Course Introduction
Principles of Psychology Practice Questions
Principles of Psychology introduces students to the foundational concepts, theories, and methods in the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. Covering key topics such as perception, cognition, learning, memory, emotion, development, personality, psychological disorders, and social interaction, this course provides a comprehensive overview of the ways in which psychologists investigate and understand individual and group behavior. Students will also explore the application of psychological principles in real-world settings, develop critical thinking skills, and gain insight into the biological and cultural factors that influence human thought and action.
Recommended Textbook
Discovering Psychology 7th Edition by
Sandra E. Hockenbury
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70 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Section 1: Introduction and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the steps in the scientific method.
Answer: The answer should include the following information: Psychologists follow four basic steps as part of the scientific method. These steps are as follows:
- Formulate a specific research question that can be tested.
- Design a study to collect relevant data
- Analyze the data and arrive at conclusions.
- Report the results.
Q2) As a critical thinker, it is important to follow four steps when determining the validity of a particular claim presented in a research study. List the four steps.
Answer: The answer should include the following information:Answer: Identify the claim.Answer: Evaluate the evidence.Answer: Consider alternative explanations.Answer: Consider the source of the research or claim.
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3
Chapter 1: Section 2: Introduction and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) The research method that is used to demonstrate a cause-and-effect relationship between changes in one variable and the effects on another variable is called _____ research.
A)descriptive
B)correlational
C)experimental
D)meta-analytic
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)The Greek philosopher Aristotle first defined psychology as the "scientific study of behavior and mental processes."
B)In contemporary psychology, the nature-nurture issue explores the relative influences of heredity versus environmental factors on behavior.
C)The mind-body issue has now been settled, and psychologists no longer explore the relationship between mental activity and the brain.
D)The principle of interactive dualism was formulated by Aristotle more than 2,000 years ago.
Answer: B
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Chapter 1: Section 3: Introduction and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Psych For Your Life box in the textbook, taking notes on your laptop is better for studying and retention than taking notes by hand.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) According to proponents of evolutionary psychology organisms that inherit characteristics that increase their chances of survival in their particular habitat are more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass on their characteristics to their offspring.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Some limitations of brain-imaging studies discussed in the Focus on Neuroscience section include the fact that they typically involve a small number of participants and that they tend to focus on simple aspects of behavior.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 1: Section 4: Introduction and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Professor Wallace studied over 3,000 elderly individuals for a decade and found a statistically significant relationship between survival rate and number of close friends. Specifically, he found that elderly individuals with few close friends had a much higher death rate. To say that the results of his study are "statistically significant" means that:
A)the finding has great practical value and significance.
B)there is a cause-and-effect relationship between the two variables.
C)the finding does not have to be replicated to be accepted by the scientific community.
D)the results are unlikely to have occurred by chance.
Q2) According to Psych For Your Life: Successful Study Techniques, which of the following studying strategies should you AVOID?
A)Using flashcards.
B)Taking notes on your laptop.
C)Studying while multitasking.
D)Taking notes by hand.
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6
Chapter 1: Section 5: Introduction and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ scans provide color-coded images of the brain's activity.
A)MRI
B)fMRI
C)PET
D)EEG
Q2) The _____ perspective contended that psychology should focus its scientific investigations strictly on observable conducts that could be objectively measured and verified.
A)psychodynamic
B)humanistic
C)behavioral
D)biological
Q3) The first African American to earn a Ph.D. in psychology was:
A)Mary Whiton Calkins.
B)Francis C. Sumner.
C)Edward B. Titchener.
D)G. Stanley Hall.
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Chapter 2: Section 1: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Q1) What are endorphins and what are their functions?
Q2) What are the key structures of the hindbrain and what roles do they play?
Q3) Julian is 50 years old. He played football for over 20 years, starting in middle school. After college, he played semi-pro football until he injured his knee, which required multiple surgeries to repair. Over the course of his football career, Julian sustained repeated concussions. Julian's family has noticed that he has become increasingly anxious and depressed over the past few years. Although he was never impulsive before, Julian now gambles and goes on spending sprees-sometimes buying items that he will never use. He has difficulty remembering important dates, complains that he can't concentrate, and he becomes angry when distracted as he struggles to sustain his attention for more than a few minutes. According to the In Focus Box: Traumatic Brain Injury: From Concussions to Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy, what condition does Julian likely have? Will his doctor be able to diagnose the condition at his next physical? Why or why not?
Q4) Distinguish between cortical localization and lateralization of function and give an example of each.
Q5) What is the somatosensory cortex? How is it organized?
Q6) What is the refractory period, and what takes place during that period?
Q7) What are spinal reflexes? Are they important?
Page 8
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Chapter 2: Section 2: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is one of the phenomena mentioned in the text that is associated with increased endorphin levels?
A)addiction to nicotine
B)muscle spasms during aerobic exercise
C)the pain-relieving effects of acupuncture
D)the relaxation produced by drinking alcohol
Q2) The Human Connectome Project has an ambitious goal to:
A)sequence the human genome.
B)map the millions of miles of neural connections among the 100 billion neurons in the human brain.
C)determine how each human is genetically related.
D)connect human research to animal research.
Q3) In females, the gonads are the _____, which secrete _____.
A)ovaries; testosterone
B)testes; testosterone
C)ovaries; estrogen and progesterone
D)testes; estrogen and progesterone
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Chapter 2: Section 3: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amygdala is an almond-shaped structure at the base of the brain that is attached to and controls the pituitary gland.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The signals for voluntary muscle movements originate in the somatosensory cortex on the frontal lobe.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During the process of reuptake, glial cells absorb unused neurotransmitters and then transfer the neurotransmitters to the appropriate neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The notion that different psychological and mental functions are located or localized in different areas of the brain is called localization of function or cortical localization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 2: Section 4: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reduced brain levels of the neurotransmitter _____ is most notably involved in the progressive memory loss that characterizes Alzheimer's disease.
A)GABA
B)serotonin
C)dopamine
D)acetylcholine
Q2) Nicotine is classified as a(n):
A)endorphin.
B)SSRI.
C)agonist.
D)antagonist.
Q3) _____ is the branch of science that is concerned with the study of the nervous system, especially the brain.
A)Plasticity
B)Neuroscience
C)Clinical psychiatry
D)Developmental psychology
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11
Chapter 2: Section 5: Neuroscience and Behavior
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Q1) The venom of a black widow spider bite causes _____ to be released continuously by motor neurons causing severe muscle spasms.
