Principles of Psychology Mock Exam - 7014 Verified Questions

Principles of Psychology

Mock Exam

Course Introduction

Principles of Psychology explores the foundational concepts, theories, and research methods that define the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. This course covers a range of topics including perception, learning, memory, motivation, emotion, development, personality, psychological disorders, and social behavior. Emphasis is placed on the application of psychological principles to everyday life and on understanding the biological, psychological, and social influences on human behavior. Students will also gain insight into the historical evolution of psychology as a discipline and become familiar with contemporary debates and future directions in psychological science.

Recommended Textbook

Discovering Psychology 7th Edition by

Sandra E. Hockenbury

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70 Chapters

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Section 1: Introduction and Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) Who was Sigmund Freud, and what were the basic ideas of the school of psychological thought that he founded?

Answer: The answer should include the following information: Sigmund Freud, a physician from Vienna, Austria, developed a theory of personality based on uncovering causes of behavior that were unconscious, or hidden from the person's conscious awareness. Freud's school of thought, called psychoanalysis, emphasized the role of unconscious conflicts in determining behavior and personality. Freud was trained as a neurologist, but his thinking was strongly influenced by developments in psychology. Freud's psychoanalytic theory of personality and behavior was based largely on his work with his patients and on insights derived from self-analysis. Freud believed that human behavior was motivated by unconscious conflicts that were almost always sexual or aggressive in nature. Past experiences, especially those from childhood, were thought to be critical in the formation of adult personality and behavior. According to Freud, glimpses of these unconscious impulses are revealed in everyday life in dreams, memory blocks, slips of the tongue, and spontaneous humor. Freud believed that when unconscious conflicts became overwhelming, psychological disorders could result.

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Chapter 1: Section 2: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Kerrick has developed a training program for young children that will help them learn to read at a quicker pace and with greater comprehension. What kind of psychologist is Dr. Kerrick?

A)educational

B)personality

C)industrial/organizational

D)clinical

Answer: A

Q2) Who made the statement "Behaviorism, on the contrary, holds that the subject matter of human psychology is the behavior of the human being. Behaviorism claims that consciousness is neither a definite nor a usable concept. The behaviorist, who has been trained always as an experimentalist, holds, further, that belief in the existence of consciousness goes back to the ancient days of superstition and magic."?

A)Sigmund Freud

B)Edward B. Titchener

C)William James

D)John B. Watson

Answer: D

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4

Chapter 1: Section 3: Introduction and Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) John Watson and B. F. Skinner were two important American psychologists associated with the school of behaviorism.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) A positive correlation reflects a cause-and-effect relationship between two variables, while a negative correlation indicates the absence of a cause-and-effect relationship between the variables.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) Pseudosciences often mention well-known scientific facts to add credibility to their unsupported claims.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 1: Section 4: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the brain-imaging techniques discussed in the Focus on Neuroscience section in the text?

A)magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

B)functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

C)transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

D)positron emission tomography (PET)

Q2) Which of the following statements about psychologists is true?

A)They focus exclusively on treating psychological disorders and problems.

B)They are interested in both normal and abnormal behaviors.

C)All psychologists can prescribe medication.

D)All psychologists have a doctorate in their field of study.

Q3) A correlational study is useful because it can:

A)provide compelling evidence of cause-and-effect relationships.

B)examine how strongly two variables are related to one another.

C)provide a detailed description of a single individual.

D)promote the acceptance of pseudosciences.

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6

Chapter 1: Section 5: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Psychologists are expected to abide by ethical principles regulating research with human participants; these principles include all of the following EXCEPT:

A)informed consent.

B)deception.

C)confidentiality.

D)compulsory participation.

Q2) A hypothesis is a(n):

A)clearly defined independent variable.

B)theory that is supported by research evidence.

C)tentative statement that describes the relationship between two or more variables.

D)operational definition assigned to the independent variable.

Q3) Which of the following terms refers to a procedure that assures that all participants have an equal chance of being assigned to any of the experimental conditions?

A)the double-blind technique

B)random assignment

C)the single-blind technique

D)random selection

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Chapter 2: Section 1: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) What are the functions of the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system?

Q2) Describe the goals of the Human Connectome Project, the diffusion spectrum imaging technique, and the challenges faced by the Project.

Q3) Explain how the hypothalamus, endocrine system, and nervous system are linked. How does the hypothalamus contribute to the functioning of the endocrine glands?

Q4) Explain with examples how a drug can act as an antagonist.

Q5) Describe the sequence of events that occurs when one neuron communicates with another neuron.

Q6) Describe the functions of glial cells, as well as the microglia, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and Schwann cells.

Q7) What is meant by the phrase lateralization of function?

Q8) Compare and contrast the effects of agonist and antagonist drugs.

Q9) What is the somatosensory cortex? How is it organized?

Q10) Define and give an example of an antagonist drug.

Q11) What are endorphins and what are their functions?

Q13) Select two neurotransmitters and describe their influence on behavior. Page 8

Q12) What are the key structures of the midbrain and what roles do they play?

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Page 9

Chapter 2: Section 2: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) _____ provide connections between neurons and blood vessels.

A)Microglia

B)Astrocytes

C)Oligodendrocytes

D)Schwann cells

Q2) According to the Psych for Your Life feature in Chapter 2, in general, the greater the level of aerobic fitness the:

A)greater the increase of blood flow to the hippocampus.

B)worse people's memories became.

C)lower the level of endorphins in the brain.

D)greater the likelihood of developing aphasia.

Q3) In general, the sympathetic nervous system _____, while the parasympathetic nervous system _____.

A)arouses and mobilizes; maintains and conserves

B)transmits sensory information; transmits motor information

C)maintains and conserves; arouses and mobilizes

D)transmits motor information; transmits sensory information

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Chapter 2: Section 3: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) People who are logical, analytical, or detail-oriented, are "left-brained" individuals and rely primarily on the capacities of their left hemisphere to solve complex tasks.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Synaptic vesicles contain neurotransmitters.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Most complex tasks will primarily involve either your left cerebral hemisphere or your right cerebral hemisphere, but not both simultaneously.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The brain structure called the hippocampus represents the main link between the endocrine system and nervous system.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The central nervous system is highly specialized for information integration.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 2: Section 4: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) Reduced brain levels of the neurotransmitter _____ is most notably involved in the progressive memory loss that characterizes Alzheimer's disease.

A)GABA

B)serotonin

C)dopamine

D)acetylcholine

Q2) How many neurons are there in the human brain?

A)50 million

B)50 billion

C)10 billion

D)100 billion

Q3) The resting potential is:

A)the length of time that a neuron is incapable of activating after an action potential. B)the term used to describe how the sympathetic nervous system reduces arousal and conserves energy.

