Principles of Psychology Final
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Psychology introduces students to the foundational concepts, theories, and research methods in the field of psychology. The course explores the scientific study of behavior and mental processes, covering topics such as perception, learning, memory, cognition, development, emotion, motivation, personality, psychological disorders, and social interaction. Students will gain insights into how biological, psychological, and social factors influence individuals and groups, and will develop critical thinking skills for evaluating psychological research and its applications to everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology in Modules 12th Edition by David
G. Myers
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Chapter 1: The History and Scope of Psychology
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Q1) A complete picture of how mental processes are influenced by both social systems and brain functions is most clearly provided by
A) behaviorism.
B) humanistic psychology.
C) a biopsychosocial approach.
D) introspection.
Answer: C
Q2) The neuroscience perspective in psychology would be most likely to emphasize that behavior is influenced by A) environmental circumstances.
B) blood chemistry.
C) unconscious conflicts.
D) subjective interpretations.
Answer: B
Q3) Ivan Pavlov pioneered the study of A) learning.
B) perception.
C) personality.
D) mental illness.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Thinking Critically with Psychological Science
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Q1) Dr.Branch would like to study the relationship between room lighting and college students' test performance.He randomly assigns students to two groups.The first group takes an exam in a dimly lit room and the second group takes the same exam in a regularly lit room.Which is the control group?
A) the group of students who were randomly assigned to one of the two conditions
B) the group of students who took the exam in the dimly lit room
C) the group of students who took the exam in the regularly lit room
D) There is no control group because this is a naturalistic observation research design.
Answer: C
Q2) In a survey,psychologists select a random sample of research participants in order to ensure that
A) the participants are representative of the population they are interested in studying.
B) there will be a large number of participants in the research study.
C) the study will not be influenced by the researcher's personal values.
D) the same number of participants will be assigned to each of the experimental conditions.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Research Strategies: How Psychologists Ask and
Answer Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) We can MOST accurately estimate the mean of a population if
A) a sample is large in size and low in variability.
B) a sample is small in size and high in variability.
C) a sample is large in size and high in variability.
D) a sample is small in size and low in variability.
Answer: A
Q2) If a set of standardized test scores is normally distributed,having a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10,approximately 68 percent of the group members receive scores somewhere between
A) 50 and 60.
B) 45 and 55.
C) 40 and 60.
D) 35 and 65.
Answer: C
Q3) Which measure of variation is affected most by a few extreme scores?
A) standard deviation
B) mean
C) median
D) range
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Neural and Hormonal Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The release of epinephrine into the bloodstream is most likely to A) increase blood sugar.
B) lower blood pressure.
C) stimulate digestion.
D) decrease perspiration.
Q2) At the age of 22,Mrs.LaBlanc was less than 4 feet tall.Her short stature was probably influenced by the lack of a growth hormone produced by the A) pancreas.
B) thyroid.
C) adrenal gland.
D) pituitary gland.
Q3) Simple reflexes are controlled by the A) cerebral cortex.
B) spinal cord.
C) amygdala
D) pons.
Q4) The basic building blocks of our neural information system are neurons.Explain what neurons are,how they work,and how they communicate or transmit information?
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Chapter 5: The Brain
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Q1) Which brain structure relays information from the eyes to the visual cortex?
A) thalamus
B) amygdala
C) medulla
D) cerebellum
Q2) A limbic system reward center located in front of the hypothalamus is called the A) amygdala.
B) reticular formation.
C) pons.
D) nucleus accumbens.
Q3) Brandon has trouble sleeping regularly.He has difficulty falling asleep and then staying asleep.On average,he gets 4 hours of sleep each night.His ________ may not be functioning properly.
A) thalamus
B) hypothalamus
C) reticular formation
D) pons
Q4) Compare and contrast the various ways that neuroscientists study the brain.
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Chapter 6: Behavior Genetics and Evolutionary Psychology
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Q1) The auditory cortex is responsible for hearing and is located right above the ear.The visual cortex is responsible for vision and is located
A) above the auditory cortex.
B) behind the forehead.
C) behind the eyes.
D) at the back of your head.
Q2) The process of comparing currently experienced visual input with past visual memories takes place in
A) the thalamus.
B) the cerebellum.
C) association areas.
D) the corpus callosum.
Q3) Split-brain patients have had their ________ surgically cut.
A) hippocampus
B) corpus callosum
C) somatosensory cortex
D) frontal lobes
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Chapter 7: Environmental Influences on Behavior, and
Reflections on Nature and Nurture
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Q1) In 2009,two Northwest Airline pilots overflew their Minneapolis destination by 150 miles because they were focused on their laptops and in conversation.They also ignored air traffic controllers' attempts to reach them.What may have explained this potentially dangerous error?
A) selective attention
B) consciousness
C) inattentional blindness
D) change blindness
Q2) A hospitalized woman who showed no outward signs of conscious awareness was asked to imagine playing tennis.In response,she exhibited ________ that was similar to that exhibited by a healthy person.
A) a popout
B) blindsight
C) brain activity
D) change blindness
Q3) We know more than we know we know thanks to our capacity for A) sequential processing.
B) consciousness.
C) change blindness.
