Principles of Positioning in Radiography Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Principles of Positioning in Radiography introduces students to the fundamental concepts and techniques required for accurate patient positioning during radiographic examinations. The course covers anatomical landmarks, body planes, and proper alignment methods to ensure high-quality diagnostic images while minimizing patient discomfort and radiation exposure. Emphasis is placed on the importance of positioning for various body regions, adapting techniques for patient condition and mobility, and adherence to safety and ethical standards in clinical practice. Through a combination of theory and practical training, students gain the foundational skills necessary to perform standard radiographic procedures with precision and professionalism.
Recommended Textbook
Radiographic Positioning and Related Anatomy 8th Edition by Kenneth L. Bontrager
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2
Chapter 1: Terminology, Positioning, and Imaging Principles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pelvis
A)One projection
B)Two projections
C)Three projections
Answer: A
Q2) Foot
A)One projection
B)Two projections
C)Three projections
Answer: C
Q3) Thermoluminescent and optically stimulated luminescence dosimeters must be changed every 14 days to ensure an accurate recording of exposure to the technologist.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Radiographic view is NOT a valid positioning term in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scoliosis and kyphosis may produce asymmetry of the sternoclavicular joints and rib cage as demonstrated on a PA chest radiograph.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Inflammation of pleura (possible air/fluid levels)
A)Tuberculosis
B)Emphysema
C)Pneumothorax
D)Hemoptysis
E)COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
F)Pneumonia
G)Atelectasis
H)Pleurisy
I)Malignant lung cancer
J)Pulmonary edema
Answer: H
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following kV ranges is recommended for a KUB on an adult?
A) 50 to 60
B) 70 to 80
C) 90 to 100
D) 110 to 120
Answer: B
Q2) Motion of the patient's diaphragm can be stopped by providing proper breathing instructions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The Pigg-O-Stat is recommended for erect abdomen projections on young pediatric patients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The most common type of involuntary motion in the abdomen is peristalsis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bony structures is found on the distal aspect of the ulna?
A) Coronoid process
B) Head
C) Olecranon process
D) All of the above
Q2) With the radial head projections,what is the only difference between the four projections?
A) The position of the hand and/or wrist
B) The CR angulation
C) The amount of flexion of the elbow
D) The SID used for each projection
Q3) Which of the following projections of the wrist will best demonstrate the wrist joint and intercarpal spaces if the patient can assume this position?
A) AP
B) PA
C) Gaynor-Hart
D) 30° PA oblique
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Chapter 5: Humerus and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a Grashey method projection of the shoulder,the CR is centered to the acromion.
A)True B)False
Q2) PA transaxillary (Hobbs modification)requires a 5° to 15° CR cephalic angle.
A)True B)False
Q3) How much posterior CR angulation is required for the supine version of the tangential projection for the intertubercular (bicipital)groove?
A) 20° to 30°
B) 30° to 40°
C) 10° to 15°
D) No angle is used for this projection.
Q4) The use of a grid during shoulder radiography will result in higher patient dose over nongrid procedures.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lateral knee radiograph that is overrotated toward the image receptor can be recognized by which of the following?
A) The fibular head will appear more superimposed by the tibia than a true lateral.
B) The fibular head will appear less superimposed by the tibia than a true lateral.
C) The medial condyle of femur will appear more posterior.
D) Both A and C are correct.
Q2) Where would the interphalangeal joint be found in the foot?
A) Between the phalanges of the second through fifth digits
B) Between the tarsal bones and phalanges
C) Between the phalanges of the first digit
D) Between any of the metatarsals and phalanges
Q3) Which position of the foot will best demonstrate the lateral (third)cuneiform?
A) AP oblique with medial rotation
B) AP oblique with lateral rotation
C) AP projection
D) Mediolateral projection
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8
Chapter 7: Femur and Pelvic Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient enters the ER with a possible separation of the symphysis pubis caused by trauma.The AP pelvis projection is inconclusive for determining the extent of the injury.What other projection can be taken to evaluate this region without excessive movement of the patient?
A) Posterior oblique (Judet) projection
B) AP axial "inlet" projection
C) Axiolateral (inferosuperior) projection
D) AP axial (Taylor) outlet projection
Q2) Which of the following conditions will produce the radiographic sign referred to as "bamboo spine"?
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Metastatic carcinoma
D) Ankylosing spondylitis
Q3) Generally,gonadal shielding for females cannot be used for an initial AP pelvis for pelvic trauma due to the possibility of covering pertinent anatomy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Cervical and Thoracic Spine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another term for a breathing technique during exposure is the orthostatic technique.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient comes to radiology for a thoracic spine routine.The patient has a history of arthritis of the spine.The radiologist requests that additional projections be taken to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints.What positions and/or projections would be ideal to demonstrate these structures?
A) Pillar view projection of interest region
B) Swimmer's lateral projection
C) Spot AP and lateral projections of interest region
D) 70° oblique projections
Q3) Kyphosis is defined as a(n):
A) normal lumbar curvature.