C)a state in which a neuron has a negative electrical charge of about -70 millivolts.

D)a state in which a neuron has a positive electrical charge of +70 millivolts.

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Chapter 2: Section 5: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Processing somatosensory information is to the _____ lobe as seeing is to the _____ lobe.

A)parietal; temporal

B)frontal; parietal

C)temporal; occipital

D)parietal; occipital

Q2) According to the box Critical Thinking: "His" and "Her" Brains, research indicates that:

A)brain structures and functions in men and women are essentially the same.

B)men and women are much more different than they are similar.

C)women are less effective at problem solving and decision making.

D)men are much more emotional than previously believed.

Q3) What happens during a refractory period?

A)The neuron becomes polarized for the first time.

B)The neuron reestablishes the negative-inside/positive-outside condition.

C)Neurotransmitters are blocked by dendrites.

D)Dopamine reaches its peak levels.

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13

Chapter 3: Section 1: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) What is the basic pathway for information transmission from the eye to the brain?

Q2) Describe the electromagnetic spectrum. Distinguish between the visible and invisible portions of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Q3) Provide an example of perceptual set and explain how it influences perceptual experiences.

Q4) What is the moon illusion and how has it been explained?

Q5) What sensory receptors and pathways are associated with painful sensations? How are these sensations produced?

Q6) How do frequency theory and place theory explain the perception of pitch?

Q7) Discuss the basic assumptions of Gestalt psychology. Explain their contributions to psychological studies of visual perception.

Q8) Briefly describe the key structures of the eye including the function of each structure.

Q9) What is subliminal perception and what are its effects?

Q10) What is the blind spot and why don't we notice it under normal circumstances?

Q11) Describe the functions of each of the key structures involved in hearing.

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Q12) Explain what is meant by bottom-up processing and top-down processing. Provide examples of each.

Chapter 3: Section 2: Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) Olfaction and gustation are sometimes called the:

A)chemical senses.

B)pheromone senses.

C)sensory neurons.

D)ear-nose neurons.

Q2) The secondary visual pathway projects first to the _____ and seems to be involved in processing information about the _____.

A)midbrain; location of objects

B)thalamus; form, color, brightness, and depth of objects

C)parietal lobe; movement, speed, and direction of objects

D)optic disk; shape, size, and distance of objects

Q3) Distance cues that involve both eyes are called _____ cues.

A)binocular

B)telescopic

C)monocular

D)microscopic

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15

Chapter 3: Section 3: Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) There are two basic pain systems: the fast pain system, which consists of myelinated A-delta fibers, and the slow pain system, which consists of unmyelinated C fibers.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The distinctive taste of monosodium glutamate and the taste associated with meat and other protein-rich foods, such as Parmesan and other aged cheeses, mushrooms, and seaweed, is called umami.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Place theory describes the perception of pitch; frequency theory describes the perception of loudness.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The ESP ability called psychokinesis has been reliably demonstrated in controlled scientific studies, but the other forms of ESP do not have reliable scientific evidence to support them.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 3: Section 4: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) _____, a Gestalt psychologist, was the first person to study the phenomenon of induced motion.

A)Max Wertheimer

B)Roger Shepard

C)Karl Duncker

D)Johann Müller-Lyer

Q2) Which of the following is a monocular cue involved in depth perception?

A)convergence

B)binocular disparity

C)accommodation

D)motion parallax

Q3) When Isabel visited the children's zoo, she heard squeals coming from the baby pigs and loud grunts from the adult pigs. Her perception of the high-pitched squeals can be explained by the _____ theory of hearing, and her perception of the low-pitched grunts can be explained by the _____ theory of hearing.

A)place; frequency

B)frequency; place

C)opponent process; trichromatic

D)trichromatic; opponent process

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Page 17

Chapter 3: Section 5: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) _____ is the scientific study of paranormal phenomena and ESP.

A)Parapsychology

B)Extrasensory psychology

C)Pseudopsychology

D)Gestalt psychology

Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)There is no evidence to support the existence of pheromones in humans.

B)Psychologists have recently discovered a pheromone that is emitted by breastfeeding women that makes them irresistible to the opposite sex.

C)There is evidence that human pheromones function as social signals, affecting moods and social interactions.

D)A chemical has recently been identified in the perspiration of young males that acts as a powerful sexual stimulus, increasing sexual motivation in women.

Q3) Without _____, our perception of reality would be in a continual state of flux.

A)perceptual constancy

B)sensation

C)motion cues

D)depth perception

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18

Chapter 4: Section 1: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why do we sleep?

Q2) Compare and contrast state and non-state theories of hypnosis.

Q3) What are the potential benefits of meditation?

Q4) How is sleep involved in the formation of memories?

Q5) Quinn observed a carjacking a few months ago when he was leaving work. The incident occurred so fast that Quinn only has a vague recollection of what happened. He knows that the suspect was a white male and that the vehicle was a black SUV. Quinn's friend wants him to undergo hypnosis, believing that it will help enhance his memory of the incident. Is Quinn's friend correct? Explain, using research from the textbook in your answer.

Q6) Define attention, and describe how attention is selective and limited in capacity.

Q7) Explain how addictive drugs affect the brain, discussing the physical changes that produce drug tolerance, withdrawal, and craving.

Q8) Explain the role of sunlight and darkness, clocks, and other environmental time cues, in regulating the sleep-wake cycle.

Q9) What are the effects that can be produced by hypnosis?

Q10) Describe the two categories of meditation, and discuss the general effects of meditation.

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Chapter 4: Section 2: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) In an interesting approach to studying meditation, psychologists and neuroscientists have been conducting ongoing studies with:

A)Tibetan Buddhist monks.

B)people who have been comatose for two weeks or longer.

C)people who regularly use depressant psychoactive drugs.

D)people in China who regularly practice Tai Chi.

Q2) Research on the effects of methamphetamine on the brain indicates that abusers experience up to 10 percent tissue loss in:

A)the cerebellum.

B)limbic system areas involved in emotion and reward.

C)the left hemisphere.

D)both the left and right hemispheres.

Q3) Which of the following factors was NOT listed as a factor that influences a drug's effects?

A)the user's weight, gender, age, and metabolism

B)environmental factors, such as the setting in which the drug is taken

C)the user's mood, expectations, experience with the drug, and personality characteristics

D)dissociative ability, IQ or intelligence level, and imaginative suggestibility

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Chapter 4: Section 3: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Rather than being bizarre, dreams are, by and large, a realistic simulation of waking life.

A)True B)False

Q2) People who are born blind-or become totally blind before the age of two-do not dream.

A)True B)False

Q3) In general, tasks that are very different are more likely to interfere with each other.

A)True B)False

Q4) To help alleviate sleep problems it is recommended that you monitor your intake of caffeine.

A)True B)False

Q5) Theta brain waves occur when you are awake, alert, and mentally active.

A)True B)False

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Chapter 4: Section 4: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) According to Focus on Neuroscience: The Addicted Brain, alcohol, heroin, nicotine, cocaine, and the amphetamines primarily affect the:

A)suprachiasmatic nucleus.

B)left hemisphere of the brain.

C)areas of the brain responsible for balance.

D)dopamine reward system.

Q2) Westerbrook did not notice when his wife, Priscilla, got her hair cut because he wasn't paying attention to her appearance when she walked into the house. Mr. Westerbrook's failure to notice that Priscilla cut her hair is most likely an example of:

A)attention deficit.

B)change blindness.

C)the cocktail party effect.

D)mindfulness.

Q3) Long-term abuse of methamphetamines contribute to the most difficulty in which area?

A)balance

B)self-care needs

C)memory

D)language

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Chapter 4: Section 5: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) The notion that hypnosis can allow you to relive early childhood experiences is called: A)repression.

B)dissociation.

C)hypermnesia.

D)age regression.

Q2) Mac has been driving for almost 30 hours straight because he was promised a $1,000 bonus if he delivers his truckload of refrigerated roses by 5:00 A.M. the next morning. As Mac drives through the night and gets progressively more tired, he is likely to experience:

A)a surge in brain levels of hypocretin.

B)very brief episodes of sleep called microsleeps.

C)a sleep-related eating disorder.

D)cataplexy.

Q3) Ava is a newborn baby. About how much time does Ava spend in REM sleep?

A)about 10 percent of her sleep time

B)less than 20 percent of her sleep time

C)about 50 percent of her sleep time

D)nearly 90 percent of her sleep time

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23

Chapter 5: Section 1: Learning

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Q1) Discuss criticisms of the famous "Little Albert" study.

Q2) Explain how Robert Rescorla demonstrated that mental processes are involved in classical conditioning.

Q3) Describe at least three strategies that can be used to change behavior without resorting to punishment.

Q4) Describe Martin Seligman's research on learned helplessness in dogs.

Q5) In your textbook, the author explains how classical conditioning can influence drug responses by using an example of caffeine. Describe another example that is not used in your text to illustrate the link between classical conditioning and a specific drug response.

Q6) Explain what is meant by the "adaptive nature of learning" as it relates to classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and observation/imitation.

Q7) Describe the basic process of classical conditioning, using an original example. Be sure to identify the UCS, UCR, CS, and CR.

Q8) Discuss how the principles of observational learning have been applied to promote social change and healthy behaviors.

Q9) Who was Edward Thorndike, and what were his contributions to the study of learning?

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Chapter 5: Section 2: Learning

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Q1) Which of the following advertising techniques is based on classical conditioning principles?

A)including a $1.00 mail-in rebate in the ad for Brand X

B)a salesperson explaining why Brand X is superior

C)a sexy model using Brand X

D)a picture of a shelf filled with Brand X products

Q2) When Micah was 2-years-old he was frightened by his Aunt Mabel's little dog, which had nipped him on the leg. Because of the incident, Micah developed a strong fear of small dogs but not of large dogs. This best illustrates which of the following?

A)spontaneous recovery

B)stimulus discrimination

C)stimulus generalization

D)higher order conditioning

Q3) The notion that an organism is innately predisposed to form associations between certain stimuli and responses is termed:

A)biological preparedness.

B)latent learning.

C)instinctive drift.

D)the law of effect.

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Chapter 5: Section 3: Learning

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Q1) After reviewing decades of research investigating the effects of exposure to media violence, the American Psychological Association and other organizations issued a statement indicating that media violence is unlikely to contribute to aggressive behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Bandura's research on observational learning in children provided a powerful paradigm to study the effects of "entertainment" violence.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Education-entertainment programs are designed to fulfill the four conditions required for observational learning to take place: reinforcement, punishment, conditioning, and memory.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Research has shown that media violence can contribute to increases in aggressive attitudes, values, and behavior.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Section 4: Learning

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Q1) According to Albert Bandura, the four factors that are necessary for observational learning to occur are:

A)attention, memory, motor skills, and motivation.

B)attention, conditioning, cognition, and reinforcement.

C)reinforcement, operant, stimulus discrimination, and imitation.

D)stimulus, response, conditioning, and consequence.

Q2) The biological predisposition to perform natural behaviors can interfere with learning operant behaviors. This phenomenon is called:

A)classical conditioning.

B)the instinctive drift.

C)behaviorism.

D)shaping and chaining.

Q3) A shuttlebox was used by used by Martin Seligman and Steven Maier to demonstrate the phenomenon of:

A)learned helplessness.

B)shaping.

C)taste aversions.

D)stimulus generalization.

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Chapter 5: Section 5: Learning

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Q1) The _____ served as the foundation for what Pavlov eventually referred to as classical conditioning.

A)development of learned helplessness in dogs that were given inescapable shock

B)use of food rewards in training dogs

C)training of rats to navigate a maze

D)role of saliva in digestion

Q2) In dogs, learned helplessness could be overcome by:

A)repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus.

B)dragging the dogs over the barrier to the side of the cage that was not electrified.

C)removing the food from the end of the maze.

D)disconnecting the food dispenser from the operant chamber in the dogs' cages.

Q3) _____ was the researcher who proclaimed, "The animal behaves like a scientist, detecting causal relations among events and using a range of information about those events to make relevant inferences."

A)Abraham Maslow

B)B. F. Skinner

C)Robert Rescorla

D)Albert Bandura

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28

Chapter 6: Section 1: Memory

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Q1) How does neurological research explain some instances of déjà vu?

Q2) Identify and describe the functions of each component in psychologist Alan Baddeley's model of working memory, and give an everyday example that demonstrates the relationships among working memory components.

Q3) According to the Focus on Neuroscience box: "Assembling Memories: Echoes and Reflections of Perception," what did fMRI research reveal about memory of common objects?

Q4) Describe Richard F. Thompson's work on the classically conditioned eye blink response.

Q5) How do explicit and implicit memory differ? Give an example of each.

Q6) What is memory consolidation, and how can it be disrupted in humans?

Q7) Devon, age 12, watched his grandfather fall from the roof of his house. Two days later, Devon's grandfather died from his injuries. Melody, Devon's mother, has been told that traumatic memories are usually repressed and, therefore, Devon won't be able to recall this horrific event. According to the Critical Thinking box: "The Memory Wars: Recovered or False Memories" in your text, why is Melody's assumption incorrect?