A)acetylcholine
B)dopamine
C)GABA
D)serotonin
Q2) When neurotransmitters communicate an inhibitory message to the postsynaptic neuron:
A)reuptake is inhibited.
B)the presynaptic neuron is less likely to activate.
C)the action potential is canceled out.
D)the postsynaptic neuron is less likely to activate.
Q3) According to your textbook, _____ is associated with increased endorphin levels.
A)nicotine addiction
B)heavy consumption of alcohol
C)muscle rigidity during aerobic exercises
D)the pain-relieving effect of acupuncture
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Chapter 3: Section 1: Sensation and Perception
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Q1) Describe and contrast the trichromatic and the opponent-process theories of color vision.
Q2) Describe the series of events that culminate in visual perception including the structure of the eye and/or brain area involved in each step.
Q3) What are pheromones and what evidence is there for the existence of human pheromones?
Q4) What properties of a sound wave correspond to our perception of sound?
Q5) What is the basic pathway for information transmission from the eye to the brain?
Q6) Define and describe the process of transduction. Explain how transduction takes place in at least two different senses with specific examples.
Q7) Explain what is meant by bottom-up processing and top-down processing. Provide examples of each.
Q8) What is sensory adaptation and why is it important?
Q9) Define ESP and parapsychology. Identify four different forms of ESP and summarize the research findings on ESP claims.
Q10) How are ganglion cells different from bipolar cells?
Q11) How does the sensation of taste occur?
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Chapter 3: Section 2: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to frequency theory the basilar membrane:
A)is unable to transmit high-frequency sounds.
B)vibrates at three times the frequency of the sound wave.
C)vibrates at the same frequency as the sound wave.
D)is involved in the transmission of low-frequency sounds but not high-frequency sounds.
Q2) X-rays, radio waves, microwaves, and ultraviolet waves are all forms of _____ that differ in terms of their _____.
A)electromagnetic energy; absolute threshold
B)wavelength; intensity
C)electromagnetic energy; wavelength
D)sensation; absolute threshold
Q3) The basilar membrane:
A)separates the middle ear from the inner ear.
B)lies within the coiled cochlea.
C)is part of the eardrum.
D)is a structure within the middle ear.
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Chapter 3: Section 3: Sensation and Perception
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Q1) Nearsightedness, farsightedness, and astigmatism are all caused by an abnormally shaped retina.
A)True B)False
Q2) The vast majority of people who are color blind are unable to distinguish red from yellow or blue.
A)True B)False
Q3) Stroboscopic motion involves the movement of an image across the surface of the retina.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The brain identifies specific odors by interpreting the pattern of olfactory receptors that are stimulated by a particular airborne chemical.
A)True B)False
Q5) On the average, humans can detect and identify about 10,000 different odors. A)True B)False
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Chapter 3: Section 4: Sensation and Perception
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Q1) The "fallacy of positive instances" refers to the:
A)ability to predict the future.
B)tendency to misjudge the probability of an event occurring simply by chance.
C)tendency to seek the simplest possible explanation for an unusual event.
D)tendency to remember events that seem to confirm our beliefs and forget the events that contradict our beliefs.
Q2) Researchers have found that human pheromones appear primarily to:
A)affect mood and emotional states.
B)enhance general arousal.
C)trigger sexual attraction.
D)increase hormone levels.
Q3) Five-year-old Sam is having his hearing checked. The nurse places headphones over Sam's ears and instructs him to raise his hand whenever he hears a beep. Sam is being tested for his hearing:
A)threshold.
B)proprioception.
C)potential.
D)transduction.
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Chapter 3: Section 5: Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) To reduce the intense pain of her migraine headaches, Lisette's doctor taught her a procedure that involved learning to control the blood flow and muscle tension in her head and neck. What is the technique called?
A)acupuncture
B)counterirritation
C)positive self-talk
D)biofeedback
Q2) The phenomenon of afterimages can be best explained by which theory?
A)frequency theory
B)place theory
C)trichromatic theory
D)opponent-process theory
Q3) _____ provide more specific information and function best in bright light, while _____ provide less specific information and function best in dim light.
A)Cones; rods
B)Rods; cones
C)Bipolar cells; ganglion cells
D)Ganglion cells; bipolar cells
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Chapter 4: Section 1: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the role of sunlight and darkness, clocks, and other environmental time cues, in regulating the sleep-wake cycle.
Q2) Contrast Freud's explanation of the significance of dreams with that of the activation-synthesis model of dreaming.
Q3) How do sleep specialists treat obstructive sleep apnea? Give a specific answer.
Q4) What are the main characteristics of narcolepsy, and how are cataplexy and sleep paralysis involved?
Q5) What is exploding head syndrome? Is this a rare condition? Explain your answer.
Q6) Describe the perils of multitasking or dividing attention, and provide an example.
Q7) Define attention, and describe how attention is selective and limited in capacity.
Q8) What are the potential benefits of meditation?
Q9) Describe the two categories of meditation, and discuss the general effects of meditation.
Q10) What are sleep terrors, and who is most likely to have them?
Q11) Distinguish between sleep thinking and dreams.
Page 18
Q12) Compare and contrast state and non-state theories of hypnosis.
Q13) Define the term consciousness. What does consciousness enable us to do?
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Page 19
Chapter 4: Section 2: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Q1) In the absence of _____, our internal body clock drifts to its natural rhythm.
A)intrinsic time cues
B)external time cues
C)melatonin
D)the circadian rhythm
Q2) Sleepsex is also called:
A)somnambulism.
B)narcolepsy.
C)sleep terror.
D)sexsomnia.
Q3) _____ are highly addictive drugs that suppress appetite, produce euphoria, and reduce fatigue.
A)Barbiturates
B)Opiates
C)Percodan and Demerol
D)Amphetamines
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Page 20
Chapter 4: Section 3: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Q1) Each of the addictive drugs-including alcohol, cocaine, heroin, nicotine, and the amphetamines-has its own separate reward system involving different neurotransmitters in the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Insomnia, obstructive sleep apnea, and narcolepsy are all classified as dyssomnias.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The suprachiasmatic nucleus is a cluster of neurons located in the hypothalamus in the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The presence of sleep spindles and K complexes indicates that the person is experiencing REM sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sleep appears to be especially important in preserving emotional memories.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 4: Section 4: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Q1) Westerbrook did not notice when his wife, Priscilla, got her hair cut because he wasn't paying attention to her appearance when she walked into the house. Mr. Westerbrook's failure to notice that Priscilla cut her hair is most likely an example of:
A)attention deficit.