B) normal convex sacral curvature.
C) normal compensatory curve of thoracic spine.
D) abnormal thoracic curvature with increased convexity.
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10
Chapter 9: Lumbar Spine, Sacrum, and Coccyx
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Sample Questions
Q1) The AP and lateral projections for a pediatric scoliosis study should include the entire lumbar and thoracic spine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What CR angle should be used for a lateral sacrum/coccyx projection?
A) 15° cephalad
B) 30° cephalad
C) None. CR is perpendicular to the image receptor.
D) 10° cephalad
Q3) A female is more likely to suffer a fracture of the coccyx due to a backward,sitting type of fall than a male.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which one of the following structures of the sacrum is considered to be the most posterior?
A) Median sacral crest
B) Promontory
C) Superior articular processes
D) Spinous processes
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Chapter 10: Bony Thorax-Sternum and Ribs
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much rotation and which oblique position are required to best demonstrate the left sternoclavicular joints?
A) 10° to 15° LAO
B) 35° to 45° LAO
C) 10° to 15° RAO
D) 5° to 10° RAO
Q2) What is the joint classification and type of movement for the costotransverse joint?
A) Cartilaginous with diarthrodial (ginglymus) movement
B) Synovial with diarthrodial (plane) movement
C) Synovial with amphiarthrodial, limited movement
D) Cartilaginous with synarthrodial or no movement
Q3) The tubercle portion of a typical rib connects the anterior end of the rib to the sternum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The use of 125 kV is recommended for AP and PA projections of the ribs to reduce skin dose.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Cranium, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following imaging modalities should NOT be used to rule out a possible metal foreign body in the eye?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Nuclear medicine
D) Radiography
Q2) Which of the following modalities best demonstrates early signs of Paget's disease of the skull?
A) CT
B) Nuclear medicine
C) MRI
D) Sonography
Q3) Where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the facial bones?
A) Outer canthus
B) Acanthion
C) Midway between the glabella and the EAM
D) Zygoma, midway between the EAM and the outer canthus
Q4) Optic foramen studies are routinely taken as bilateral projections.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Biliary Tract and Upper Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following devices reduces scatter exposure during fluoroscopy from the fluoroscopy tube?
A) Compression paddle
B) Bucky tray
C) Bucky slot cover
D) Lead gloves
Q2) The RAO position of the esophagus is preferred over the left anterior oblique (LAO)because it:
A) is a more comfortable position for the patient.
B) increases the visibility of the esophagus between the vertebrae and heart.
C) reduces thyroid exposure to the patient.
D) is easier for the patient to hold the cup of barium in his or her left hand.
Q3) Which of the imaging modalities or procedures is most effective and preferred in diagnosing HPS?
A) Nuclear medicine
B) CT
C) Upper GI series
D) Ultrasound
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14
Chapter 13: Lower Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) CT may be performed to diagnose acute appendicitis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which part of the small intestine has a feathery appearance when filled with barium?
A) Ileum
B) Jejunum
C) Cecum
D) Duodenum
Q3) Computed tomography colonography (CTC)is considered as an effective alternative to endoscopic colonoscopy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient comes to radiology with a history of rectocele.Which of the following procedures best demonstrates this condition?
A) Single-contrast barium enema
B) Evacuative proctogram
C) Double-contrast barium enema
D) Enteroclysis
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Chapter 14: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal kidney that fails to ascend into the abdomen,but rather,remains in the pelvis
A)Horseshoe kidney
B)Ectopic kidney
C)Vesicocolonic fistula
D)Staghorn kidney stone
E)Urinary incontinence
F)BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia)
Q2) Which of the following veins is not normally used during venipuncture?
A) Median cubital
B) Axillary
C) Cephalic
D) Basilic
Q3) Blood in the urine
A)Anuria
B)Oliguria or hypouresis
C)Polyuria
D)Hematuria
E)Renal agenesis
F)Micturition
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Chapter 15: Trauma, Mobile, and Surgical Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The retrograde pyelogram is intended to demonstrate the collecting structures of the kidney only.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which device is commonly used during a hip pinning to reduce a fracture of the proximal femur?
A) Ilizarov device
B) Intramedullary nail
C) Cannulated screw assembly
D) Kirschner wire
Q3) What CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the clavicle on an asthenic patient?
A) 10° cephalad
B) 15° caudal
C) 20° cephalad
D) 40° cephalad
Q4) Retrograde urography is classified as a nonfunctioning study of the urinary system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Pediatric Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pathologic indications requires a significant decrease (up to 50%)of manual exposure factors?
A) Osteomalacia (rickets)
B) Osteogenesis imperfect
C) Talipes equinus
D) Osteochondrosis
Q2) What is a common clinical indication for a pediatric VCUG?
A) Vesicoureteral reflux
B) Urinary bladder calculi
C) Renal calculi
D) