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Principles of Psychology introduces students to the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. The course covers foundational concepts such as perception, learning, memory, motivation, emotion, development, personality, and psychological disorders. Students explore research methods used in psychology and examine how biological, psychological, and social factors influence thought and behavior. Emphasis is placed on understanding how psychological principles apply to everyday life and contribute to personal and social well-being.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology Themes and Variations 9th Edition by Wayne Weiten
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Q1) One of the main criticisms raised concerning both behaviorism and psychoanalytic theory is that these views are dehumanizing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The person responsible for establishing psychology as an independent discipline with its own subject matter is
A) G. Stanley Hall.
B) René Descartes.
C) William James.
D) Wilhelm Wundt.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following groups is MOST likely to have been used as subjects for psychological research?
A) a variety of individuals
B) lower-class males
C) lower-class males and females
D) middle- and upper-class white males
Answer: D
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Q1) Scientific theories must be subject to empirical scrutiny,that is to say they must be ____________________.
Answer: Testable
Q2) The American Psychological Association has developed a set of ethical guidelines for research that apply to both animal and human research participants.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a criticism of using animals in psychological research?
A) Many of the studies are trivial.
B) It is unethical to subject an animal to pain.
C) The studies cost too much for the limited amount of information they provide.
D) The studies are a waste of time, as the results often do not apply to humans.
Answer: C
Q4) The ____________________ is a measure of the amount of variability in a set of data.
Answer: standard deviation
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Q1) A postsynaptic potential occurs when
A) neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft.
B) neurotransmitters are reabsorbed into the terminal buttons.
C) neurotransmitters bind or attach to receptor sites on the postsynaptic neuron.
D) neurotransmitters bind or attach to receptor sites on the presynaptic neuron.
Answer: C
Q2) If the left hemisphere of the brain were damaged,which part of the body would be MOST directly affected?
A) the left half
B) the right half
C) the upper portion
D) the entire body
Answer: B
Q3) The brain structure responsible for relaying sensory information to various locations in the brain is the thalamus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Ashlynn was listening to a tape recording of a famous speech that was being played backward.She just heard gibberish until a classmate said the phrase "meet me in St.Louis" was clearly spoken.The tape was rewound and as Ashlynn listened this time,she also clearly heard the same phrase.Ashlynn's ability to detect the phrase the second time through the tape illustrates
A) the opponent-process model of perception.
B) the top-down processing model of perception.
C) the bottom-up processing model of perception.
D) the eclectic model of perception.
Q2) Impossible figures are objects that exist in three-dimensional space but cannot be accurately represented in two-dimensional pictures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The interpretation of visual cues that indicate how near or far away objects are defines
A) perceptual constancies.
B) depth perception.
C) monocular cues.
D) binocular cues.
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Q1) Dakota is taking a prescription drug,and one of the side effects of the drug is an increase in the stimulation of ascending fibers in the reticular activating system.Dakota is likely to find that he
A) wants to sleep all the time.
B) no longer experiences REM sleep.
C) has difficulty falling asleep.
D) begins to dream during Stage 3 and 4 sleep.
Q2) One possible theory as to the reason humans need REM and slow wave sleep focuses on the possibility that they contribute to
A) keeping the individual safe from predators.
B) the firming up of the learning that took place during that day.
C) impairing the individuals creative response.
D) helping the individual keep their body temperature low.
Q3) The Featured Study is representative of a great deal of recent research which suggests that the effects of sleep deprivation
A) are substantially different in males and females.
B) vary as a function of one's normal sleeping habits.
C) are more serious than widely believed.
D) are practically nonexistent in healthy adults.
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Q1) The type of learning in which voluntary responses come to be controlled by their consequences is
A) observational learning.
B) classical conditioning.
C) operant conditioning.
D) reinforcement.
Q2) ____________________ reinforcement occurs when every instance of a designated response is reinforced; ____________________ reinforcement,occurs when a designated response is reinforced only some of the time.
Q3) Julie has a desk right next to her manager's office.Whenever her manager is in his office,Julie makes sure that she works hard at her computer.However,if the manager is away from his office she often works much more slowly and takes more breaks.In this case,the manager being in his office is acting as
A) a positive reinforcer for working hard.
B) a negative reinforcer for working hard.
C) a discriminative stimulus for working hard.
D) an unconditioned stimulus for working hard.
Q4) On a cumulative recorder,a rapid response rate produces a(n)____________________ slope.
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Q1) Ruben and Maya are describing their recent trip to Brazil.They describe all the interesting things they did while they were there,and all the interesting people that they met.In describing their trip,Ruben and Maya are largely relying on their A) semantic memory.