D) dual processing.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Prenatal Development and the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prior to age 9,children's dreams seem more like a slide show and less like an active story in which the dreamer is an actor.This best illustrates that the content of dreams reflects children's
A) latent content.
B) melatonin levels.
C) night terrors.
D) cognitive development.
Q2) During lunch your friend tells you about a recent dream.In her dream,while at home she was attacked,beaten,and robbed.What would your response be?
A) "That's a strange dream."
B) "You should be extra careful.It may be a premonition."
C) "I read recently that those types of dreams are very rare."
D) "That's crazy! But being attacked is one of the most common themes in dreams."
Q3) REM sleep is
A) reduced by alcohol and reduced by sleeping pills.
B) increased by alcohol and reduced by sleeping pills.
C) reduced by alcohol and increased by sleeping pills.
D) increased by alcohol and increased by sleeping pills.
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Chapter 9: Infancy and Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amphetamines are classified as ________ and barbiturates are classified as
A) hallucinogens;depressants
B) stimulants;depressants
C) hallucinogens;stimulants
D) stimulants;hallucinogens
Q2) One effect of frequent drug use is changes in brain circuits.This leads to
A) increased REM sleep.
B) decreased drug tolerance.
C) increased behavioral inhibitions.
D) strong cravings when situations trigger memories of drug use.
Q3) In contrast to alcohol,marijuana
A) is rapidly eliminated from the body.
B) does not impair motor coordination.
C) amplifies sensitivity to sounds.
D) does not impair memory.
Q4) Brenda is 16-years-old and has experimented with several drugs.She has tried marijuana,alcohol,and cocaine.What are the biological,psychological,and social-cultural explanations for her experimentation?
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Chapter 10: Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) One's biologically rooted temperament helps form one's enduring A) genome.
B) personality.
C) chromosomes.
D) epigenetic marks.
Q2) Dylan and Derek are identical twins who have similar personalities.Compared with fraternal twins,they are likely to be similar in the traits of A) openness and agreeableness.
B) extraversion and neuroticism.
C) introversion and openness.
D) agreeableness and conscientiousness.
Q3) The biochemical code for eye color is transmitted from parents to offspring by A) neurotransmitters.
B) the placenta.
C) epigenetic molecules.
D) genes.
Q4) Mark and Paul are identical twins.Explain what can be expected in terms of similarities and differences (their personality,for instance).Use research findings to support your answer.
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Chapter 11: Adulthood, and Reflections on Developmental Issues
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Q1) Evolutionary psychologists are most likely to suggest that "a universal moral grammar" arises from our shared human
A) genome.
B) social scripts.
C) food shortages.
D) taste preferences.
Q2) "Some 95 percent of genetic variation exists within populations." This is best demonstrated by the
A) high level of genetic diversity across various populations worldwide.
B) minimal genetic variation among those from Asian countries.
C) minimal genetic variation across humans worldwide.
D) high level of genetic diversity among those from Africa.
Q3) Charles Darwin advanced the principle of A) universal moral grammar.
B) social scripts.
C) sexual overperception bias.
D) natural selection.
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Sensation and Perception
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Q1) Religious and ethnic diversity are most likely to be appreciated in a culture characterized by A) gender schemas. B) individualism.
C) gender typing.
D) collectivism.
Q2) Compared with those in cultures that value individualism,people in collectivist cultures are especially likely to value personal A) humility.
B) privacy.
C) freedom.
D) achievements.
Q3) Female Internal Medicine residency program directors have typically received ________ salaries than their male counterparts.In academia,female research grant applicants have been ________ likely to be funded than have male applicants.
A) higher: more B) higher;less
C) lower;more
D) lower;less
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Vision
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Q1) Researchers who emphasize learning and experience tend to view development as
A) a continuous process,while those who emphasize maturation often view development as a sequence of stages.
B) a sequence of stages,while those who emphasize maturation often view development as a continuous process.
C) a cognitive process,while those who emphasize maturation often view development as a social process.
D) a social process,while those who emphasize maturation often view development as a cognitive process.
Q2) Psychologists who view the developmental process as a sequence of distinct stages generally believe that ________ is(are)the same for everyone.
A) both the order and the timing of the stages
B) the order but not the timing of the stages
C) the timing but not the order of the stages
D) neither the order nor the timing of the stages
Q3) What are the three major issues in developmental psychology? Provide an example of each.
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Chapter 14: Hearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specific accomplishments during the preoperational stage of cognitive development are
A) logic and moral reasoning.
B) object permanence and stranger anxiety.
C) pretend play and egocentrism.
D) conservation and mathematical transformations.
Q2) When 1-year-old Andrea tries to talk,her mother talks back;when she smiles,her mother smiles in return.These maternal reactions are most relevant to Andrea's development of
A) a secure attachment.
B) conservation.
C) egocentrism.
D) object permanence.
Q3) If a child realizes that others may have false beliefs,we can probably say that the child is not completely
A) egocentric.
B) accommodated.
C) imprinted.
D) authoritarian.
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Chapter 15: Other Senses
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Q1) Adolescents who have been bullied by their peers are at increased risk of reduced physical health and
A) delayed gratification.
B) postconventional morality.
C) psychological distress.
D) excessive online texting.