Q8) What is a flashbulb memory, and in what ways is it similar to and/or different from an ordinary memory?

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Chapter 6: Section 2: Memory

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Q1) Which is the BEST explanation for encoding failure?

A)The information was not processed beyond the sensory memory stage.

B)Old information interferes with one's ability to process novel information.

C)The information enters one's short-term memory, but it is never encoded into long-term memory.

D)The information was stored in working memory, but it was then repressed in long-term memory.

Q2) For her anatomy and physiology class, Chelsea has to learn a list of the 12 cranial nerves in correct order. Spending extra time rehearsing the _____ would help her counteract the serial position effect.

A)first several items on the list

B)last several items on the list

C)items in the middle of the list

D)first several items and last several items on the list

Q3) One effective method to enhance long-term retention is to:

A)repeat the information over and over in your mind.

B)maintain a strong intention to remember the information.

C)daydream when the information is first presented.

D)repeatedly test yourself for recall of the information.

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Page 30

Chapter 6: Section 3: Memory

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Q1) Explaining new material that you are learning out loud to others is an effective way to improve your memory of the material.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Today, researchers agree that decay is the primary cause of forgetting.

A)True

B)False

Q3) As a general rule, the more closely retrieval cues match the original learning conditions, the more likely it is that retrieval will occur.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Sensory memory allows you to hear a series of musical notes as a melody.

A)True

B)False

Q5) In the "professor's office" study, many participants erroneously remembered objects that were not in the office but that did fit their schema of a typical professor's office.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Section 4: Memory

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Q1) _____ is the gradual, physical process of converting new long-term memories into stable, enduring memory codes.

A)Memory consolidation

B)Short-term to working memory transfer

C)Clustering

D)Memory activation

Q2) A classic experiment by psychologist George Sperling demonstrated that:

A)the capacity of short-term memory is virtually limitless.

B)the schemas that people hold in a particular situation can erroneously influence the details they later remember about the situation.

C)distributed practice is superior to massed practice.

D)information is held in visual sensory memory for about half a second.

Q3) Repeating information over and over involves:

A)clustering.

B)chunking.

C)elaborative rehearsal.

D)maintenance rehearsal.

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Chapter 6: Section 5: Memory

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Q1) In the earliest stages of Alzheimer's disease, the MOST common symptoms are:

A)agitation and moodiness.

B)spontaneous recovery of long-term and working memories.

C)forgetting names of familiar people and the locations of familiar places.

D)misplacing common objects and moodiness, such as one's keys, glasses, or checkbook.

Q2) Adam vividly remembers the accident that sent him to the emergency room for stitches. This is an example of which type of long-term memory?

A)procedural

B)semantic

C)implicit

D)episodic

Q3) Focusing on the meaning of information is called:

A)chunking.

B)clustering.

C)maintenance rehearsal.

D)elaborative rehearsal.

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Chapter 7: Section 1: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Define stereotype threat, and provide an example of psychological research that has demonstrated its effects on test performance.

Q2) How do we use the availability heuristic and the representativeness heuristic to help estimate the probability of an event's occurring?

Q3) Describe and explain the contributions of genetics and environmental factors that influence IQ scores. How do researchers approach questions related to these variables?

Q4) Define and discuss creativity.

Q5) Describe the experimental procedure and major findings of Kathleen O'Craven and Nancy Kanwisher's fMRI study of mental imagery involving faces and places.

Q6) Describe two examples of research investigating the use of symbolic communication in nonhuman animals.

Q7) Explain what is meant by autism spectrum disorder, intellectual disability, and neurodiversity, from the In Focus Box, "Neurodiversity: Beyond IQ."

Q8) Compare and contrast Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences with Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence.

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Page 34

Chapter 7: Section 2: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Thinking and behavior directed toward attaining a goal that is not readily available is called:

A)wishful thinking.

B)displacement.

C)generative thinking.

D)problem solving.

Q2) When Valerie decided to return to college, she had to figure out how she was going to support herself financially and still maintain a high grade-point average. Valerie is engaged in:

A)problem solving.

B)concept formation.

C)prototypical thinking.

D)stereotypical thinking.

Q3) The Dani speakers of New Guinea have names for only two classes of colors. When psychologist Eleanor Rosch and her colleagues studied color perception in the Dani speakers, Rosch found that the Dani:

A)could not perceive the difference between red and green.

B)perceived colors in much the same way as English-speaking people.

C)could only distinguish among primary colors.

D)suffered from a hereditary form of color blindness.

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Chapter 7: Section 3: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) The hallmarks of autism spectrum disorder, according to the In Focus box on neurodiversity, are problems with communication and social interactions with others.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The more closely an item matches our prototype of a natural concept, the more quickly we can classify it as an example of that concept.

A)True

B)False

Q3) People diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder are likely to have communication problems, be unresponsive to social interactions, engage in repetitive or odd motor behaviors, and have restricted routines and interests.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Heritability estimates suggest that about 75 percent of the differences in IQ scores within a particular population is due to environmental factors.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Section 4: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Which of the following statements about animal communication is TRUE?

A)Most psychologists agree that nonhuman animals are not only capable of complex linguistic feats, but they also have a well-developed sense of self-awareness.

B)Many psychologists caution against trying to determine whether animals can "think" like humans, and instead they focus on the evolved cognitive abilities of specific species.

C)Most animals, including rats, parrots, pigs, elephants, and bottle-nosed dolphins can produce and comprehend simplified speech patterns.

D)Bonobo chimpanzees can acquire language proficiency that is equivalent to a human teenager.

Q2) Who translated and revised Binet's intelligence test for use in the United States?

A)David Wechsler

B)Charles Spearman

C)Louis Thurstone

D)Lewis Terman

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Chapter 7: Section 5: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Several problems have been assigned as part of your physics homework. One problem asks you to determine the relative velocity of a variety of moving objects. To answer the question, you solve a complex mathematical equation. Which problem-solving strategy are you using?

A)a heuristic

B)a trial-and-error strategy

C)insight

D)an algorithm

Q2) A new friend asks you to describe the house you grew up in. You pause and think for a moment. You will need to use _____ to answer her question.

A)intuition

B)mental images

C)an exemplar

D)a prototype

Q3) The study of animal cognition focuses on:

A)memory, problem solving, planning, cooperation, and even deception.

B)comparing animal to human intelligence.

C)the reproductive goals of nonhuman primates.

D)the role of genetic influences on intelligence.

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Page 38

Chapter 8: Section 1: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Define self-efficacy, and list some characteristics of individuals who have high and low self-efficacy. Identify different ways to strengthen your sense of self-efficacy.

Q2) Describe Abraham Maslow's theory of motivation, and list the qualities that characterize self-actualized people.

Q3) Rosa and Nancy are women in their mid-fifties. They have been friends since they were children. Over time, they've noticed some differences in their body weight. Rosa has a tendency to be underweight (her BMI is consistently a 17) even though she eats a normal healthy diet and exercises moderately. Nancy was normal weight for most of her early life, gained weight in her thirties, and since then has found it very difficult to modify her weight from this new, larger value. Define basal metabolic rate and set-point theory and describe how these concepts apply to the situations of Rosa and Nancy.

Q4) Summarize the results and implications of the study investigating the change in dopamine response elicited by a rich chocolate milkshake in women who had gained weight since the previous brain scan.

Q5) Define leptin, insulin, and neuropeptide Y, and compare the mechanisms by which they act as long-term signals to regulate body weight.

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Chapter 8: Section 2: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) A polygraph:

A)measures physiological changes associated with emotions like fear, tension, and anxiety.

B)is administered to detect lies or deception.

C)is used in nearly 90 percent of legal cases involving rape or murder.

D)demonstrates a unique pattern of physiological arousal specifically associated with lying.

Q2) The term anthropomorphism refers to:

A)specific nonverbal gestures called emblems.

B)the attribution of human traits, motives, or behaviors to nonhuman animals.

C)social and cultural regulations governing emotional expressions.

D)the attribution of animal emotional expressions, motives, and traits to human beings.

Q3) Which scientist argued that the differences in emotional experience between animals and humans were a matter of degree, not kind?

A)William James

B)Paul Ekman

C)Charles Darwin

D)Abraham Maslow

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Chapter 8: Section 3: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) A brain-imaging study conducted by Antonio Damasio and colleagues found that emotional memory triggered autonomic nervous system activity and physiological arousal before participants signaled that they were subjectively feeling the target emotion.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The nonverbal expression of embarrassment appears to be culture-specific; that is, embarrassment is expressed differently in each culture that has been studied.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The hypothalamus is the key brain structure that detects changes in internal signals related to eating and regulates food intake.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Anna has a BMI of 22.1, which means she is generally within the normal range for her height and weight.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Section 4: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Another term for a polygraph test is:

A)lie detector.

B)virtual reality.

C)biofeedback.

D)truth detector.

Q2) According to _____ theory, optimal human functioning and growth throughout the lifespan is possible only if psychological needs for autonomy, competence, and relatedness are met.

A)self-determination

B)humanistic

C)self-actualization

D)psychoanalytic

Q3) Ryan is enrolled in a fitness and nutrition course. He is currently learning a theory that posits the following: The natural or optimal weight that the body maintains by increases or decreases in hunger and basal metabolic rate is called the set-point weight. This is called _____ theory.

A)basil nutrition

B)energy saturation

C)basal metabolic

D)set-point

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Chapter 8: Section 5: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Psychologists define the term _____ as a complex psychological state that involves subjective experience, a physiological response, and a behavioral or expressive response.

A)motivation

B)emotion

C)self-efficacy

D)anthropomorphism

Q2) Focus on Neuroscience: Emotions and the Brain described a PET-scan study by researcher Antonio Damasio and his colleagues. The study found that, when participants recalled an emotionally charged memory:

A)internal brain changes occurred after the participant reported subjectively feeling the emotion.

B)there was an increase in brain levels of the neurotransmitter neuropeptide Y (NPY).

C)there was an increase in brain levels of the neurotransmitter cholecystokinin (CCK).

D)internal brain changes occurred before the participant reported subjectively feeling the emotion.

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Chapter 9: Section 1: Lifespan Development

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Q1) Discuss the relationship between adolescent behavior and adolescent brain development.

Q2) In regards to physical development in infancy and childhood, describe the cephalocaudal and proximodistal trends. How do these trends in infant development compare to the developmental sequence for body segments in the womb?

Q3) Describe Kohlberg's theory of moral development and specify what characterizes each level and stage of his theory.

Q4) List and describe factors that can affect the timing of puberty.

Q5) What cognitive abilities and limitations characterize a child's thinking during the sensorimotor and preoperational stages?

Q6) Describe the consequences of early and late maturation in adolescence, and state how these consequences differ for boys and girls.

Q7) Identify the sensory capabilities and reflexes of newborns and describe how these abilities enhance their chances for survival.

Q8) Describe the typical progression of sexual development from puberty through late adolescence. Compare the experiences of girls and boys in terms of the ages at which various milestones of puberty are achieved.

Page 44

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Chapter 9: Section 2: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the text studies examining the impact of early stress on epigenetic changes in humans have shown that childhood stress or adversity:

A)does not cause epigenetic changes in humans.

B)can cause distinct epigenetic changes in brain tissue.

C)can cause epigenetic changes in accident victims but not suicide victims. D)causes epigenetic changes but these are not observable in adulthood.

Q2) Generally, well-nourished and healthy children begin puberty _____ children who have experienced serious health problems or inadequate nutrition. A)earlier than B)later than C)at the same time as D)either much earlier or much later than

Q3) Kevin is anatomically male but wishes to become a female. Kevin is: A)a transgendered woman. B)a transgendered man.

C)an intersexed individual. D)bisexual.

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Chapter 9: Section 3: Lifespan Development

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Q1) Early maturation tends to produce a variety of psychological and health advantages for girls.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Twelve-year-old Jason is getting taller and his voice is deepening. Jason is experiencing the development of secondary sex characteristics.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A gene is a segment on a chromosome containing the DNA instructions for manufacturing a particular protein molecule.

A)True

B)False

Q4) As people make the transition from one stage of the lifespan to another they undergo sudden, age-related changes in physical, mental, and social development.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Section 4: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to Erik Erikson's theory, the key psychosocial task facing adolescents is:

A)identity versus role confusion.

B)industry versus inferiority.

C)generativity versus stagnation.

D)ego integrity versus despair.

Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Females have an XY combination in the 23rd pair of chromosomes.

B)Each gene in every gene pair contains 23 chromosomes.

C)Each chromosome contains 23 genes.

D)Males have an XY combination in the 23rd pair of chromosomes.

Q3) According to _____, every baby enters the world with an innate ability to understand the basic principles of language organization.

A)Noam Chomsky

B)Jean Piaget

C)Erik Erikson

D)Lev Vygotsky

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Chapter 9: Section 5: Lifespan Development

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Q1) While writing a paper on the development of moral reasoning, Hugh read that there is not much evidence to support Carol Gilligan's idea that men and women have entirely different approaches to moral reasoning. However, he found that there is empirical evidence that:

A)Kohlberg's theory predicts the way humans engage in moral reasoning and also how they behave morally.

B)the best predictor of moral behavior in real-life situations is moral reasoning in response to hypothetical dilemmas.

C)men and women use a mix of both the ethic of individual rights and justice and the ethic of care and responsibility.

D)the development of moral reasoning follows a universal sequence of levels and stages, suggesting a strong genetic influence.

Q2) A newborn baby will turn its head and continue gazing at which type of moving stimulus?

A)a human face

B)an animal graphic

C)an orange ball

D)a yellow block

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Chapter 10: Section 1: Personality

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Q1) How did Freud describe the structure of personality?

Q2) Describe how Eysenck's trait theory of personality applies to each of the following people: First, there is Carl. He is a scientist who prefers to spend his time working alone in his quiet laboratory carefully conducting his experiments in hopes of finding a cure for cancer. Next, Carl's brother Timothy is a party planner who teaches group aerobic exercise classes in his spare time and loves to attend networking events. Then there is their cousin Frank, who is a troubled young man. Frank is prone to violent outbursts. He is easily angered and has even spent time in prison after a conviction for assault and battery stemming from a disagreement at a sporting event. Finally, there is Archie. He holds a pessimistic view of the world and tends to be very anxious. Because of these issues, Archie has been unable to hold a permanent job.

Q3) Define graphology, and describe the scientific research investigating the claims of graphologists. State what conclusions can be drawn about this topic.

Q4) Compare the views of Sigmund Freud and Albert Bandura on human aggression.

Q5) What are the two major criticisms of the humanistic perspective on personality?

Q6) What are the basic assumptions in Carl Rogers's humanistic theory of personality?

Q7) Describe the primary themes of Alfred Adler's theory.

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Chapter 10: Section 2: Personality

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Q1) Troy and Carrie are a couple. Troy is unable to consciously admit he has strong feelings of sexual attraction to other women. However he suspects and accuses Carrie of being sexually attracted to other men, even though Carrie has never done anything to arouse such suspicions. Which ego defense mechanism best explains Troy's behavior?

A)displacement

B)projection

C)sublimation

D)undoing

Q2) Daniel was adopted at birth. In a behavioral genetics study, similarities between Daniel and his adoptive parents are considered to be due to _____, and similarities between Daniel and his biological parents are considered to be due to _____.

A)genetic influences; environmental influences

B)environmental influences; genetic influences

C)emergenic influences; heritability of traits

D)heritability of traits; environmental influences

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Chapter 10: Section 3: Personality

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Q1) The general goal of trait theorists is to identify the most basic dimensions of personality.

A)True

B)False

Q2) According to Carl Rogers, the fully functioning person is likely to be creative and spontaneous, and to enjoy harmonious relationships with other people.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Graphology is a valid and reliable way of revealing people's temperament, personality traits, intelligence, occupational attributes, and reasoning ability based on their handwriting.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In Carl Jung's theory of personality, culturally universal themes such as the hero, the nurturing mother, the powerful father, and the innocent child represent archetypes.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Section 4: Personality

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Q1) Ricki is a teenager in a small Midwestern city who dreams of moving to New York and becoming a successful actress. According to Psych for Your Life, it is likely that, because of Ricki's "possible self," she will _____ in high school.

A)develop an inferiority complex

B)take acting and voice lessons

C)develop a superiority complex

D)have very low self-esteem

Q2) The five-factor model of personality describes personality in terms of:

A)psychoticism, stability, extraversion, neuroticism, and conscientiousness.

B)extraversion, introversion, psychoticism, agreeableness, and conscientiousness.

C)extraversion, emotional stability, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness.

D)neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness.

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Chapter 10: Section 5: Personality

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Q1) In Freud's psychoanalytic theory of personality, which one of the following personality structures is entirely unconscious?

A)the id

B)the libido

C)the ego

D)the superego

Q2) Which of the following perspectives on human personality emphasizes the study of individual differences?

A)psychoanalytic

B)social cognitive

C)trait

D)neo-Freudian

Q3) According to Carl Rogers, the fully functioning person experiences:

A)high levels of incongruence.

B)a deep need to move toward other people as a defense against basic anxiety.

C)a superiority complex because of success in overcoming challenges and developing a high level of self-actualization.

D)congruence.

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Chapter 11: Section 1: Social Psychology

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Q1) Describe the Stanford Prison Experiment, and explain how the results of that study help explain the mistreatment of prisoners at Abu Ghraib.

Q2) What is a stereotype, and what is stereotype threat? What scientific evidence exists to support the notion of stereotype threat?

Q3) What is conformity? How is it influenced by normative and informational social influence, and culture?

Q4) Do attitudes always guide behavior? Describe the conditions under which a person is most likely to behave in a way that is consistent with his or her attitudes.

Q5) Describe how in-group and out-group thinking, negative stereotypes, dehumanization, prejudice, and cognitive dissonance contributed to the abuse of prisoners at Abu Ghraib prison in Iraq.

Q6) Give two examples of the fundamental attribution error, and explain how it can influence our explanations for the behavior of other people.

Q7) What was the Robbers Cave Experiment? How did psychologist Muzafer Sherif create and then reduce tensions between two groups of boys at a summer camp?

Q8) Name and describe seven common attributional biases and explanatory patterns.

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Chapter 11: Section 2: Social Psychology

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Q1) During Stanley Milgram's original obedience study, most of the subjects:

A)showed virtually no emotions or feelings while shocking the learner.

B)quickly figured out that the experimental situation was bogus and that the learner was not really getting shocked.

C)showed extreme tension and conflict as they continued to shock the learner.

D)refused to obey the experimenter beyond the 150-volt level.

Q2) The tendency, after an event has occurred, to overestimate one's ability to have foreseen or predicted the outcome is called the:

A)self-serving bias.

B)self-effacing bias.

C)hindsight bias.

D)fundamental attribution error.

Q3) In a replication of _____ classic experiment investigating _____, Manjit joined a group of six other people whose task it was to state which of three comparison lines matched the standard line in length.

A)Solomon Asch's; conformity

B)Stanley Milgram's; obedience

C)Phillip Zimbardo's; cognitive dissonance

D)Bibb Latané and John Darley's; bystander intervention

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Page 55

Chapter 11: Section 3: Social Psychology

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Q1) Solomon Asch's experiment on conformity was rigged so that all the participants were conspiring with the experimenter, except for one person, the real subject.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Normative social influence is behavior that is motivated by the desire to gain social acceptance and approval.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In almost any situation, how we perceive ourselves has little or no influence on how we perceive others and form impressions of them.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In-group bias refers to the tendency to see members of out-groups as very similar to one another.