B) procedural memory.
C) episodic memory.
D) prospective memory.
Q2) Enhancing memory by associating a word with an image to represent the word,is known as the ____________________ method.
Q3) The first person to conduct scientific studies of forgetting was
A) Sigmund Freud.
B) Hermann Ebbinghaus.
C) John Watson.
D) George Miller.
Q4) Interference effects on retention are greatest when the interfering learning is
A) similar to the material to be remembered.
B) dissimilar to the material to be remembered.
C) unrelated to the material to be remembered.
D) similarity of the materials does not seem to affect retention.
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Q1) In language development,babbling refers to producing A) different cries to signify different kinds of discomfort.
B) a wide variety of phonemes and consonant-vowel combinations.
C) sound by placing the tongue near the back of the mouth.
D) random combinations of words.
Q2) Compare and contrast the behaviorist,nativist,and interactionist perspectives on language acquisition.
Q3) Pinker and Bloom (1992)suggest that human language may be a result of evolutionary processes because language allows humans to A) acquire information about the world secondhand.
B) use trial-and-error learning more effectively.
C) avoid heuristic fallacies.
D) engage in more efficient introspection.
Q4) A child's first words are generally spoken at about what age?
A) 3 to 5 months
B) 6 to 8 months
C) 10 to 13 months
D) 18 to 21 months
Q5) Briefly explain why people often find some problems difficult to solve.
Q6) Summarize evidence on language acquisition in animals.
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Q1) An estimate of the proportion of trait variability in a population that is determined by variations in genetic inheritance is known as
A) a heritability ratio.
B) a percentile score.
C) an intelligence quotient.
D) a reaction range.
Q2) According to recent research conducted by Ellen Winner,profoundly gifted children (those with an IQ above 180)are often
A) much taller than normal children.
B) introverted and socially isolated.
C) diagnosed as schizophrenic.
D) hostile toward their peers.
Q3) Todd has very strong reasoning ability and he is able to process information very quickly.It is clear that Todd is high in
A) crystallized intelligence.
B) Stanford intelligence.
C) passive intelligence.
D) fluid intelligence.
Q4) Describe the components of Sternberg's concept of "successful intelligence."
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Q1) Set point theory implies that people who have
A) a low set point will have the hardest time losing weight.
B) a high set point will often regain any weight they lose.
C) a low set point will often regain any weight they lose.
D) a high set point will often lose any weight they gain.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding homosexuality has NOT been supported by empirical evidence?
A) In some cases, female homosexuality has been linked to prenatal exposure to abnormally high levels of androgens.
B) There are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
C) Homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual arousal.
D) Identical twins of homosexual men are more likely to be homosexual than are fraternal twins of homosexual men.
Q3) Someone who feels the need to associate with others and maintain social bonds would have a strong ____________________ motive.
Q4) Explain four conclusions that can be drawn about the dynamics of happiness.
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Q1) One's sex is ____ determined; one's gender is ____ determined.
A) culturally; biologically
B) culturally; culturally
C) biologically; culturally
D) biologically; biologically
Q2) Individuals at the ____ level of moral development tend to use a personal code of ethics to guide their moral reasoning and behavior.
A) postconventional
B) concrete
C) conventional
D) preconventional
Q3) The characteristic mood,activity level,and emotional reactivity of an infant refers to the infant's
A) attachment.
B) behavioral qualities.
C) personality.
D) temperament.
Q4) Briefly describe the major events of puberty and discuss the impact of the timing of the onset of puberty in males and females.
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Q1) Which of the following theoretical perspectives would be most likely to argue that a person's subjective view of the world is more important than the objective reality?
A) behavioral approach
B) cognitive approach
C) humanistic approach
D) biological approach
Q2) The sickly child who goes on to become a forceful,physically active adult is engaging in what Adler called
A) compensation.
B) displacement.
C) fixation.
D) regression.
Q3) In explaining behavior,social learning theorist Walter Mischel is most interested in the influence of the situation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Oedipal complex,of such great importance in Freud's thinking,occurs during the ____________________ stage of psychosexual development.
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Q1) Putting personal goals ahead of group goals and defining one's identity in terms of personal attributes is referred to as
A) hedonism.
B) dispositional attributional bias.
C) egocentrism.
D) individualism.
Q2) People tend to see the diversity among the members of the ____ but overestimate the homogeneity of the ____.
A) ingroup; outgroup
B) outgroup; ingroup
C) majority; minority
D) minority; majority
Q3) The purveyors of miracle cures and psychic advice tend to rely on which of the following forms of evidence?
A) anecdotal evidence
B) findings from observational research
C) results from laboratory experiments
D) findings from surveys and questionnaires
Q4) Briefly explain the evolutionary perspective on bias in person perception.
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Q1) When compared to Type A people,Type B people tend to be more
A) hard-driving, ambitious, and competitive
B) relaxed, easygoing, and friendly
C) inhibited, compliant, and depressed
D) achievement oriented, impatient, and hostile
Q2) Events that are stressful for one person may not be stressful for another; this may be the result of the fact that
A) anxious people are less likely to perceive events as stressful.
B) neurotic people are more likely to "choke" under pressure.
C) stressed people are less likely to use defensive coping strategies.
D) how individuals appraise a situation determines whether they are likely to perceive events as stressful.
Q3) In the Featured Study investigating the link between depression and heart disease the results suggest that
A) the stress of living with heart disease may cause the onset of depression
B) depression and heart disease are not correlated with each other
C) the emotional dysfunction of depression may cause heart disease
D) depression and heart disease are both caused by the negative effects of smoking
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Q1) The stress-vulnerability models that have been developed for mood disorders and schizophrenic disorders illustrate which of your text's unifying themes?
A) Our experience of the world is highly subjective.
B) Our behavior is shaped by our cultural heritage.
C) Psychology is empirical.
D) Heredity and environment jointly influence behavior.
Q2) Maria is afraid to leave her home to go shopping or even go to work; she avoids all public places.Maria suffers from a disorder known as A) agoraphobia.
B) brontophobia.
C) simple phobia.
D) claustrophobia.
Q3) According to Ohman and Mineka,an evolved module
A) is consciously activated.
B) is relatively resistant to intentional efforts to suppress a resulting fear.
C) allows a person to eliminate a fear-provoking stimulus in an effective way.
D) are learned through classical and operant forms of conditioning.
Q4) Describe the premise of the medical model of abnormal behavior.
Q5) Briefly describe the five axes of the DSM-IV system.
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Q1) George has been in psychotherapy for several months.When he first started therapy George had a very positive relationship with his therapist.However,over the past two weeks he has shown increasing hostility,and he often yells and becomes threatening when his therapist offers her interpretations of the things that George says during therapy.According to Freud,George's behavior may be
A) evidence that his psychological problems are worsening.
B) a sign of repressed free association.
C) evidence of defensive neurosis.
D) a sign of transference.
Q2) Uncovering the patterns of thinking and assumptions behind maladaptive behavior and then assessing their validity is at the core of
A) cognitive therapy.
B) reality therapy.
C) behavioral therapy.
D) client-centered therapy.
Q3) Freud emphasized dream interpretation,genuineness,and empathy as critical components of therapy.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Al and Carmen have the same bowling average,but Al is much more erratic than Carmen.If we compute the standard deviations for their respective distributions of bowling scores,which of the following will be true?
A) Al's standard deviation will be higher than Carmen's.
B) Marilyn's standard deviation will be higher than Al's.
C) Both standard deviations will be the same.
D) Al's scores will be symmetrical while Carmen's will be positively skewed.
Q2) When a distribution of scores is not symmetrical and many scores pile up at the low end of the scale,the distribution is a
A) positively skewed distribution.
B) negatively skewed distribution.
C) significant distribution.
D) normal distribution.
Q3) It is safe to say that the "bedrock" of the scoring system for most psychological tests is the
A) frequency polygon.
B) central tendency.
C) correlation coefficient.
D) normal distribution.
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Q1) The positive or negative emotions associated with a job specifically form
A) work motivation
B) goal-setting
C) job enrichment
D) job satisfaction
Q2) Human factors psychologists are most likely to focus on which of the following?
A) redesigning machinery so it is easier on the body
B) organizational culture
C) designing job training, test validation and interviewing
D) legal issues including discrimination in the workplace
Q3) Which branch of industrial and organizational psychology examines the ways in which work,systems,and system features can be designed or changed to most effectively correspond with the capabilities and limitations of individuals,often with a focus on the human body?
A) industrial psychology
B) human factors psychology
C) social psychology
D) organizational psychology
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Q1) Research suggests that children show strong moral prohibitions against pollution
A) only when it harms humans.
B) only when it harms animals.
C) when it harms either humans or animals.
D) neither when it harms humans nor animals.
Q2) Schultz,et al (2005)found that individuals who are __________ are more likely to take pro-environmental action without the need for any operant manipulation.
A) altruistic
B) paternal
C) biocentric
D) all of the above
Q3) The average child in the United States spends _______ engaged in outdoor activities.
A) 1 hour per day
B) 30 minutes per day
C) 30 minutes per week
D) no time at all
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