the use of electroconvulsive shock treatment.
D)forming of a long-term memory.
Q2) Sherry suffered a concussion in a car accident.She remembers driving down the road, but she cannot remember how the accident happened.Sherry has been able to form new memories since the accident.Based on this information, Sherry appears to suffer from
A)retrograde amnesia.
B)anterograde amnesia.
C)iconic amnesia.
D)Korsakoff's syndrome.
Q3) Forgetting events that occurred just before a head injury would be an example of A)retrograde amnesia.
B)anterograde amnesia.
C)encoding failure.
D)repression.
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Chapter 8: Extension C: Memory
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Q1) You are introduced to a long list of people at a party.In order to correctly remember all of your new friends' names, you should devote extra attention to those
A)introduced in the middle.
B)introduced at the end.
C)introduced at the beginning.
D)with the most common names.
Q2) Effective strategies for improving memory encoding include
A)organizing the information to be retained.
B)studying for long uninterrupted periods.
C)underlining a lot of details in your text so that you can retain everything.
D)using all of these strategies in combination.
Q3) Mnemonics include
A)forming bizarre mental associations.
B)connecting new information to information already stored.
C)the keyword method.
D)all of these.
Q4) Visual images that are clear enough to be "scanned" for at least 30 seconds, are "projected" out in front of the person, and can best be "seen" on a blank surface are called ____________________ images.
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Chapter 9: Extension A: Cognition, Language, Creativity, and Intelligence
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Q1) In a pie eating contest, a "foul" is defined as: "Any use of the hands to remove the contents of the pie, any interference with another contestant, or any attempt to throw a pie at the judges." Used this way, the term "foul" is a _____ concept.
A)connotative
B)conjunctive
C)disjunctive
D)relational
Q2) If the connotative meaning of "a good college professor" was found using rating scales completed by students, we have utilized the A)conjunctive conceptualization continuum.
B)relational term differential.
C)prototypical mean.
D)semantic differential.
Q3) After six years of intensive training, the chimp, Viki, was taught to communicate
A)four words through spoken English.
B)conditional sentences using plastic symbols on a magnetized board.
C)six-word sentences using American Sign Language.
D)by pushing buttons on a computer keyboard.
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Chapter 9: Extension B: Cognition, Language, Creativity, and Intelligence
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Q1) If you have ever been without a screwdriver and took a dime out of your pocket and used it to loosen a screw, then you did not let _____ be a barrier to your thinking.
A)animism
B)functional fixedness
C)inhibition
D)disjunctive thinking
Q2) If one ignores the base rate when making a decision, it usually leads to
A)a valid syllogism.
B)mental flexibility.
C)a correct intuition.
D)an error in judgment.
Q3) On a creativity test, you are asked to list all the uses of a paper clip.The more unusual or novel your answers the higher will be your _____ score.
A)flexibility
B)fluency
C)originality
D)elaboration
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Chapter 9: Extension C: Cognition, Language, Creativity, and Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the elevator riddle which asks why Otto rides the elevator all the way up to the 15th floor on rainy days, but only to the 10th floor when it is not raining, it would have made it easier to solve the riddle if one had noticed
A)Otto's short reach when pressing the elevator buttoms.
B)how Otto used his umbrella to point to objects in the film.
C)how short Otto was when he entered the elevator in the beginning video clip.
D)all of these.
Q2) Selective encoding is the ability to compare new problems with old information or with problems already solved.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Expert systems are
A)programs that display advanced knowledge of a specific skill or topic.
B)basically "smarter" than humans.
C)programs that make use of random search patterns like experts do.
D)useful for describing events, but not predicting them or diagnosing problems.
Q4) The basic speech sounds of a language are called morphemes.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 9: Extension D: Cognition, Language, Creativity, and Intelligence
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eppie understands herself very well, but has difficulty understanding the motives of others.According to Gardner, Eppie would be high in ____________________ intelligence, but low in ____________________ intelligence.
Q2) Will has a mental age of eleven and a chronological age of ten.Will's IQ is ____________________. or or
Q3) A(n) ____________________ intellectual disability occurs most often in very poor households where nutrition, intellectual stimulation, medical care, and emotional support are inadequate.