B)change blindness.
C)the cocktail party effect.
D)mindfulness.
Q2) According to Focus on Neuroscience: The Addicted Brain, alcohol, heroin, nicotine, cocaine, and the amphetamines primarily affect the:
A)suprachiasmatic nucleus.
B)left hemisphere of the brain.
C)areas of the brain responsible for balance.
D)dopamine reward system.
Q3) Sleepwalking and sleep terrors are _____ that tend to occur during _____.
A)parasomnias; stages 3 and 4 NREM sleep
B)parasomnias; REM sleep
C)dyssomnias; stages 1 and 2 NREM sleep
D)dyssomnias; REM sleep
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Chapter 4: Section 5: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Q1) Keagan is experiencing the effects of posthypnotic suggestions. If Keagan is like the average person, these effects will:
A)usually last for about a year.
B)become permanent.
C)typically last for only a few hours or days.
D)reach peak levels in about six months.
Q2) According to the activation-synthesis model of dreaming, what is "synthesized" in dreaming?
A)limbic system neurotransmitters, especially dopamine
B)the various sexual and aggressive impulses that are symbolically expressed in the dream's manifest content
C)various memories and sensations that are internally generated by the brain
D)melatonin, which is normally produced by the pituitary gland
Q3) REM stands for:
A)rapid equilibrium motion.
B)rapid eye movements.
C)restless eye movements.
D)random eye motion.
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Chapter 5: Section 1: Learning
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Q1) Provide two examples of how Watson applied classical conditioning principles to advertising.
Q2) Discuss the relationship between exposure to violent media and increases in aggressive behavior, and explain why some psychologists are cautious in their conclusions about the effects of media violence.
Q3) Explain how the idea of biological preparedness can be applied to human phobias.
Q4) Describe the basic process of classical conditioning, using an original example. Be sure to identify the UCS, UCR, CS, and CR.
Q5) Discuss criticisms of the famous "Little Albert" study.
Q6) Explain how Robert Rescorla demonstrated that mental processes are involved in classical conditioning.
Q7) Discuss how the principles of observational learning have been applied to promote social change and healthy behaviors.
Q8) Explain what is meant by the "adaptive nature of learning" as it relates to classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and observation/imitation.
Q9) Describe at least three strategies that can be used to change behavior without resorting to punishment.
Page 24
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Chapter 5: Section 2: Learning
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Q1) After getting cactus needles stuck in her hand, 2-year-old Rachel no longer touches cactus plants. Using operant conditioning terms, this is an example of:
A)negative reinforcement.
B)higher order conditioning.
C)punishment by application.
D)punishment by removal.
Q2) Your dog tends to salivate and get excited when you shake a box of dog biscuits. However, your dog does not drool when you shake a bag of cat food. This is an example of:
A)stimulus generalization.
B)spontaneous recovery.
C)stimulus discrimination.
D)higher order conditioning.
Q3) What was the conditioned response (CR) in Watson and Rayner's famous ''Little Albert'' study?
A)the loud clanging sound
B)the sight of the white rat
C)fear in response to the loud clanging sound
D)fear in response to the sight of the rat
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Chapter 5: Section 3: Learning
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Q1) Faced with an ever-changing environment, an organism's capacity to learn is critical to adaptation and survival.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In training various animals to perform tricks, Marian and Keller Breland discovered that certain natural behavior patterns interfered with the operant behaviors they were attempting to condition in some animals, a phenomenon called instinctive drift.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most television violence is performed by unattractive villains who are punished for their misdeeds, clearly sending the message that "it does not pay to use violence."
A)True
B)False
Q4) A major contribution of B. F. Skinner to the psychology of learning was his demonstration of the effects on behavior of different schedules of reinforcement.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Section 4: Learning
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Q1) According to the _____ model developed by _____, behavior is shaped and maintained by its environmental consequences.
A)classical conditioning; John B. Watson
B)cognitive; Edward Tolman
C)evolutionary; John Garcia.
D)operant conditioning; B. F. Skinner
Q2) The biological predisposition to perform natural behaviors can interfere with learning operant behaviors. This phenomenon is called:
A)classical conditioning.
B)the instinctive drift.
C)behaviorism.
D)shaping and chaining.
Q3) _____'s research contributed to television and radio serial dramas that are used to promote social change and healthy behaviors around the world.
A)B. F. Skinner
B)Albert Bandura
C)John Garcia
D)Edward L. Thorndike
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Chapter 5: Section 5: Learning
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Q1) Learning is defined as:
A)a process that produces a relatively permanent change in behavior or knowledge as a result of past experience.
B)a process that produces a relatively permanent change in behavior or knowledge due to natural or instinctive processes.
C)the ability to solve problems and apply previous experiences to current situations.
D)one's ability to replace old habits with new habits.
Q2) Sarah gets a weekly allowance, but only if all of her chores are completed by 5 P.M. on Friday night. Although Sarah does some work around the house during the week, most of her chores are done in a burst of activity after she comes home from school on Friday afternoon. Sarah's behavior is being maintained on a _____ schedule of reinforcement.
A)variable-ratio (VR)
B)fixed-ratio (FR)
C)variable-interval (VI)
D)fixed-interval (FI)
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Chapter 6: Section 1: Memory
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Q1) Using what you have learned about memory, explain why multiple-choice, matching, and fill-in-the-blank questions are easier to answer than essay questions.
Q2) Compare and contrast the characteristics of suppression and repression, giving an example of each.
Q3) What is a flashbulb memory, and in what ways is it similar to and/or different from an ordinary memory?
Q4) Briefly describe the stage model of memory, and explain how the memory stages interact.
Q5) Describe at least four strategies that can be used to enhance memory.
Q6) Explain how encoding failure is implicated in everyday memory failures due to absentmindedness.
Q7) Devon, age 12, watched his grandfather fall from the roof of his house. Two days later, Devon's grandfather died from his injuries. Melody, Devon's mother, has been told that traumatic memories are usually repressed and, therefore, Devon won't be able to recall this horrific event. According to the Critical Thinking box: "The Memory Wars: Recovered or False Memories" in your text, why is Melody's assumption incorrect?
Q8) Define memory, and summarize its three fundamental processes.
Page 29
Q9) Identify and describe at least two factors that seem to influence forgetting.
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Memory
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Q1) In relation to amnesia, "backward moving" is to _____ as "forward moving" is to
A)anterograde amnesia; retrograde amnesia
B)dementia; Alzheimer's disease
C)retrograde amnesia; anterograde amnesia
D)Alzheimer's disease; dementia
Q2) "Can you believe it? Another cellphone, and this one looks expensive!" the cosmetics salesperson laughed as she waved the cell phone that the customer had left behind. "Well, put it in the drawer with the others," her co-worker said. "They'll probably come back for this one." Such everyday instances of absentmindedness are usually caused by:
A)retrieval failure.
B)prospective memory failure.
C)encoding failure.
D)source confusion.
Q3) The critical factor in the context effect is the influence of:
A)distributed memory traces.
B)imagination inflation.
C)external environmental cues.
D)schemas versus scripts.
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Memory
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Q1) The terms schema and engram share the same meaning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The basic idea of the semantic network model is that activating one concept, such as the word "dog," can trigger the activation of other concepts that are associated with it, such as the words "cat," "hound," or "pound."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Source confusion is a common cause of false memories.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A great deal of information is held during the sensory memory stage, but only for a couple of seconds at the longest.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Organizing items into related groups during recall from long-term memory is called "clustering."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Section 4: Memory
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Q1) Blane vividly remembers the day he attended Game 6 of the World Series. He remembers what he was wearing, where he parked, what he ate, how many hits each team had, and the celebration that ensued after his favorite team won. Blane's memory of this event is stored in his _____ memory.
A)conscious
B)working
C)long-term
D)sensory
Q2) When you are in a positive mood, you are more likely to recall positive memories. This phenomenon is referred to as _____, and it is one form that _____ can take.
A)source amnesia; source monitoring
B)mood congruence; the encoding specificity principle
C)inattentional blindness; encoding failure
D)mood congruence; long-term potentiation
Q3) _____ is the process of accessing information stored in long-term memory.
A)Retrieval
B)Encoding
C)Integration
D)Consolidation
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Page 32
Chapter 6: Section 5: Memory
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Q1) Of the following, which is considered a critical factor in the context effect?
A)distributed memory traces
B)hindsight bias
C)external environmental cues
D)the ability to script
Q2) Adam vividly remembers the accident that sent him to the emergency room for stitches. This is an example of which type of long-term memory?
A)procedural
B)semantic
C)implicit
D)episodic
Q3) Research with the sea snail Aplysia has demonstrated that:
A)the sea snail's nervous system is too primitive to form memories.
B)long-term potentiation is only possible in animals with more sophisticated and complex nervous systems.
C)forming a new memory involves changes in both the function and structure of neurons.
D)anterograde and retrograde amnesia involve fundamentally different neural circuits.
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Chapter 7: Section 1: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) For individuals who are genetically related, how does similarity in IQ scores vary with degree of genetic relatedness?
Q2) Describe and explain the implications of the study by Stephen Kosslyn and his colleagues that involved memorizing locations on a map of a fictitious island.
Q3) Contrast the ways in which formal concepts and natural concepts are formed, and give an original example of each.
Q4) Define stereotype threat, and provide an example of psychological research that has demonstrated its effects on test performance.
Q5) Describe three strategies that can be used to make a decision among several alternatives.
Q6) Describe Lewis Terman's contribution to intelligence testing.
Q7) Define heritability and explain heritability estimate.
Q8) What was Alfred Binet's role in the development of intelligence tests?
Q9) People often cling to beliefs that have been contradicted by empirical evidence. What kinds of obstacles to logical thinking can help explain the persistence of such unwarranted beliefs?
Q10) Describe the differences between algorithms and heuristics, and give an example of each.
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) Lopez assesses the correlation between scores obtained on two halves of his new test measuring the ability to cope with stress. He is checking the _____ of his new test.
A)reliability
B)validity
C)norms
D)variability
Q2) In general, you can quickly identify an item as being an example of a natural concept if the item:
A)closely matches the prototype of the concept.
B)is very different from the prototype of the concept.
C)is identified using the additive model.
D)has functional fixedness.
Q3) When a test has the ability to produce consistent results when administered on repeated occasions under similar conditions, it is said to be:
A)reliable.
B)valid.
C)standardized.
D)representative.
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) Bowers and his colleagues proposed a model of intuition that involves two stages: the exemplar stage and the prototype stage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Research has shown that just imagining a face or place activates the same brain region that is activated when a person perceives a face or a place.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Concepts provide a kind of mental shorthand, economizing the cognitive effort required for thinking and communication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cognition refers to the mental activities involved in acquiring, retaining, and using knowledge.
A)True
B)False
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Page 36
Chapter 7: Section 4: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) Erika is asked to generate a list of five different animals that can be kept as pets. She quickly responds, "dogs, cats, goldfish, gerbils, and canaries." Dogs would thus represent Erika's _____ for the _____ concept of "pets."
A)defining features or attributes; natural B)prototype; natural C)exemplar; formal D)prototype; formal
Q2) Who translated and revised Binet's intelligence test for use in the United States?
A)David Wechsler
B)Charles Spearman
C)Louis Thurstone
D)Lewis Terman
Q3) Rick asks you how many stop signs you encounter on your drive home. To answer his question, you probably rely on a:
A)mental image.
B)linguistic concept.
C)map of your city.
D)natural concept.
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Chapter 7: Section 5: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) After his imported, top-rated fifteen-speed mountain bike was stolen, Jason decides to replace it with the least expensive ten-speed he can find so that he won't have to worry about it. Which decision-making strategy is Jason using?
A)the additive model
B)the elimination-by-aspects model
C)the single-feature model
D)the availability model
Q2) According to Claude Steele, how does stereotype threat tend to impair performance?
A)It causes the individual to focus on the self rather than others.
B)Irrelevant mental images are produced, which lead to maladaptive thinking.
C)It creates a sense of neurotic self-efficacy.
D)It leads to the fear that one might confirm the stereotype.
Q3) _____ is defined as the tendency to view objects as functioning only in their usual or customary way.
A)Functional fixedness
B)Conceptualization
C)Consolidation
D)Intuition
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Page 38
Chapter 8: Section 1: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) Identify the basic emotions, and compare individualistic and collectivist cultures in terms of the dimensions of emotions.
Q2) Define glucose, ghrelin, and cholecystokinin, and compare the mechanisms by which they act as short-term signals in regulating eating behavior.
Q3) Brian was caught robbing a bank. Use at least three of the following motivational theories to explain why Brian may have robbed the bank: (a) drive theories, (b) incentive theory, (c) instinct theory, (d) arousal theory, and/or (e) humanistic theory.
Q4) Ann wants to achieve the goal of completing a marathon. Outline how she could create and use goal intentions and implementation intentions to help achieve that goal.
Q5) Provide evidence to support the idea that humans may be evolutionarily programmed to overeat when food is abundant.
Q6) Describe Abraham Maslow's theory of motivation, and list the qualities that characterize self-actualized people.
Q7) Define leptin, insulin, and neuropeptide Y, and compare the mechanisms by which they act as long-term signals to regulate body weight.
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) According to the Critical Thinking box, "Has Evolution Programmed Us to Overeat?" people in food-rich societies eat because:
A)we are hungry.
B)our bodies are suffering from depleted nutrients or energy resources.
C)we are motivated by the positive incentive value of highly palatable foods.
D)eating is a highly ritualized social behavior.
Q2) Mark signed up for piano lessons to prove to himself that he could successfully master the challenge of learning to play the piano. What type of motivation is Mark displaying in this situation?
A)extrinsic motivation
B)achievement motivation
C)competence motivation
D)power motivation
Q3) Which scientist argued that the differences in emotional experience between animals and humans were a matter of degree, not kind?
A)William James
B)Paul Ekman
C)Charles Darwin
D)Abraham Maslow
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) The nonverbal expression of embarrassment appears to be culture-specific; that is, embarrassment is expressed differently in each culture that has been studied.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to psychologists Edward Deci and Richard Ryan's self-determination theory, optimal psychological functioning can only occur if the psychological needs for autonomy, competence, and relatedness are satisfied.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Satiation refers to the feeling of fullness and diminished appetite that accompanies eating a full meal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Drive theories propose that behavior is motivated by the desire to reduce internal tension caused by unmet biological needs, such as hunger or thirst.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Section 4: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) According to _____ theory, optimal human functioning and growth throughout the lifespan is possible only if psychological needs for autonomy, competence, and relatedness are met.
A)self-determination
B)humanistic
C)self-actualization
D)psychoanalytic
Q2) According to Focus on Neuroscience: Emotions and the Brain, when recalling emotional memories, the _____ is activated, which contributes to our ability to feel an emotion.
A)visual cortex
B)hippocampus
C)somatosensory cortex
D)hypothalamus
Q3) _____ is the rate at which your body uses energy for vital bodily functions when at rest.
A)Set-point rate (SPR)
B)Basal metabolic rate (BMR)
C)Body mass index (BMI)
D)Systolic blood pressure (SBP)
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Chapter 8: Section 5: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) Marshall sleeps, on average, five hours per night. Compared to adults who sleep seven to eight hours a night, Marshall is 50 percent more likely to:
A)be underweight.
B)lose weight but gain it back.
C)be obese.
D)have a high basal metabolic rate.
Q2) MOST researchers conclude that basic emotions consist of:
A)happiness, disgust, rage, and relaxation.
B)guilt, pride, embarrassment, and envy
C)regret, fear, guilt, contentment, rage, resentment, pity, and joy.
D)sadness, happiness, disgust, fear, surprise, and anger.
Q3) As a result of a genetic mutation, ob/ob mice lack the ability to produce: A)CCK.
B)neuropeptide Y. C)leptin.
D)ghrelin.
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Chapter 9: Section 1: Lifespan Development
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Q1) Identify the major stages of the lifespan.
Q2) Ryan is a 20-year-old college student. He often tells his friends that he's dreading getting old. He once commented, "Once you hit 60, it's all downhill. You might as well throw in the towel." Is Ryan's impression of aging adults accurate? Explain your answer.
Q3) Discuss the relationship between adolescent behavior and adolescent brain development.
Q4) Define teratogens, and list five known teratogens.
Q5) What is the major premise of the activity theory of aging?
Q6) List the criticisms and major limitations of Kohlberg's theory, and describe Carol Gilligan's model of moral development.
Q7) In regards to physical development in infancy and childhood, describe the cephalocaudal and proximodistal trends. How do these trends in infant development compare to the developmental sequence for body segments in the womb?
Q8) Describe the positive effects of aerobic exercise on cognitive functioning in old age, and summarize evidence from experimental research that supports these claims.
Q9) Describe Renée Baillargeon's research, and explain how it challenged some of Piaget's conclusions.
Page 44
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Lifespan Development
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Q1) The fetal brain is constantly changing, forming as many as 2 million synaptic connections per second. Connections that are used are strengthened, while connections that remain unused are eventually:
A)regenerated.
B)hard-wired.
C)quickened.
D)pruned.
Q2) A male has an _____ combination in the _____.
A)XX; 1st pair of genes
B)XX; 23rd pair of chromosomes
C)XY; 1st pair of chromosomes
D)XY; 23rd pair of chromosomes
Q3) Cells that can divide indefinitely, renew themselves, and give rise to a variety of other types of cells are called _____ cells.
A)epigenetic
B)zygotic
C)stem
D)karyotypic
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Lifespan Development
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Q1) The last areas of the brain to mature are the parietal lobes, which are involved in language, reasoning, and motivation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Infants all over the world use the same sounds when they first begin babbling, including sounds that do not occur in the language of their parents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Stem cells can divide indefinitely, renew themselves, and give rise to a variety of other types of cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each chromosome contains exactly 23 pairs of genes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Menarche is a female's first menstrual period, which occurs during puberty.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 9: Section 4: Lifespan Development
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Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Compared with 30 years ago, the number of married couples with children has sharply declined.
B)Marital satisfaction tends to decline following the birth of the first child.
C)In the last few decades, the average age at which people first marry has steadily increased.
D)Women who have multiple, satisfying, and positive roles, but are nonetheless juggling career, marriage, and family responsibilities, are almost certain to experience the very highest levels of stress.
Q2) According to research on gender-role stereotypes, which individual is likely to be the MOST rigid in his or her beliefs?
A)Deacon, who is 9
B)Renee, who is 14
C)Rose, who is 40
D)George, who is 65
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Chapter 9: Section 5: Lifespan Development
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Q1) _____ developed gender schema theory to explain gender-role development.
A)Behavioral scientist Virginia Johnson
B)Psychologist Sandra Bem
C)Physician William Masters
D)Psychologist David Buss
Q2) _____ genes are examples of alleles.
A)Polygenic
B)Stem cell
C)Mutated
D)Dominant and recessive
Q3) According to developmental psychologist Jerome Kagan, there are two broad temperamental patterns, which are:
A)high reactive and low reactive.
B)slow to warm up and difficult.
C)secure and insecure.
D)difficult and shy.
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Chapter 10: Section 1: Personality
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Q1) What are the basic assumptions in Carl Rogers's humanistic theory of personality?
Q2) Describe how Eysenck's trait theory of personality applies to each of the following people: First, there is Carl. He is a scientist who prefers to spend his time working alone in his quiet laboratory carefully conducting his experiments in hopes of finding a cure for cancer. Next, Carl's brother Timothy is a party planner who teaches group aerobic exercise classes in his spare time and loves to attend networking events. Then there is their cousin Frank, who is a troubled young man. Frank is prone to violent outbursts. He is easily angered and has even spent time in prison after a conviction for assault and battery stemming from a disagreement at a sporting event. Finally, there is Archie. He holds a pessimistic view of the world and tends to be very anxious. Because of these issues, Archie has been unable to hold a permanent job.
Q3) Briefly describe the five stages of psychosexual development in Freud's personality theory.
Q4) Define graphology, and describe the scientific research investigating the claims of graphologists. State what conclusions can be drawn about this topic.
Q5) Summarize the key ideas proposed by Carl Jung.
Q6) Describe the four major theoretical perspectives on personality.
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Chapter 10: Section 2: Personality
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Q1) According to Table 10.5, Robert McCrae and Paul Costa, Jr, are best known for proposing:
A)the five-factor model of personality.
B)that there are three basic dimensions of personality.
C)the 16 factor model of personality.
D)that behavior is motivated by our hierarchy of needs and striving for self-actualization.
Q2) Carl Jung believed that the sense of self and psychic wholeness is universally symbolized by:
A)extraverted behavior.
B)introverted behavior.
C)dream symbols.
D)the mandala.
Q3) What type of personality test involves the interpreting of an ambiguous image and is used to assess unconscious motives and conflicts?
A)a projective test
B)a self-report inventory
C)a personality type inventory
D)a graphology test
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Chapter 10: Section 3: Personality
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Q1) Possible selves are escapist fantasies that represent a very primitive form of ego defense mechanisms and should be avoided whenever possible.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A self-report inventory that determines a person's personality type by measuring his or her preferred way of dealing with information, making decisions, and interacting with others, is called the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI).
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ego is ruled by the pleasure principle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Research strongly supports Carl Jung's contention that the archetypes are genetically passed from one generation to the next.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Section 4: Personality
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Q1) The actualizing tendency is to _____ as striving for superiority is to _____.
A)Abraham Maslow; Carl Jung
B)Alfred Adler; Karen Horney
C)Carl Rogers; Alfred Adler
D)Carl Jung; Carl Rogers
Q2) Latency is to _____ as reaction formation is to _____.
A)psychosexual stage; ego defense mechanism
B)ego defense mechanism; psychosexual stage
C)conscious; unconscious
D)unconscious; conscious
Q3) Zelda describes herself as shy, hardworking, compassionate, and organized. Zelda's analysis of her own personality is MOST similar to which perspective on personality?
A)trait
B)psychoanalytic
C)social cognitive
D)humanistic
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Chapter 10: Section 5: Personality
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Q1) Which of the following is a self-report test designed to assess personality types rather than personality traits?
A)Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF)
B)California Personality Inventory (CPI)
C)Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
D)Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)
Q2) Trait theorists are MOST likely to describe an individual in terms of his or her:
A)unique combination of characteristics or attributes.
B)unconscious conflicts and repressed wishes.
C)self-concept.
D)level of self-efficacy.
Q3) According to Table 10.5 in the textbook, Robert McCrae and Paul Costa, Jr., are key personality theorists associated with the _____ perspective.
A)trait
B)psychoanalytic
C)humanistic
D)social-cognitive
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Chapter 11: Section 1: Social Psychology
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Q1) Do attitudes always guide behavior? Describe the conditions under which a person is most likely to behave in a way that is consistent with his or her attitudes.
Q2) What is conformity? How is it influenced by normative and informational social influence, and culture?
Q3) Describe the physical, interpersonal, situational, and cultural factors that influence attraction and liking.
Q4) Describe research findings on the use of fMRI scans of people's brains while they looked at photos of physically attractive people, and identify the brain areas that were activated. Also, identify brain areas that are responsive to the reward value of attractive faces.
Q5) Summarize the advantages and disadvantages of the social categorization process.
Q6) What is cognitive dissonance, and how is cognitive dissonance illustrated in the Grasshopper Experiment example described in your textbook?
Q7) Describe how implicit attitudes differ from explicit attitudes, and explain how implicit attitudes are measured using the Implicit Association Test (IAT).
Q8) Under what conditions are bystanders most likely to help a stranger? Least likely to help a stranger?
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Social Psychology
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Q1) If a teacher uses the jigsaw classroom technique, it is very likely that the children will:
A)develop intense prejudice against members of the out-group.
B)tend to engage in ethnocentrism when trying to solve the mutual problem.
C)have higher self-esteem and greater liking for children in other ethnic groups.
D)become very good at solving jigsaw puzzles but will have poor reading and writing skills.
Q2) Studies of online dating have shown that women tend to prefer men who are _____, and men tend to prefer women who are _____.
A)short or of average height; taller than average
B)taller than average; short or of average height
C)short or of average height; short or of average height
D)taller than average; taller than average
Q3) The Stanford Prison Experiment lasted:
A)six months.
B)six days.
C)six weeks.
D)sixteen weeks.
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Social Psychology
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Q1) Some of the Army Reserve guards convicted of mistreatment of Abu Ghraib detainees testified that they were praised for their behavior and believed that they were doing their duty.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In-group bias refers to the tendency to see members of out-groups as very similar to one another.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Psychological studies have shown that people are less likely to behave in accordance with their attitudes when they stand to gain or lose something on a particular issue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Persuasion is the deliberate attempt to influence the attitudes or behavior of another person in a situation in which that person has some freedom of choice.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Section 4: Social Psychology
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Q1) Diffusion of responsibility:
A)contributes to an explanatory pattern called blaming the victim.
B)is one of the key reasons that bystanders will help a stranger.
C)was the tactic used to reduce the hostility between the two groups of boys at Robbers Cave State Park.
D)plays a key role in explaining the bystander effect.
Q2) Cross-cultural research reveals that conformity:
A)tends to be higher in collectivistic cultures compared with individualistic cultures.
B)tends to be lower in collectivistic cultures compared with individualistic cultures.
C)is similar in both collectivist and individualistic cultures.
D)is more harmful to group harmony in collectivist than individualistic cultures.
Q3) Research indicates that people have a strong tendency to perceive others in terms of two basic social categories:
A)the in-group and the out-group.
B)popular and unpopular.
C)friendly and antisocial.
D)conformists and nonconformists.
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Chapter 11: Section 5: Social Psychology
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Q1) For 30 years, the community of Wichita, Kansas, was haunted-and taunted-by a serial killer who dubbed himself the BTK killer, which stood for "bind, torture, kill." In February of 2005, a break in the case came when Wichita police arrested Dennis Rader, age 59, a city inspector, former Boy Scout leader, and church council president who was married with two adult children. Based on what you learned in the social psychology chapter, which of the following statements explains how Rader escaped detection for so many years?
A)Strong feelings of ethnocentrism convinced people that the BTK killer was someone from outside their community.
B)Diffusion of responsibility allowed people to psychologically distance themselves from the people murdered by BTK.
C)Rader contradicted the implicit personality theory that people have for a serial killer.
D)People have a strong, natural tendency to blame the victims for contributing to their fate, rather than the person who murdered them.
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Chapter 12: Section 1: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Q1) Discuss gender differences in responding to stress, contrasting the tend-and-befriend response with the fight-or-flight response.
Q2) What kinds of stressors have been found to influence the effectiveness of the immune system, and what are the practical implications of these findings?
Q3) What gender differences have been found in the effects of social support?
Q4) Health psychologists are guided by the biopsychosocial model. Explain the focus of this model.
Q5) Provide an original example of a stressful experience, and use it to illustrate the definition of stress, noting the role of cognitive appraisal in stress.
Q6) How can social support help buffer the effects of stress? Does social support have to come from human sources?
Q7) Define burnout, explain the characteristics of burnout, and describe work situations that are likely to lead to burnout, as well as steps that can be taken to prevent burnout.
Q8) Define psychoneuroimmunology, and explain how the nervous, endocrine, and immune systems are linked and how they influence each other.
Q9) What is a placebo, and how are placebos used in biomedical research?
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Q1) Although it is obvious to most of Bernie's friends and family that he drinks too much, his wife Betsy refuses to admit that he has a drinking problem. She insists that he is a moderate drinker who has the occasional glass of red wine for medicinal purposes. In this situation it is possible that Betsy is using an emotion-focused coping strategy called:
A)wishful thinking.
B)escape-avoidance
C)denial.
D)distancing.
Q2) Which of the following support behaviors is typically perceived as helpful by people under stress?
A)giving advice that the person has not asked for B)helping them take their minds off their troubles by talking about yourself and your own problems
C)pretending to be cheerful
D)being a good friend and showing concern and interest
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Chapter 12: Section 3: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Q1) The most constructive emotion-focused coping strategy is positive reappraisal, which involves not only minimizing the negative emotional aspects of the situation, but also trying to create positive meaning by focusing on personal growth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mindfulness meditation is a meditation technique in which practitioners focus awareness on ongoing mental experience with nonjudgmental acceptance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Posttraumatic stress disorder is a disorder that involves intrusive thoughts of a traumatic event, emotional numbness, and symptoms of anxiety, such as nervousness, sleep disturbances, and irritability.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Corticosteroids are hormones released by the adrenal cortex that play a key role in the body's response to long-term stressors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Section 4: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ refers to a negative emotional state occurring in response to events that are perceived as taxing or exceeding a person's resources or ability to cope.
A)Stress
B)Anxiety
C)An attitude
D)An appraisal
Q2) According to the textbook's suggestions for providing effective social support, you are MOST likely to be perceived as helpful if you:
A)pretend to be cheerful and downplay the other person's situation by saying something like "I wouldn't worry about it because I'm sure everything will turn out okay."
B)talk about yourself and problems you have experienced in the past.
C)tell the person, "I know exactly how you feel."
D)ask questions in a way that encourages the other person to express his or her feelings and emotions.
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Chapter 12: Section 5: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Q1) According to Critical Thinking: Do Personality Factors Cause Disease?, which of the following is personality traits is LEAST likely to be associated with poor health habits?
A)high extraversion
B)high sensation seeking
C)low sensation seeking
D)low conscientiousness
Q2) The _____ system produces specialized white blood cells that defend the body from viruses, bacteria, and tumor cells.
A)immune
B)sympathetic nervous
C)endocrine
D)parasympathetic nervous
Q3) A PET-scan study that was featured in Focus on Neuroscience: The Mysterious Placebo Effect demonstrated that a placebo painkiller:
A)does not relieve pain and does not seem to affect brain regions.
B)relieves pain but activates different brain areas than genuine painkillers.
C)actually increases the sensation of pain.
D)activates the same brain areas as genuine painkillers.
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Chapter 13: Section 1: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Identify two core symptoms of mood disorders (or affective disorders). How does a mood disorder differ from typical mood swings?
Q2) Describe the basic premise of the viral infection theory of schizophrenia, and summarize the research supporting it.
Q3) What factors have been found to play a role in the development of depressive and bipolar disorders?
Q4) Compare and contrast the characteristics and possible causes of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.
Q5) Describe the learning principles involved in the development of some phobias, including the role of biological preparedness. Include "real world" examples for each.
Q6) Identify the symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), panic attacks, panic disorder, and explain how agoraphobia is related to panic disorder.
Q7) Explain what the DSM-5 is, describe how it was developed, and list some of the major criticisms of the manual.
Q8) Describe the results of a survey of media portrayals of people with mental disorders, and discuss the accuracy of these portrayals.
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) The personality disorder that is most commonly diagnosed and considered to be the most serious, severe, and disabling of all the personality disorders is _____ personality disorder.
A)antisocial
B)borderline
C)schizoid
D)histrionic
Q2) Research conducted by Sing Lee, a Chinese psychiatrist, revealed that young women in Hong Kong with anorexia attributed their severe thinness to:
A)fear of becoming fat.