Q2) Formal operational thought is MOST necessary for the development of ________ morality.
A) preoperational
B) conventional
C) preconventional
D) postconventional
Q3) Compare and contrast the consequences of early pubertal development for both males and females.
Q4) According to Erikson,________ follows identity development.
A) trust
B) integrity
C) intimacy
D) generativity
Q5) Explain the concept of social identity and provide an example.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Perceptual Organization
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Q1) Professor Polinski suggested that humans pair-bond because this practice encouraged the cooperative nurture and survival of children.The professor's suggestion best illustrates a(n)________ perspective.
A) longitudinal
B) cross-sectional
C) intuitionist
D) evolutionary
Q2) Sedentary older adults randomly assigned to aerobic exercise programs exhibit
A) reduced risk of significant cognitive decline.
B) increased risk of shortened telomeres.
C) reduced risk of neurogenesis.
D) increased risk of upper respiratory flu.
Q3) The observation that the death rate increases when people reach a milestone demonstrates the
A) fear of death.
B) ability to prevent death.
C) effect of telomeres.
D) death-deferral phenomenon.
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Chapter 17: Perceptual Interpretation
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Q1) If you move your watchband up your wrist an inch or so,you will feel it for only a few moments.This best illustrates
A) a perceptual set.
B) priming.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) Weber's law.
Q2) If the just-noticeable difference for a 10-ounce weight is 1 ounce,the just noticeable difference for an 80-ounce weight would be ________ ounces.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 10
Q3) Three steps that are basic to all sensory systems include the ________ of information to the brain.
A) adaptation,context,and set
B) receiving,transforming,and delivering
C) priming,grouping,and masking
D) signal detection,transduction,and sensory adaptation
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Chapter 18: Waking and Sleeping Rhythms
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Q1) Jody's horse looks just as black in the brilliant sunlight as it does in the dim light of the stable.This illustrates what is known as A) interposition.
B) accommodation.
C) brightness constancy.
D) the phi phenomenon.
Q2) The perceptual tendency to group together stimuli that are near each other is called A) interposition.
B) continuity.
C) proximity.
D) closure.
Q3) People who demonstrate blindsight have most likely suffered damage to their A) cornea.
B) lens.
C) fovea.
D) visual cortex.
Q4) Describe the Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory and the opponent-process theory of color vision,and explain the solution to the color vision debate.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Hypnosis
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Q1) Psychics' suggestions that perception can occur apart from sensory input involve claims for the existence of
A) phantom limb sensations.
B) posthypnotic suggestion.
C) synesthesia.
D) ESP.
Q2) In response to a harmful stimulus,________ initiate neural impulses leading to the sensation of pain.
A) endorphins
B) nociceptors
C) olfactory bulbs
D) the semicircular canals
Q3) Tiny bones in the middle ear relay the eardrum's vibrations directly to the A) oval window.
B) auditory canal.
C) vestibular sacs.
D) semicircular canals.
Q4) Explain why both top-down and bottom-up processing are emphasized by those who take a biopsychosocial approach to understanding pain and pain control.
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Chapter 20: Drugs and Consciousness
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Q1) You repeatedly hear a tone just before having a puff of air directed to your eye.Blinking to the tone presented without an air puff is a
A) UR.
B) US.
C) CR.
D) CS.
Q2) Spontaneous recovery refers to the
A) expression of learning that had occurred earlier but had not been expressed because of lack of incentive.
B) organism's tendency to respond spontaneously to stimuli similar to the CS as though they were the CS.
C) repetition of operant behaviors that are rewarded.
D) reappearance,after a pause,of an extinguished conditioned response.
Q3) In Pavlov's experiments on the salivary conditioning of dogs,the CS was A) the taste of food.
B) salivation to the taste of food.
C) the sound of a tone.
D) salivation to the sound of a tone.
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Chapter 21: Classical Conditioning
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Q1) Janna's behavior is more strongly influenced by the momentary thrill of unprotected sex than by the prospect of an unwanted pregnancy or sexually transmitted infection.This best illustrates the impact of
A) classical conditioning.
B) immediate reinforcement.
C) a fixed-interval schedule.
D) spontaneous recovery.
Q2) Dr.Raheja places a rat in a small cage where it learns to press a bar to obtain a food pellet.Obviously,Dr.Raheja is using a(n)________ to study learning.
A) operant chamber
B) variable-ratio schedule
C) Pavlovian maze
D) fixed-ratio schedule
Q3) Pretend that you have a teenage daughter who is slacking on her chores.How could you use both reinforcement and punishment to get her to do her chores? Be sure to describe the use of both positive and negative reinforcers,as well as positive and negative punishment.
Q4) Compare and contrast operant and classical conditioning.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Operant Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neuroscientists have discovered mirror neurons in the A) frontal lobe adjacent to the motor cortex.
B) temporal lobe adjacent to the auditory cortex.
C) parietal lobe adjacent to the sensory cortex.
D) occipital lobe adjacent to the visual cortex.
Q2) Jeremy wears his baseball cap backward because he noticed that his older brother does so.This illustrates the importance of
A) latent learning.
B) immediate reinforcement.
C) modeling.
D) prosocial behavior.
Q3) It is easier to train a dog to bark for food than to train it to stand on its hind legs for food.This best illustrates the importance of ________ in learning.
A) predictability
B) generalization
C) biological predispositions
D) mirror neurons
Q4) Explain how cognitive processes affect operant and classical conditioning.
Q5) Explain how biological constraints affect operant and classical conditioning.
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Chapter 23: Learning by Observation
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Q1) Sherry easily remembers the telephone reservation number for Holiday Inn by using the mnemonic 1-800-HOLIDAY.She is using a memory aid known as A) chunking.
B) the spacing effect.
C) automatic processing.
D) mnemonics.
Q2) The letters Y,M,O,M,R,E are presented.Jill remembers them by rearranging them to spell the word "MEMORY." This provides an illustration of A) chunking.
B) automatic processing.
C) the spacing effect.
D) mnemonics.
Q3) For a fraction of a second after the lightning flash disappeared,Ileana retained a vivid mental image of its ragged edges.Her experience most clearly illustrates the nature of ________ memory.
A) iconic
B) working
C) procedural
D) short-term
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Introduction to Memory
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Q1) A good night's sleep improves recall of the previous day's events by facilitating the transfer of memories from the
A) amygdala to the hippocampus.
B) hippocampus to the cerebral cortex.
C) cerebral cortex to the basal ganglia.
D) basal ganglia to the cerebellum.
Q2) Consciously recalling that Abraham Lincoln was assassinated by John Wilkes Booth best illustrates
A) semantic memory.
B) state-dependent memory.
C) procedural memory.
D) episodic memory.
Q3) Damage to the ________ would most likely interfere with a person's ability to form new memories of a family vacation trip.
A) basal ganglia
B) hippocampus
C) cerebellum
D) amygdala
Q4) Detail how emotions impact memory.Provide some real-life examples.
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Chapter 25: Encoding: Getting Information In
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Q1) Experimental participants viewed symbols on a computer screen without knowing that these symbols had earlier been subliminally flashed on the screen.Based on information provided in the text,it can be expected that half the participants will report experiencing
A) the misinformation effect.
B) anterograde amnesia.
C) déjà vu.
D) the spacing effect.
Q2) Recovered memories of childhood sexual abuse that incorporate errors triggered by a therapist's leading questions best illustrate
A) proactive interference.
B) the misinformation effect.
C) mood-congruent memory.
D) automatic processing.
Q3) Déjà vu refers to the
A) emotional arousal produced by proactive interference.
B) tendency to remember experiences that were actually dreams.
C) unconscious activation of particular associations in memory.
D) eerie sense of having previously experienced a situation or event.
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Chapter 26: Storage: Retaining Information
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Q1) Psychologists who study cognition focus on mental activities associated with all of the following EXCEPT
A) thinking.
B) communicating information.
C) spatial rotation.
D) remembering.
Q2) Prompt feedback regarding your performance on psychology practice tests is most likely to inhibit
A) overconfidence.
B) the framing effect.
C) convergent thinking.
D) intrinsic motivation.
Q3) Expanding the number of possible solutions to a problem illustrates A) the availability heuristic.
B) a mental set.
C) belief perseverance.
D) divergent thinking.
Q4) Thomas is extremely afraid of flying and would rather drive across country to visit his parents than take a commercial flight.Explain why.Give some possible reasons for Thomas' incorrect fear.
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Chapter 27: Retrieval: Getting Information Out
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Q1) When English-speaking Canadian children were taught only in French during their early school years,researchers found that they experienced a(n)
A) confused sense of cultural identity.
B) improvement in intellectual aptitude.
C) slight loss of verbal fluency in English.
D) smaller-than-average improvement in mathematical ability.
Q2) When her teacher mentioned the arms race,Krista understood that the word "arms" referred to weapons and not to body parts.Krista's correct interpretation best illustrates the importance of
A) semantics.
B) syntax.
C) morphemes.
D) phonemes.
Q3) FOXP2 is a ________ that helps enable the lip,tongue,and vocal movements of human speech.
A) gene
B) phoneme
C) critical period
D) region within the left temporal lobe
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Forgetting, Memory Construction, and Applying
Memory Principles to Your Own Education
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Q1) Stacey has been dancing since she was 4 years old and is extremely good at it.In fact,she is so good that she far surpasses other students who have been taking dance classes for the same period of time.Gardner would say that Stacey demonstrates ________ intelligence.
A) linguistic
B) bodily-kinesthetic
C) spatial
D) musical
Q2) Emotional intelligence is a critical component of A) creative intelligence.
B) social intelligence.
C) analytical intelligence.
D) practical intelligence.
Q3) Factor analysis has been used to assess whether
A) intelligence is determined primarily by heredity or by experience.
B) intelligence is a single trait or a collection of distinct abilities.
C) intelligence scores remain stable over the life span.
D) differences in intellectual ability exist between groups of individuals.
Q4) Describe the four abilities that constitute emotional intelligence,and give an example of each.
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Chapter 29: Thinking
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Q1) The WAIS yields an overall intelligence score,as well as separate scores for more specific abilities such as
A) reasoning aptitude.
B) creative thinking.
C) working memory.
D) vocational fitness.