Q4) A quick, impulsive thought that does not typically make use of formal logic or clear reasoning describes ____________________.
Q5) The study of the meaning of words is called ____________________.
Q6) Explain the differences in the three types of concepts, and give an example of each type.
Q7) A(n) ____________________ test is designed to measure intelligence without the influence of a person's cultural background, verbal skills, or educational level. or
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Chapter 10: Extension A: Motivation and Emotion
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58249
Sample Questions
Q1) Primary motives are
A)needs that are learned, such as the need for power or for achievement.
B)innate but not necessary for survival.
C)not innate but necessary for survival.
D)innate and necessary for survival.
Q2) Individuals who have alexithymia are unable to
A)name their own emotions.
B)name visual stimuli.
C)regulate their body temperature due to a lack of homeostasis.
D)process auditory stimuli.
Q3) Changes in _____ levels are thought to partly explain winter depressions that occur when people endure several months of long dark days.
A)melatonin
B)acetylcholine
C)androgen
D)dopamine
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Chapter 10: Extension B: Motivation and Emotion
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding self-confidence, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
A)People with self-confidence believe they can successfully carry out an activity or reach a goal.
B)Self-confidence affects motivation by influencing the challenges you will undertake.
C)Self-confidence influences how long you will persist when things do not go so well.
D)All of these statements are true.
Q2) Buford complains that he can play his tuba beautifully at home, but each time he tries to play at the local talent show, he sounds like a bull elk in rutting season.His problem is explained by
A)the Yerkes-Dodson Law.
B)the effects of homeostasis.
C)habituation.
D)biorhythms.
Q3) The components of emotion are
A)emotional expressions, physiological changes, and emotional relief.
B)emotional relief, physiological changes, and emotional changes.
C)emotional changes, physiological changes, and emotional feelings.
D)emotional feelings, physiological changes, and emotional expressions.
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Chapter 10: Extension C: Motivation and Emotion
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224 Verified Questions
224 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58247
Sample Questions
Q1) Putting on an angry face _____ heart rate and skin temperature; putting on a face that indicates disgust _____ heart rate and skin temperature. A)raises; raises B)lowers; lowers C)raises; lowers D)lowers; raises
Q2) According to the contemporary view of emotion, the intensity of an emotional feeling is directly related to A)emotional intelligence.
B)facial feedback.
C)the amount of ANS arousal taking place in the body.
D)the differential level of one's homeostasis.
Q3) As discussed in the text, sudden deaths are probably the result of A)an overreaction of the parasympathetic nervous system. B)failure of the sympathetic nervous system to respond.
C)forces beyond the comprehension of scientists.
D)an overreaction of the somatic nervous system.
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Chapter 10: Extension D: Motivation and Emotion
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The part of the brain known as the ____________________ may explain why people who suffer from phobias and disabling anxiety often feel afraid without knowing why.
Q2) Recordings of brain activity show that it is impossible to experience positive and negative emotions at the same time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The period during which female animals are sexually receptive is called ____________________.
Q4) The ____________________ is a part of the brain that has cells that respond to blood sugar levels to regulate hunger.
Q5) Carrie begins implementing a routine in which she keeps track of her calories, uses learning techniques to control her eating habits, and starts exercising.According to your textbook, Carrie has begun a(n) ____________________ program
Q6) Male babies start out life more emotionally expressive than female babies.
A)True
B)False
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Page 35
Chapter 11: Extension A: Gender and Sexuality
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58245
Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding secondary sexual characteristics, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Secondary sexual characteristics occur in response to hormonal signals from the pituitary gland.
B)Secondary sexual characteristics involve more superficial physical features of the body.
C)Secondary sexual characteristics appear at the time of birth.
D)Secondary sexual characteristics signal that the individual is biologically ready for reproduction.
Q2) According to Sandra Bem, a person who is ambitious, analytical, assertive, competitive, decisive, independent, individualistic, self-reliant, and willing to take risks would be considered
A)masculine.
B)feminine.
C)androgynous.
D)none of the above.
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Chapter 11: Extension B: Gender and Sexuality
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding sexual behavior, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)By strict public standards, any sexual activity other than face-to-face heterosexual intercourse between married adults is considered atypical.
B)Private standards are usually more accepting of different types of sexual activity than public standards.
C)For most people, publicly expressed standards about acceptable sexual activity coincides with their private behaviors.
D)Just as the hunger drive is expressed and satisfied in many ways, the sex drive also leads to an immense range of behaviors.
Q2) Regarding rape, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
A)Men who believe rape myths were found to be at no greater risk of committing date rape than men who did not believe the rape myths.
B)The use of alcohol has been found to have no effect on the likelihood of committing date rape or any other sexual assault.
C)A study of college men found that many tended to blame women for date rape.
D)All of these statements are true.
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Chapter 11: Extension C: Gender and Sexuality
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190 Verified Questions
190 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jim has had no interest in sex for the last three years and this greatly troubles him.Jim's diagnosis would be
A)sexual aversion.
B)hypoactive sexual desire.
C)male erectile disorder.
D)none of these.
Q2) Which of the following is safe sexual behavior?
A)abstinence
B)sex with one mutually faithful, uninfected partner
C)not injecting drugs
D)all of these are safe sexual behaviors
Q3) Sensate focus
A)is used to treat erectile disorders in men.
B)involves both the man and his sexual partner.
C)directs attention to natural sensations of pleasure.
D)involves all of these.
Q4) Concerning genetic sex, females have XX chromosomes, while males have ____________________ chromosomes.
Q5) ____________________ refers to the release of ova (eggs) from the ovaries.
Page 38
Q6) Explain how gender role stereotyping may encourage the act of rape.
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Chapter 12: Extension A: Personality
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58242
Sample Questions
Q1) According to Cattell, the _____ traits are the core of a person's personality, that is, the person's underlying personality characteristics.
A)surface
B)source
C)common
D)cardinal
Q2) Regarding the stability of personality, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
A)Women who appeared to be happy and had a genuine smile in their college yearbook photos were found to still be happy 30 years later.
B)After age 50, most older adults tend to become "grumpy old men" and "cranky old women."
C)During elementary school, personality slowly begins to harden; and by age 16, personality has usually stabilized.
D)All of these statements are true.
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Chapter 12: Extension B: Personality
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58241
Sample Questions
Q1) According to Jung, _____ is the archetype representing the female principle, while _____ is the archetype representing the male principle.
A)introversion; extroversion
B)the superego; the id
C)the yin; the yang
D)the anima; the animus
Q2) When Emily becomes stressed by her job as an elementary teacher, she always heads to the teachers' lounge to talk her problems over with her fellow teachers.Emily would be described by Karen Horney as using which mode of interacting?
A)moving toward others
B)moving away others
C)moving against others
D)moving with others toward interdependence
Q3) Behaviorists would describe personality as
A)an expression of conflicting psychological forces.
B)a collection of learned patterns of behavior.
C)the impact of culture on an innate hierarchy of needs.
D)the behavioral expression of fixated action patterns.
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Chapter 12: Extension C: Personality
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246 Verified Questions
246 Flashcards
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Sample
Questions
Q1) Barbara, a school psychologist, is recording the actions of a particular child in the classroom and on the playground by counting the frequency of specific actions exhibited by this child.Barbara is using A)a behavioral assessment.
B)situational testing.
C)the TAT technique.
D)projective testing.
Q2) You are conducting a behavioral assessment, you will be A)evaluating the person's personality traits.
B)recording the person's actions.
C)looking for the underlying cause of the behaviors observed.
D)trying to modify any maladaptive behavior observed.
Q3) With the _____, the conversation is informal and topics are taken up freely as they arise, while information is gathered by asking a planned series of questions with the
A)situational test; behavioral assessment
B)personality questionnaires; projective techniques
C)unstructured interview; structured interview
D)rating scale; direct observational assessment
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Page 41
Chapter 12: Extension D: Personality
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58239
Sample Questions
Q1) Learning to be more self-reinforcing appears to lessen depression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Situations affect how our traits are exhibited.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The best way to judge a theory is by its ____________________.
Q4) A recent study found that the traits of hope, vitality, gratitude, love, and curiosity are strongly associated with life satisfaction.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Being overly perfectionistic tends to increase one's overall success in school, on the job, in one's relationships, and in life satisfaction.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Exposing a person to simulated conditions to learn how he or she reacts under those conditions is called ____________________.
Q7) Describe ways that a person can reduce their shyness.
Page 42
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Chapter 13: Extension A: Health, Stress, and Coping
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58238
Sample Questions
Q1) The disease-prone personality is characterized by A)mania.
B)extraversion.
C)hostility.
D)Type-B attributes.
Q2) At least 30 percent of U.S.high school students have engaged in which of the following health-endangering behaviors in the previous month?
A)rode with a drinking driver
B)did not get enough exercise
C)was in a physical fight
D)all of these
Q3) An important way that psychologists work to decrease behavioral risks to health is through the use of
A)community health campaigns that provide role models.
B)jail time for people who violate health codes.
C)electroconvulsive shock therapy for unhealthy, anxious patients.
D)desensitization and sensory deprivation activities.
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Chapter 13: Extension B: Health, Stress, and Coping
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58237
Sample Questions
Q1) Stressful events
A)make one more susceptible to having accidents.
B)make one more susceptible to becoming ill.
C)reduce the body's natural defenses against disease.
D)do all of these.
Q2) Students who _____ tend to overreact to day-to-day disappointments.
A)strongly link everyday events to long-term goals
B)view positive events as stable and continuing
C)take daily tasks one at a time
D)do all of these
Q3) Which of the following is POOR advice for a person who wants to handle conflicts more effectively?
A)take time to collect information
B)try out decisions partially when possible
C)look for workable compromises
D)stick to a decision even when it appears to be wrong
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44
Chapter 13: Extension C: Health, Stress, and Coping
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221 Verified Questions
221 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58236
Sample Questions
Q1) A hardy personality has traits typical of the Type A personality, but is resistant to stress.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Increasing trust and reducing hostility is likely to occur if you
A)forget about your hostile thoughts and actions.
B)admit you have a problem with anger.
C)focus on small irritations rather than large ones.
D)do all of these.
Q3) ____________________ is a learned inability to overcome obstacles or to avoid punishment.
Q4) The control of involuntary functions like heart rate and blood pressure is
A)generally impossible for humans.
B)possible only through surgically implanted technology.
C)possible only through dedication to Yoga and Zen.
D)possible through the use of biofeedback.
Q5) Describe how a person's body responds during each stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
Q6) ____________________ is the study of links among behavior, stress, disease, and the immune system.
Page 45
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Chapter 14: Extension A: Psychological Disorders
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58235
Sample Questions
Q1) Jansen is an artist who dresses in an offbeat manner, drives a multi-colored VW van, and generally is known as a charming eccentric.Jansen is happy, creative, and generally well adjusted.It is critical to distinguish this type of non-traditional person from others who have not adopted the usual minimum rules for behavior, which is destructive.This example illustrates one of the problems with what definition of abnormality?
A)social nonconformity
B)statistical
C)cultural
D)subjective discomfort
Q2) _____ are deeply ingrained, unhealthy behavior patterns that usually appear in adolescence and continue through much of adult life and include paranoid, narcissistic, dependent, and other types.
A)Personality disorders
B)Mood disorders
C)Dissociative disorders
D)Psychotic disorders
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Chapter 14: Extension B: Psychological Disorders
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58234
Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals with _____ schizophrenia appear to be struggling desperately to control their inner turmoil through their mutism and rigid posturing, which are similar to most people's tendency to "freeze" at times of great emergency or panic.
A)catatonic
B)paranoid
C)disorganized
D)undifferentiated
Q2) Regarding the development of schizophrenia, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Genetic mutations occur in aging male reproductive cells and increase the risk of schizophrenia for the children of older fathers.
B)If one identical twin becomes schizophrenic, then the other twin has a 95 percent chance of also becoming schizophrenic.
C)When children of schizophrenic parents are raised away from their chaotic home environment, they are still more likely to become psychotic.
D)Some people inherit the potential (or vulnerability) to develop schizophrenia.
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Chapter 14: Extension C: Psychological Disorders
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232 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Withdrawal, personality change, depression, and giving away prized possessions are among the warning signs for A)suicide.
B)bipolar II.
C)adolescence.
D)dysthymic disorder.
Q2) According to the behaviorists, _____ occurs when making a response delays or prevents the onset of a painful or unpleasant stimulus.
A)distorted thinking
B)neurotic anxiety
C)avoidance learning
D)existential anxiety
Q3) Hypochondriasis, pain disorders, and conversion disorders are types of _____ disorders.
A)psychosomatic
B)dissociative
C)somatoform
D)organic mental
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Chapter 14: Extension D: Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Persons who are housebound and fearful of leaving the security of their own homes suffer from agoraphobia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Women who are exposed to a flu virus or rubella during the middle of pregnancy have children who are more likely to develop schizophrenia.
A)True B)False
Q3) Major mood disorders are produced from within, that is, they have a(n) ____________________ cause.
Q4) A person who feels trapped in the body of the opposite sex and wishes to have a sex change operation would be diagnosed with a paraphilia.
A)True B)False
Q5) Many self-styled reformers, crank letter writers, conspiracy theorists, and "UFO abductees" suffer from the delusional disorder known as paranoid psychosis.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 15: Extension A: Therapies
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Analysis of resistance and transference are standard features of A)client-centered therapy.
B)Gestalt therapy.
C)REBT.
D)psychoanalysis.
Q2) Disadvantages of 900-number telephone service therapists include which of the following?
A)To date, there is little evidence that commercial telephone counseling is effective.
B)The therapy is undermined by a lack of visual cues.
C)The therapy undermined by a lack of a continuing relationship between therapist and client.
D)All of these are disadvantages.
Q3) Brief psychodynamic therapy developed in part because some critics suggested that traditional psychoanalysis takes so long that patients experience
A)a relapse of their symptoms.
B)reciprocal inhibition.
C)a spontaneous remission.
D)covert sensitization.
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Chapter 15: Extension B: Therapies
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Depressed persons see themselves in negative terms due to all of the following EXCEPT
A)selective perception.
B)overgeneralization.
C)all-or-nothing thinking.
D)a loss of meaningfulness.
Q2) A staff psychologist who recommends the use of a "time-out" procedure for treating disruptive behavior is referring to time-out from
A)attention and other rewards for disruptive behavior.
B)an overly stimulating environment.
C)threats of physical punishment.
D)the negative reinforcement associated with extinction.
Q3) Psychodrama assumes that
A)people can learn to recognize the parent, adult, and child roles in their personality.
B)insights from acted-out sessions transfer to real-life situations.
C)participants learn to spot insincerity by adopting artificial roles.
D)participants delve deep into their own personalities by watching staged interactions.
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Chapter 15: Extension C: Therapies
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58229
Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding community mental health centers, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)In practice, community mental health centers have concentrated much more on preventing mental illness than in providing clinical services.
B)Some centers have attempted to raise the general level of mental health in communities by combating unemployment, delinquency, and drug abuse.
C)Many of the programs at community mental health centers rely on paraprofessionals.
D)Community mental health centers provide special crisis and emergency services.
Q2) Regarding pharmacotherapy, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)It involves the use of drugs to treat behavioral and emotional problems.
B)It involves other medical treatments, such as ECT or EMDR.
C)It is considered a type of somatic therapy.
D)It is most beneficial when used in combination with some form of psychotherapy.
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Chapter 15: Extension D: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the four basic conditions that Carl Rogers believed that effective therapists should maintain.
Q2) When a person blows a single, unpleasant event out of proportion by extending it to a large number of unrelated situations, the person is exhibiting ____________________.
Q3) Today the average stay in a psychiatric hospital is 20 days.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Regarding family therapy, the therapist meets with the entire family at each session. A)True B)False
Q5) Gestalt therapists are more directive than client-centered or existential therapists. A)True B)False
Q6) If Greg used the technique called ____________________ to reduce the time he spends watching TV, Greg would vividly imagine himself failing an important exam because he had watched too much TV.
Q7) Major tranquilizers are also referred to as ____________________ drugs.
Page 53
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Chapter 16: Extension A: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Someone compliments you on your taste in clothes.You attribute this compliment to what you are wearing.This example illustrates which factor regarding attribution?
A)object.
B)actor.
C)setting.
D)proxemics.
Q2) The theory of _____ explains attitude change in terms of a need to maintain consistency in our thoughts and actions.
A)cognitive dissonance
B)congruence
C)adequate justification
D)persuasion
Q3) According to your textbook, which of the following is one of the six ways in which attitudes are acquired?
A)innate tendencies
B)mass media
C)compliance persuasion
D)temperamental factors
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Chapter 16: Extension B: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58226
Sample Questions
Q1) In a study in which loud conversations were staged behind theater patrons or people studying in a library,
A)very few protested.
B)more than half of people politely asked the persons to be quiet.
C)more than half become verbally threatening to the persons talking.
D)a majority either walked out or called the theater manager.
Q2) If you initially agree to put a small sign in your window, later you are more likely to allow a larger, uglier sign in your yard.This course of events exemplifies
A)obedience to an authority.
B)lowball technique.
C)door-in-the-face effect.
D)foot-in-the-door effect.
Q3) Proxemics is the study of A)approximations.
B)rules for proxy.
C)group cohesiveness.
D)personal space.
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Page 55
Chapter 16: Extension C: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unlike cult leaders, true spiritual leaders
A)teach love and compassion.
B)encourage followers to question their beliefs and leaders.
C)encourage followers to reach their own conclusions about how to live.
D)do all of these.
Q2) Basing one's attitudes on a few unusually good or bad experiences with a person, group, object, or institution is known as ____________________.
Q3) ____________________ conducted a simulated prison experiment that demonstrated the powerful effects of social roles. _______________ or _______________.
Q4) ____________________ conducted studies in which a subject was supposed to compare lines, but the real experiment was to discover if the subjects would conform to wrong answers regarding the lines. _______________ or _______________.
Q5) A person who lives in a culture that emphasizes group cooperation is more likely to conform than one who lives in an individualistic culture.
A)True B)False
Page 56
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Chapter 17: Extension A: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58224
Sample Questions
Q1) Physical proximity increases attraction because it
A)increases frequency of contact.
B)enhances social comparisons.
C)establishes common norms.
D)reduces development of incompatible roles.
Q2) According to the affiliation studies conducted by Schachter and Gump and Kulik, which saying is most accurate?
A)Misery loves company (especially miserable company).
B)Cry and you cry alone (in other words, no one likes to be around miserable people).
C)Laugh and the whole world laughs with you.
D)Out of sight, out of mind (or denial is a beautiful thing).
Q3) The use of alcohol and drugs make hostile behavior more likely to occur because the alcohol and drugs
A)lower one's threshold for aggression.
B)increase one's frustration level.
C)create a state of learned helplessness.
D)serve as direct cue for aggressiveness.
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Chapter 17: Extension B: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58223
Sample Questions
Q1) Aronson's "jigsaw" classroom created
A)friendly competition between the students.
B)superordinate goals for the students.
C)status inequalities among the students.
D)individuating information for the students to assimilate.
Q2) _____ is an institutionalized prejudice against members of either sex, based solely on their gender.
A)Genderism
B)Transsexualism
C)Sexism
D)Androgyny
Q3) Research by Donnerstein and others suggests that the circumstances most likely to increase violent sexual acts against women (such as rape) involve
A)newspaper publicity given to rapists.
B)direct exposure to persons who have committed such acts.
C)media images of violence.
D)pornographic stimuli that generate sexual fantasies.
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Chapter 17: Extension C: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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96 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the intercom experiment in which the subjects heard a person having a seizure, those that did not intervene and report the incident
A)were found to be apathetic to the plight of the person having the seizure.
B)experienced some distress but less than the persons who did intervene.
C)experienced more distress than the persons who did intervene.
D)were more likely to be women than men.
Q2) Treating members of various social groups differently in circumstances where their rights or treatment should be identical is known as ____________________.