B)genetics.
C)physical problems, such as bloating.
D)stress and lack of health care.
Q3) Which of the following factors has been linked to the development of schizophrenia?
A)having a mother who was 40 years old or older when the person was conceived
B)having a father who was 50 years old or older when the person was conceived
C)having a mother who was 30 years old or younger when the person was conceived
D)having a father who was 25 years old or younger when the person was conceived
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65
Chapter 13: Section 3: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) An obsession is a repetitive behavior that a person feels driven to perform.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The DSM-5 provides mental health professionals with both a common language for labeling mental disorders and comprehensive guidelines for diagnosing them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the research discussed in the Critical Thinking box on smoking and psychological disorders, smoking seems to cause or trigger the development of psychological disorders in vulnerable people.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Caleb has worked as a city manager for a small Midwestern city since graduating from college about four years ago. The job is okay and Caleb's work performance is acceptable, but Caleb almost always feels slightly down and sad. Caleb's chronic case of "the blues" is characteristic of the psychological disorder called cyclothymic disorder.
A)True
B)False
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66
Chapter 13: Section 4: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) In which of the following ways do antipsychotic medications, such as Thorazine or Haldol, help reduce symptoms of schizophrenia?
A)reducing or blocking dopamine activity in the brain
B)decreasing brain levels of serotonin
C)decreasing brain levels of norepinephrine
D)increasing serotonin production in the brain
Q2) According to the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R), approximately 1 out of _____ American adults has experienced the symptoms of a psychological disorder during the previous year.
A)2
B)4
C)7
D)20
Q3) A person who feels driven to perform repetitive behaviors in a particular sequence or pattern in order to reduce anxiety is experiencing:
A)dissociative fugue.
B)an obsession.
C)a compulsion.
D)a delusion of being controlled.
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Page 67
Chapter 13: Section 5: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) A(n) _____ is a brief, sudden, uncontrollable episode of acute anxiety and fear that rapidly escalates in intensity and usually includes physical symptoms like a pounding heart, rapid breathing, trembling, and feeling as if you are choking or cannot breathe.
A)panic attack
B)manic episode
C)episode of rapid cycling
D)dissociative experience
Q2) Taijin kyofusho is:
A)a form of meditation used in collectivistic cultures that has been found to be highly effective in treating social anxiety disorders.
B)a variation of major depressive disorder seen primarily in Asian countries that is characterized by despondency over failing to live up to family or community expectations.
C)the Japanese word used to describe a disorder that is very similar to dissociative identity disorder.
D)a form of social anxiety that usually affects young Japanese males.
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Chapter 14: Section 1: Therapies
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Q1) Describe the steps used in systematic desensitization and identify the conditioning principles involved in this technique.
Q2) Describe similarities and differences in Freud's and Rogers's views of the therapeutic relationship.
Q3) Compare and contrast the basic assumptions of psychoanalysis and client-centered therapy.
Q4) Describe three therapeutic techniques that are used in non-European cultures (or used with members of non-European cultures).
Q5) Describe how virtual reality (VR) therapy is used, explain what principles of conditioning are involved, and identify the psychological problems it is used to treat.
Q6) Christopher has been depressed for over six months. He has gained weight, his sleep is disturbed, and he and his wife are discussing divorce. Christopher's self-esteem has declined as a result of his weight gain and marital difficulties. How would Freud and Rogers explain the source of Christopher's problems?
Q7) According to Aaron Beck, what are some of the cognitive biases that operate in depressed people?
Q8) How do paraprofessionals and lay counselors differ?
Page 69
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Therapies
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Q1) According to your textbook, what explains the high number of prescriptions that have been written for the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), such as Prozac?
A)There is scientific evidence that the SSRIs, especially Prozac, make normal people smarter and more energetic.
B)Prozac and the other SSRIs have been shown to be effective in treating depressive symptoms in about 95 percent of the patients who take it, a much higher improvement rate than any other psychoactive medication.
C)Prozac and the other SSRIs have fewer and milder side effects than earlier antidepressants, although their effectiveness is about the same.
D)Research using PET scans showed that the SSRIs were twice as effective in changing brain chemistry as psychotherapy.
Q2) Eye movement desensitization reprocessing (EMDR) therapy was originally developed for the treatment of:
A)major depressive disorder.
B)traumatic memories.
C)phobias.
D)schizophrenia.
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Page 70
Chapter 14: Section 3: Therapies
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Q1) When undergoing psychotherapy, it is important to remember that therapy is a collaborative effort; if you are going to benefit from psychotherapy, you must actively participate in the therapeutic process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Albert Ellis believes that psychological problems inevitably result when people do not experience unconditional positive regard from family members, friends, and other significant people in their lives.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The basic premise of Albert Ellis's rational-emotive therapy is that people's psychological problems are caused by their irrational beliefs and expectations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, such as Prozac, Zoloft, and Paxil, primarily affect the availability of multiple neurotransmitters in the brain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Section 4: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a drug that alters mental functions, alleviates psychological symptoms, and is used to treat psychological or mental disorders.
A)A psychotropic medication
B)Marijuana
C)A placebo
D)Oxytocin
Q2) Behavioral therapy is to _____ as cognitive therapy is to _____.
A)unconscious conflicts; conscious beliefs
B)illogical patterns of thinking; maladaptive learning
C)maladaptive learning; illogical patterns of thinking
D)conscious beliefs; unconscious conflicts
Q3) The FIRST step in rational-emotive therapy is a focus on identifying:
A)problem behaviors.
B)unconscious conflicts.
C)anger-provoking events
D)core irrational beliefs.
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72
Chapter 14: Section 5: Therapies
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Q1) Some people experience a less severe form of depressive disorder that is characterized by chronic low-grade depression with symptoms persisting for two years or longer. This less intense type of depression is called _____ disorder.
A)seasonal affective
B)cyclothymic
C)persistent depressive
D)dissociative
Q2) Taijin kyofusho is:
A)a form of meditation used in collectivistic cultures that has been found to be highly effective in treating social anxiety disorders.
B)a variation of major depressive disorder seen primarily in Asian countries that is characterized by despondency over failing to live up to family or community expectations.
C)the Japanese word used to describe a disorder that is very similar to dissociative identity disorder.
D)a form of social anxiety that usually affects young Japanese males.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.