A)True

B)False

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Page 56

Chapter 11: Section 4: Social Psychology

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Q1) _____ can have cognitive, behavioral, and emotional components.

A)Heritability estimates

B)Hypotheses

C)Attitudes

D)Evolved traits

Q2) In Milgram's original obedience experiment, how many of the participants remained obedient to the very end of the experiment, administering the full 450 volts to the learner?

A)none (0 percent)

B)14 out of 40 (35 percent)

C)6 out of 40 (15 percent)

D)26 out of 40 (65 percent)

Q3) Normative social influence results from people's desire to:

A)reduce cognitive dissonance.

B)be correct and have accurate information.

C)be liked and accepted by others.

D)avoid the fundamental attribution error.

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Chapter 11: Section 5: Social Psychology

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Q1) Gilda volunteers two or three mornings a week at a local animal rescue center because she believes that helping abused and abandoned animals is "the right thing to do." Her friend Wilda volunteers a few times a week at the same shelter because she believes that it gives her valuable work experience and may help her gain admission to veterinary school. Gilda's motivation is guided by _____, and Wilda's motivation reflects

A)altruism; prosocial behavior

B)normative social influence; informational social influence

C)prosocial behavior; altruism

D)informational social influence; normative social influence

Q2) In order to remove any doubts about the legitimacy of the shock generator in Milgram's obedience study, the:

A)"teachers" were given a sample shock.

B)"teachers" were allowed to give the experimenters a shock.

C)"learners" were given a sample shock.

D)"learners" were allowed to give the "teachers" a shock.

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58

Chapter 12: Section 1: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Define the two types of explanatory style identified by Martin Seligman, and discuss the implications of each style for health and well-being.

Q2) Define telomeres, and describe how they are affected by stress.

Q3) Define psychoneuroimmunology, and explain how the nervous, endocrine, and immune systems are linked and how they influence each other.

Q4) Identify and discuss the four strategies, described in the Psych for Your Life box, "Minimizing the Effects of Stress," that help minimize the negative effects of stress, and explain why they are helpful.

Q5) Provide an original example of a stressful experience, and use it to illustrate the definition of stress, noting the role of cognitive appraisal in stress.

Q6) Describe research linking stress and susceptibility to the common cold. How does this happen, and does illness inevitably follow stress?

Q7) What gender differences have been found in the effects of social support?

Q8) How can social support help buffer the effects of stress? Does social support have to come from human sources?

Q9) Describe the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome.

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Chapter 12: Section 2: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Imagine that a close friend turns to you for help with personal problems and high stress levels. According to the research presented in the textbook which of the following may NOT be helpful?

A)Be a good listener and show concern and interest.

B)Talk about yourself and your own problems and give advice that was not asked for.

C)Ask questions that encourage the person under stress to express his or her feelings and emotions.

D)Express understanding about why the person is upset.

Q2) Chelsey, a student at State University in the United States, is under a lot of stress. This week, she has four exams and three research papers due by Friday. According to your textbook, what type of coping strategy is Chelsey MOST likely to use?

A)distancing as a way of coping

B)escape-avoidance strategies

C)emotion-focused coping strategies

D)problem-focused coping strategies

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Chapter 12: Section 3: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Daily hassles do not contribute to the stress produced by major life events.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The alarm stage of the general adaptation syndrome is best described as the body's attempts to resist or try to adjust to the continuing stressful situation.

A)True

B)False

Q3) When work stress is prolonged and becomes chronic, it always produces a stress response called generalized anxiety disorder.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The Focus on Neuroscience box, "The Mysterious Placebo Effect," described a research study that used fMRI scans to investigate the effectiveness of placebo pills in reducing the pain of tension headaches due to stress. The results showed that the placebo pills were actually more effective than an expensive prescription painkiller.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Section 4: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Research has generally found that people who have many friends, a large social network, and frequent contact with others are:

A)more likely to get sick because they are exposed to more germs than people who have few social contacts.

B)less likely to develop a serious illness than people who have little contact with others.

C)more likely to develop a serious illness because they experience more daily hassles as a result of the demands involved in having a large social networks.

D)more likely to experience the stress contagion effect and have lower resistance to infections, and a higher incidence of cardiovascular disease and stroke.

Q2) Vernessa is a middle-aged adult who experiences chronic stress. Research suggests that Vernessa will have shortened:

A)telomeres.

B)neurons.

C)axons.

D)dendrites.

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Chapter 12: Section 5: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) According to Martin Seligman, people who exhibit a(n) _____ explanatory style are more likely to _____.

A)pessimistic; experience the stress contagion effect

B)optimistic; use internal, stable, and global explanations for negative events

C)pessimistic; use external, unstable, and specific explanations for negative events

D)optimistic; be healthier and persist despite setbacks

Q2) Gertrud participated in a research study at her nursing home where she was given many choices over her daily activities, including what to eat, which activities to attend, and so forth. According to research by Judith Rodin and Ellen Langer, Gertrud is likely to:

A)become ill because of the increased stress associated with having to make so many decisions.

B)be healthier than nursing-home residents in a matched control group who were not given the opportunity to make choices about their daily activities.

C)change her coping style from emotion focused to problem focused.

D)suffer from stress contagion effect because of difficulties adapting to her new living conditions.

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63

Chapter 13: Section 1: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) What forms can hallucinations take in the experience of schizophrenia, and what factors are thought to influence the content of the hallucinations?

Q2) Describe the results of a survey of media portrayals of people with mental disorders, and discuss the accuracy of these portrayals.

Q3) How does pathological anxiety differ from normal feelings of anxiety?

Q4) Identify two core symptoms of mood disorders (or affective disorders). How does a mood disorder differ from typical mood swings?

Q5) What is a personality disorder? Describe the symptoms, behaviors, and personality characteristics associated with the three conditions that are included in the odd, eccentric cluster of personality disorders.

Q6) What kinds of themes are commonly present in delusional thinking?

Q7) What can a person do to help someone who expresses suicidal intentions?

Q8) What symptoms characterize bipolar disorder?

Q9) Describe the Finnish Adoptive Family Study of Schizophrenia and the implications of its findings.

Q10) Explain what the DSM-5 is, describe how it was developed, and list some of the major criticisms of the manual.

Page 64

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Chapter 13: Section 2: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Patricia has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. Which of the following is a key characteristic of her eating disorder?