Q2) Binet's recommendation of "mental orthopedics" highlighted the potential role of ________ in intellectual ability.Terman's sympathy with "eugenics" highlighted the potential role of ________ in intellectual ability.
A) brain size;neural processing speed
B) biological inheritance;educational training
C) nature;nurture
D) educational training;biological inheritance
Q3) Achievement tests are designed to
A) measure the desire and potential capacity to successfully meet challenges.
B) assess ability to produce novel and valuable ideas.
C) compare an individual's personality with those of highly successful people.
D) assess learned knowledge or skills.
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Chapter 30: Language and Thought
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Q1) Dr.Dawson is conducting a study with military veterans from the Vietnam and Gulf Wars.He plans to evaluate them every year for 10 years to see if those with PTSD have a more pronounced decline in mental abilities and overall memory.This is a(n)________ study.
A) longitudinal
B) experimental
C) cross-sectional
D) chronological
Q2) Cross-sectional research indicated that during early and middle adulthood,aging is associated with ________ levels of intelligence.Longitudinal research indicated that during this period of life,aging is associated with ________ levels of intelligence.
A) increasing;declining
B) declining;stable
C) increasing;increasing
D) stable;declining
Q3) Imagine that you are a scientist who is examining how intelligence changes with age.Design both a cross-sectional and a longitudinal study to examine how intelligence changes from young to middle to late adulthood.What results would you expect from each type of study?
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Introduction to Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research suggests that girls are more skilled than boys at A) avoiding emotional uncertainty.
B) preventing emotions from distorting reasoning.
C) detecting other people's emotions.
D) delaying emotional gratification in pursuit of long-term goals.
Q2) J.McVicker Hunt began a training program for the caregivers in an Iranian orphanage.This program trained caregivers to A) ignore babies' crying.
B) imitate babies' babbling.
C) calculate babies' intelligence quotients.
D) do all of these things.
Q3) Blacks have been found to score lower on tests of verbal aptitude when tested by Whites than when tested by Blacks.This best illustrates the impact of A) polygenetics.
B) predictive validity.
C) stereotype threat.
D) the growth mindset.
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Chapter 32: Assessing Intelligence
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Q1) The arousal theory of motivation would be most helpful for explaining why
A) recreational skydivers jump out of airplanes.
B) hungry fishermen venture across dangerous ocean waters.
C) starving prisoners are preoccupied with thoughts of food.
D) sexually active teens learn to practice effective birth control.
Q2) After working all afternoon cleaning up the attic,Mr.Dixon is very thirsty and drinks a big glass of orange juice.His motivation to drink in order to reduce his feeling of thirst can best be explained by
A) the Yerkes-Dodson law.
B) drive-reduction theory.
C) incentive theories.
D) arousal theory.
Q3) Which of the following is most clearly NOT an example of an incentive?
A) social disapproval
B) a pornographic movie
C) a low blood glucose level
D) the smell of rotten eggs
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Chapter 33: Genetic and Environmental Influences on Intelligence
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Q1) Basal metabolic rate is the body's resting rate of A) drive reduction.
B) insulin secretion.
C) energy expenditure.
D) homeostasis.
Q2) Tomas is very hungry after working out at the gym.His motivation to eat is being regulated by several areas of the A) hypothalamus.
B) medulla.
C) amygdala.
D) hippocampus.
Q3) A dieter whose weight falls below his or her set point is likely to experience a(n)
A) increase in hunger and an increase in metabolic rate.
B) increase in hunger and a decrease in metabolic rate.
C) decrease in hunger and a decrease in metabolic rate.
D) decrease in hunger and an increase in metabolic rate.
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Chapter 34: Introduction to Motivation
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Q1) In studies that followed hundreds of New Zealand and U.S.girls from age 5 to 18,________ was linked to sexual activity before age 16.
A) erotic plasticity
B) a homosexual orientation
C) a father's absence
D) gender typing
Q2) Mass media scenarios that shape our expectations about how to develop a sexual relationship are
A) paraphilias.
B) social scripts.
C) sexual response cycles.
D) secondary sex characteristics.
Q3) Sex hormone levels experienced by the fetus during the second trimester are most likely to influence a male's sexual orientation in later life because of their impact on
A) the X chromosome
B) the Y chromosome.
C) brain development.
D) sexually transmitted infections.
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Chapter 35: Hunger
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Q1) Alison's classmates make a point of ignoring her and they purposely exclude her from participation in any of their after-school social events.Their treatment of Alison most clearly illustrates
A) ostracism.
B) narcissism.
C) autonomy needs.
D) chain migration.
Q2) Carissa wants to gain control over her social media habits because her grades have recently dropped.Which of the following suggestions is NOT a reasonable,sustainable way of reducing her social media usage?
A) She should access her social media accounts only on weekends and holidays.
B) When studying,she should check her phone only once per hour.
C) She should keep a log of her time and decide if it reflects her grade priorities.
D) She should develop a time-controlled social media diet that she knows she can keep.
Q3) Discuss the benefits and problems associated with social networking.Include in your discussion;increased social isolation,self-disclosure,improved relationships,narcissism,and maintaining balance and focus in our lives.