Q3) Juan got a flat tire a few weeks ago and was helped by a friendly motorist.The next week, Juan saw a person with engine trouble stopped on the side.Juan will probably be more likely to stop and give aid than he would have before being helped himself.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In Jane Elliot's elementary school classroom, extremely prejudiced behavior was generated on the basis of eye color and status inequalities.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Extension A: Applied Psychology
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249 Verified Questions
249 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Putting a raised flowerbed around a sign to protect it from vandalism would reflect the work of _____ psychologists.
A)territorial
B)environmental
C)behavioral
D)engineering
Q2) Josh emphasizes Theory X management at his company and has just seen an immediate increase in productivity.According to your textbook, he can expect which of the following in the future?
A)a decrease in absenteeism
B)higher morale among employees
C)an increase in employee turnover
D)none of these
Q3) The owner of a small business, who has few resources to draw upon, would probably rely on which technique to select employees?
A)apply the assessment center approach
B)examine their response to critical incidents
C)use the in-basket test
D)compare candidates through interviewing
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Chapter 18: Extension B: Applied Psychology
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250 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58220
Sample Questions
Q1) Human factors psychologists do _____, in which they directly measure the ease with which people can learn to use a machine.
A)pragmatic testing
B)usability testing
C)humanistic assessments
D)operational acquisition
Q2) Community surveys are used
A)to find out how local citizens feel about the case.
B)to supplement demographic information on the juror.
C)since jurors will probably have attitudes similar to people with backgrounds like their own.
D)for all of these reasons.
Q3) Regarding motor programs, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)They enable athletes to learn any type of new skill, regardless of its difficulty.
B)They are written plans of how to perform a variety of complex movements.
C)They enable athletes to adapt skills to a variety of circumstances.
D)Their main purpose is to break motor skills down into specific subparts.
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Chapter 18: Extension C: Applied Psychology
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58219
Sample Questions
Q1) Situations that arise in a job, with which a competent worker must be able to cope are known as ____________________.
Q2) Describe five problems that occur in jury deliberations.
Q3) Common triggers for "desk rage," or workplace anger, include threats to one's self-esteem and feeling that one has been treated unfairly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The field that seeks to understand how people learn and how teachers instruct is called instructional psychology.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Detailed biographical information about a job applicant is known as ____________________.
Q6) Workers who add value to their company by creating and manipulating information are called ____________________ workers.
Q7) A jury composed of people who favor the death penalty or at least are indifferent to it are referred to as a(n) ____________________ jury.
Q8) Explain what is meant by organizational culture and organizational citizenship.
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Chapter 19: Appendix A: Behavioral Statistics
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Sample Questions
Q1) After administering a unit test to her psychology students, a college professor calculates the mean and range for this test in order to better understand the performance of her students on the material in this unit.This professor is using tests of statistical significance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Twenty psychology students took a 10-point practice test.Their scores were as follows: 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6, 6, 8, 8, 9, 9, 9, 9, 10, 10, 10, 10.What would be the median?
A)4.0
B)6.7
C)7.0
D)8.0
Q3) Students' hat sizes and their college grades would be a A)positive relationship.
B)zero correlation.
C)variable relationship.
D)negative relationship.
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63
Chapter 20: Appendix B: Behavioral Statistics
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58250
Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the difference in descriptive and inferential statistics.
Q2) If the mean of a test is 80 and the standard deviation is 10, a person with a z-score of -2.0 scored _____ on the test.
Q3) For the numbers 10, 17, 2, 9, and 15, the range is _____.
Q4) Juanita has determined that the correlation between her vocabulary screening test and her students' reading scores is .40.This means that _____ percent of the variation in reading scores is accounted for by knowing the students' scores on the screening test.
Q5) Graphical statistics, measures of central tendency, and measures of variability are the three basic types of _____ statistics.
Q6) A bell-shaped distribution, with a large number of scores in the middle, tapering to very few extremely high and low scores is known as a(n) _____.
Q7) If a correlation is +1.00, a(n) _____ positive relationship exists.
Q8) Ninety-nine percent of all the cases are found between _____ on a normal curve.
Q9) Given these scores 22, 44, 33, 55, 33, 22, 44, 22, 55, 22, the mode is _____.
Q10) A(n) _____ is made by breaking down the entire range of possible scores into classes of equal size and then recording the number of scores falling into each class.
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