A)loss of appetite, especially for high-calorie foods

B)being 15 to 20 percent below her ideal body weight

C)binge eating and purging by self-induced vomiting

D)being unaware of the fact that she has an eating disorder

Q2) According to the Critical Thinking box on smoking and psychological disorders, which of the following is FALSE?

A)Several studies focusing on adolescents found that cigarette smoking predicted the onset of depressive symptoms.

B)A positive association was found between smoking and the severity of symptoms experienced by people with anxiety disorders.

C)In a study of people with schizophrenia, 90 percent of the patients had started smoking before their illness began.

D)People who smoke have nearly twice the risk of later developing major depressive disorder.

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Chapter 13: Section 3: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Many people with OCD experience obsessions and compulsions that are linked in some way.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If exposed to an extreme trauma, someone with a personal or family history of psychological disorders is more likely to develop posttraumatic stress disorder.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Hector has a fear of growing excessive amounts of body hair. This phobia is called hypertrichophobia.

A)True

B)False

Q4) According to the research discussed in the Critical Thinking box on smoking and psychological disorders, smoking seems to cause or trigger the development of psychological disorders in vulnerable people.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Section 4: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) _____ disorders are inflexible, maladaptive patterns of thoughts, emotions, behavior, and interpersonal functioning that are stable over time and across situations and deviate from the expectations of the individual's culture.

A)Anxiety

B)Major depressive

C)Culture-bound

D)Personality

Q2) In which of the following ways do antipsychotic medications, such as Thorazine or Haldol, help reduce symptoms of schizophrenia?

A)reducing or blocking dopamine activity in the brain

B)decreasing brain levels of serotonin

C)decreasing brain levels of norepinephrine

D)increasing serotonin production in the brain

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a core symptom of posttraumatic stress disorder?

A)Frequent, intrusive recollections of a traumatic event

B)Numbing of emotional responsiveness

C)Memory loss and an inability to identify threatening situations

D)Avoidance of stimuli that tend to trigger memories of a traumatic event

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Chapter 13: Section 5: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Taijin kyofusho is:

A)a form of meditation used in collectivistic cultures that has been found to be highly effective in treating social anxiety disorders.

B)a variation of major depressive disorder seen primarily in Asian countries that is characterized by despondency over failing to live up to family or community expectations.

C)the Japanese word used to describe a disorder that is very similar to dissociative identity disorder.

D)a form of social anxiety that usually affects young Japanese males.

Q2) Which of the following statements schizophrenia is TRUE?

A)Schizophrenia is diagnosed nine times more often in women than in men.

B)The psychological environment is unrelated to the onset or progression of schizophrenia.

C)Heritability estimates suggest that genetic factors account for 80 percent of new cases of schizophrenia.

D)No single psychological factor has consistently emerged as causing schizophrenia.

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Chapter 14: Section 1: Therapies

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Q1) What are the assumptions and key ideas of interpersonal therapy?

Q2) According to Carl Rogers, what therapeutic conditions foster change in the therapy client, and why?

Q3) Compare and contrast the first-generation antidepressants with the second-generation antidepressants and identify the newest antidepressant drugs that have been developed.

Q4) Mariah will graduate from college in a year, and she's caught between two possible options for graduate school: a licensed professional counselor or a counseling psychologist. Describe the requirements associated with each of these professions.

Q5) Describe similarities and differences in Freud's and Rogers's views of the therapeutic relationship.

Q6) How do short-term dynamic therapies differ from traditional psychoanalysis?

Q7) Describe the steps used in systematic desensitization and identify the conditioning principles involved in this technique.

Q8) Describe how virtual reality (VR) therapy is used, explain what principles of conditioning are involved, and identify the psychological problems it is used to treat.

Q9) What effects do benzodiazepines produce? What are possible side effects?

Page 69

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Chapter 14: Section 2: Therapies

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Q1) According to your textbook, what explains the high number of prescriptions that have been written for the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), such as Prozac?

A)There is scientific evidence that the SSRIs, especially Prozac, make normal people smarter and more energetic.

B)Prozac and the other SSRIs have been shown to be effective in treating depressive symptoms in about 95 percent of the patients who take it, a much higher improvement rate than any other psychoactive medication.

C)Prozac and the other SSRIs have fewer and milder side effects than earlier antidepressants, although their effectiveness is about the same.

D)Research using PET scans showed that the SSRIs were twice as effective in changing brain chemistry as psychotherapy.

Q2) Client-centered therapy was developed by:

A)Mary Cover Jones.

B)Aaron Beck.

C)Carl Rogers.

D)Albert Ellis.

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Chapter 14: Section 3: Therapies

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Q1) The cognitive psychotherapies are based upon the assumption that problematic emotions and behaviors are due to a distorted self-concept and the absence of unconditional positive regard.

A)True

B)False

Q2) To help promote self-directed change in the client, a client-centered therapist strives to display genuineness, unconditional positive regard, and empathic understanding.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Although there are many different types of psychotherapy, they are all based on the assumption that psychological factors play a key role in troubling feelings, behaviors, or relationships.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Although they are of historical interest, Freud's techniques and assumptions are no longer influential in contemporary psychotherapy and research.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Section 4: Therapies

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Q1) In her therapy practice, Dr. Castellanos regularly uses the techniques of free association, dream interpretation, transference, resistance, and interpretation. Dr. Castellanos has been trained in _____ therapy.

A)humanistic

B)psychoanalytic

C)behavioral

D)cognitive

Q2) _____ therapy was originally developed to treat major depressive disorder.

A)Behavioral

B)Interpersonal

C)Humanistic

D)Cognitive

Q3) In both short-term dynamic therapy and traditional psychoanalysis, the:

A)therapist maintains therapeutic neutrality.

B)therapist uses interpretations to help the patient recognize hidden feelings and transference issues that may be affecting his or her current relationships.

C)patient sees the therapist for a minimum of five sessions per week.

D)patient and therapist agree on specific, concrete goals for each session.

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Chapter 14: Section 5: Therapies

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Q1) Some people experience a less severe form of depressive disorder that is characterized by chronic low-grade depression with symptoms persisting for two years or longer. This less intense type of depression is called _____ disorder.

A)seasonal affective

B)cyclothymic

C)persistent depressive

D)dissociative

Q2) Taijin kyofusho is:

A)a form of meditation used in collectivistic cultures that has been found to be highly effective in treating social anxiety disorders.

B)a variation of major depressive disorder seen primarily in Asian countries that is characterized by despondency over failing to live up to family or community expectations.

C)the Japanese word used to describe a disorder that is very similar to dissociative identity disorder.

D)a form of social anxiety that usually affects young Japanese males.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.