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Chapter 36: Sexual Motivation and the Need to Belong
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Sample Questions
Q1) Left prefrontal cortex activation is to right prefrontal cortex activation as ________ is to ________.
A) fear;anger
B) delight;disgust
C) anger;fear
D) disgust;delight
Q2) The Concealed Information Test is typically used to
A) evaluate a criminal's mental health.
B) assess a suspect's responses to details of a crime.
C) screen potential employees for possible past misdeeds.
D) determine the frequency with which an individual lies.
Q3) Evidence that neck-level spinal cord injuries reduce the intensity with which people experience certain emotions most directly refutes the
A) James-Lange theory.
B) Schachter-Singer theory.
C) two-factor theory.
D) Cannon-Bard theory.
Q4) Describe how polygraphs are intended to measure lying,and discuss their accuracy.
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Chapter 37: Motivation at Work
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Q1) If people wrinkle their noses in disgust when presented with a strange-looking food,they are likely to experience an increasingly intense emotional aversion to the food.This best illustrates
A) egocentrism.
B) nonverbal communication.
C) a genetic predisposition.
D) the facial feedback effect.
Q2) Botox paralysis of the frowning facial muscles ________ people's reading of sadness-related sentences and ________ activity in emotion-related brain circuits.
A) speeds;speeds
B) slows;slows
C) slows;speeds
D) speeds;slows
Q3) Compared with men,women would probably be better at A) detecting the emotions of two people having a discussion over lunch.
B) controlling their physiological responses to a person who is lying.
C) exhibiting a natural expression of anger.
D) avoiding the facial feedback effect.
Q4) Describe the female advantage regarding nonverbal communication.
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Chapter 38: Introduction to Emotion
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Q1) When Mrs.Van Dyke first acquired a new luxury car,she was ecstatic.After several months,however,she took the car for granted and it gave her little sense of emotional excitement.This change in her feelings can best be explained in terms of
A) the adaptation-level phenomenon.
B) relative deprivation.
C) the catharsis hypothesis.
D) the do-good,feel-good phenomenon.
Q2) After watching a video of his winning game shot in a high school basketball tournament,Jordan was easily persuaded to babysit his little sister while his parents go out for dinner.This best illustrates
A) the adaptation-level phenomenon.
B) the feel-good,do-good phenomenon.
C) the relative deprivation principle.
D) subjective well-being.
Q3) Ruminating inwardly about why you are angry is likely to
A) reduce your level of physical arousal.
B) increase bloodflow in the amygdala.
C) reduce your feelings of anger.
D) increase your level of subjective well-being.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Experienced Emotion
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Q1) The fight-or-flight response is to ________ as the general adaptation syndrome is to ________.
A) Cannon;Friedman
B) Friedman;Selye
C) Selye;Cannon
D) Cannon;Selye
Q2) During which phase of the general adaptation syndrome are organisms best able to physically cope with stress?
A) resistance
B) appraisal
C) adjustment
D) resolution
Q3) The subfield of psychology that provides psychology's contribution to the prevention and treatment of illness is known as
A) medical psychology.
B) health psychology.
C) behavioral psychology.
D) psychobiology.
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Chapter 40: Expressed Emotion
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Q1) Naomi was able to alleviate some of the stress associated with her recent job loss by confiding the details of her painful experience to trusted friends.This best illustrates the stress-relieving value of
A) the Innovation Time Off program.
B) mindfulness meditation.
C) self-disclosing.
D) biofeedback.
Q2) If we expect that our efforts will lead to good things,we are demonstrating A) an external locus of control.
B) emotion-focused coping.
C) the faith factor.
D) optimism.
Q3) One genetic marker of an optimistic personality style is a gene that enhances levels of the hormone A) norepinephrine.
B) oxytocin.
C) serotonin.
D) insulin.
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Chapter 41: Stress and Illness
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Q1) Fernando's favorable attitude toward capital punishment began to change when he was asked to offer arguments opposing it in a university debate class.His attitude change is best explained by ________ theory.
A) cognitive dissonance
B) role-playing
C) attribution
D) attitude
Q2) Emma is a college freshman in the United States.She is very unhappy with her last psychology exam score.Which of the following attributions is she most likely to use?
A) "I am just not working hard enough."
B) "I am not a responsible student."
C) "The exam was unfair because the questions were tricky."
D) "I spend too much time on Facebook and Instagram."
Q3) To analyze how people explain others' behavior,Fritz Heider developed
A) cognitive dissonance theory.
B) role-playing theory.
C) attribution theory.
D) attitude theory.
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43
Chapter 42: Coping With Stress
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Q1) Margo is vegan and is an advocate for animal rights.She is very active online in chat rooms for vegans,in online support groups,and even with social media friends.The more she associates with likeminded people online the stronger her views become.This illustrates
A) group polarization.
B) social contagion.
C) conformity.
D) obedience.
Q2) After hearing respected medical authorities lecture about the value of regular exercise,Raul,who has rarely exercised,begins to jog regularly.The change in Raul's behavior best illustrates the impact of
A) normative social influence.
B) cognitive dissonance.
C) social facilitation.
D) informational social influence.
Q3) Our tendency to give in to group pressure or pressure from situations is called A) social control.
B) social facilitation.
C) informational social influence.
D) personal control.
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Chapter 43: Modifying Illness-Related Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) New Zealanders of Chinese descent and European descent were asked to quickly classify faces with blended Chinese and Caucasian physical features.Compared with observers of Chinese descent,observers of European descent more readily classified ambiguous faces as
A) Caucasian.
B) Chinese.
C) Australian.
D) American.
Q2) A news commentator says,"The doctor deserved to become infected with the Ebola virus because he chose to help those infected people in Africa." This attitude illustrates A) the just-world phenomenon.
B) social scripts.
C) scapegoat theory.
D) the frustration-aggression principle.
Q3) Prejudice is a mixture of all of the following EXCEPT
A) beliefs.
B) emotions.
C) social scripts.
D) predispositions to actions.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Psychoanalytic Perspective
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Questions
Q1) After a year-long drought,the city of Pine Bluffs has banned all lawn sprinkling.Many residents believe,however,that continued watering of their own lawn will have little effect on total water reserves.Consequently,there is a disastrous drain on city water reserves caused by widespread illegal sprinkling.This incident best illustrates the dynamics of A) a reciprocity norm.
B) social traps.
C) the bystander effect.
D) diffusion of responsibility
Q2) When shopping for a new cell phone,many shoppers prefer certain products simply because they have familiar brand names.This preference best illustrates the importance of
A) social traps.
B) the mere exposure effect.
C) mirror-image perceptions.
D) the reciprocity norm.
Q3) Jacob just met Aubrey and thinks she is very pretty.Based on what you have learned about the psychology of attraction,explain what could lead to Aubrey reciprocating Jacob's feelings toward her?
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Chapter 45: Humanistic Perspective
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Q1) Julie reported that she had a dream in which she was chased by a large dog.According to Freud,Julie's account represents the ________ content of her dream.
A) latent B) repressed
C) manifest
D) psychosexual
Q2) The concept of personality most clearly embodies the notion of A) moral integrity.
B) self-consciousness.
C) behavioral consistency.
D) free association.
Q3) According to psychoanalytic theory,boys' fear of castration is most closely associated with A) an oral fixation.
B) free association.
C) the reality principle.
D) the Oedipus complex.
Q4) Outline Freud's proposed stages of psychosexual development.
Q5) Compare and contrast the modern view of the unconscious mind with that of Freud.
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Chapter 46: Contemporary Research on Personality
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Q1) Critics have most frequently objected to the emphasis on individualism offered by the
A) trait perspective.
B) humanistic perspective.
C) psychodynamic perspective.
D) social-cognitive perspective.
Q2) According to Carl Rogers,people nurture our growth by being genuine,accepting,and
A) conscientious.
B) consistent.
C) extraverted.
D) empathic.
Q3) Lamont has frequently been rebellious,inconsiderate,and self-centered,yet the pastor of his local church has always accepted and respected him.The pastor's attitude toward Lamont is most explicitly recommended by
A) Hans and Sybil Eysenck.
B) Carl Rogers.
C) Isabel Briggs Myers.
D) Walter Mischel.
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Chapter 47: Introduction to Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Janet attributes her good grade on a difficult algebra test to her high level of mathematical skills.This most clearly indicates that she experiences a high level of A) self-efficacy.
B) narcissism.
C) reciprocal determinism.
D) unconditional positive regard.
Q2) In every one of the 53 countries surveyed,people typically expressed self-esteem above the midpoint of the most widely used self-esteem scale.This best illustrates the pervasiveness of
A) extraversion.
B) the spotlight effect.
C) self-serving bias.
D) unconditional positive regard.
Q3) Which personality theories have most clearly been developed through psychological research on learning and cognition?
A) trait theories
B) humanistic theories
C) psychodynamic theories
D) social-cognitive theories
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The symptoms of ________ are likely to appear at an earlier age than the symptoms of ________.
A) antisocial personality disorder;schizophrenia
B) major depressive disorder;bipolar disorder
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder;phobias
D) major depression;alcohol use disorder
Q2) Professor McIntosh emphasizes that depression often involves the interactive influences of self-focused rumination,rejection from others,and low serotonin levels.The professor's emphasis best illustrates
A) the medical model.
B) the learning perspective.
C) genetic influences.
D) a biopsychosocial approach.
Q3) If research indicated that phobias result from a chemical imbalance in the central nervous system,this would most clearly give added credibility to A) epigenetics.
B) the medical model.
C) the social-cognitive approach.
D) the DSM-5.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Dissociative and Personality Disorders
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Q1) Malik has an irrational fear of dogs.He refuses to visit friends with dogs or watch television programs with dogs,and he takes a very specific route when running in order to avoid dogs.Malik suffers from A) posttraumatic stress disorder.
B) a specific phobia.
C) social anxiety disorder.
D) agoraphobia.
Q2) Bob,who has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder,is at increased for developing
A) high blood pressure.
B) insomnia.
C) high cholesterol.
D) diabetes.
Q3) Which of the following are disorders that involve anxiety but are NOT classified as anxiety disorders?
A) OCD and PTSD
B) GAD and Panic disorder
C) GAD and PTSD
D) Phobias and Panic disorder
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Mood Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following disorders often accompanies depression?
A) anxiety
B) substance use
C) both anxiety and substance use
D) neither anxiety nor substance use
Q2) Which of the following is true of bipolar disorder?
A) More men than women are diagnosed with the disorder.
B) More women than men are diagnosed with the disorder.
C) Men and women have the disorder equally.
D) Men are diagnosed with the disorder more than women,but only in middle adulthood.
Q3) People who suffer chronic depression are at high risk for experiencing
A) unrealistic optimism.
B) reduced self-awareness.
C) excessive levels of norepinephrine.
D) social rejection.
Q4) A guest on a TV talk show claims that "major depressive disorder is not a psychological problem;it's a disease that can be medically treated." Evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of this claim.
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Chapter 51: Schizophrenia
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Q1) Shortly after she was in a serious automobile accident in which her 2-year-old daughter was killed,Amalie began to exhibit positive symptoms of schizophrenia.Fortunately,she is responding to medication.Amalie's case illustrates ________ schizophrenia.
A) chronic
B) catatonic
C) acute
D) process
Q2) Billy,who has schizophrenia,experiences auditory hallucinations.Based on research using PET scans,which brain structure is active when Billy experiences these hallucinations?
A) thalamus
B) amygdala
C) hippocampus
D) frontal lobe
Q3) Terrance is receiving treatment for schizophrenia.Discuss some of the causes proposed to explain his development of the disorder.
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Chapter 52: The Psychological Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Taylor has no memory of the abuse she experienced as a child.During a session with her clinical psychologist,she suddenly began talking in a deeper voice,claiming to be Adam,a male personality,who remembered all of the abuse.Taylor is demonstrating the symptoms of
A) anorexia nervosa.
B) dissociative identity disorder.
C) bulimia nervosa.
D) narcissistic personality disorder.
Q2) Those who engage in spurts of excessive overeating,followed by remorse-but do not binge,purge,or fast-are said to have
A) binge-eating disorder.
B) anorexia nervosa.
C) bulimia nervosa.
D) a personality disorder.
Q3) The terms psychopath and sociopath refer to an individual with A) borderline personality disorder.
B) schizotypal personality disorder.
C) dissociative identity disorder.
D) antisocial personality disorder.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Evaluating Psychotherapies
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Q1) In one study,people were taught to attribute their compulsive urges to abnormal brain functioning.Instead of giving in to an urge,they participated in an alternative activity that engaged other parts of the brain.This strategy for dealing with their difficulty best illustrates
A) systematic desensitization.
B) cognitive-behavioral therapy.
C) biomedical therapy.
D) psychodynamic therapy.
Q2) Which form of therapy is most likely to be described as expensive and time-consuming?
A) systematic desensitization
B) client-centered therapy
C) psychoanalysis
D) cognitive therapy
Q3) Describe how a therapist might use both aversive conditioning and operant conditioning techniques to help a client overcome a compulsive habit of smoking more than three packs of cigarettes a day.Be clear about the exact procedures that would be used.
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Chapter 54: The Biomedical Therapies
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Q1) Jade suffers from depression.Which therapy or therapies would NOT be effective in treating her depression?
A) cognitive and cognitive-behavioral therapies
B) behavioral conditioning therapies
C) psychodynamic therapy
D) client-centered therapy
Q2) Light exposure therapy was developed to relieve symptoms of A) anxiety.
B) eating disorders.
C) depression.
D) alcohol use disorder.
Q3) In reading a survey measuring his clients' satisfaction with his services,Dr.Jamison accepted many of their positive comments but bypassed most of the negative comments and assumed these negative comments were due to client issues.Dr.Jamison concluded that he is a very effective therapist.Dr.Jamison may be influenced by A) the therapeutic alliance.
B) the confirmation bias.
C) resilience.
D) transference.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Social Thinking
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Q1) Juan's depression has not responded to medication.His psychiatrist is recommending a new treatment for major depressive disorder,called ________,which involves stimulation of certain regions of the brain with magnetic pulses of various frequencies.
A) lobotomy
B) rTMS
C) electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
D) deep-brain stimulation
Q2) Patients receive a general anesthetic and muscle relaxant prior to treatment with A) rTMS.
B) antipsychotic drugs.
C) SSRIs.
D) ECT.
Q3) SSRIs work by
A) speeding recovery from delusions and hallucinations.
B) slowing the normal reabsorption of excess serotonin from synapses.
C) successfully leveling the emotional highs and lows of bipolar disorder.
D) stimulating the release of norepinephrine into the bloodstream.
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Chapter 56: Appendix
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Questions
Q1) Mr.Walters has many years of experience as a personnel officer for a large corporation.He does not review most job applicants' reference files because he is confident of his ability to predict their future work performance based on his direct face-to-face conversations with them.Mr.Walters' confidence best illustrates
A) 360-degree feedback.
B) the experience of flow.
C) transformational leadership.
D) the interviewer illusion.
Q2) Research has found that ________ actually enhances performance.
A) extrinsic motivation
B) intrinsic motivation
C) monetary rewards
D) satisfaction with income
Q3) A completely focused state of consciousness resulting from optimal engagement of one's skills is called
A) charisma.
B) 360-degree feedback.
C) transformational leadership.
D) flow.
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Page 58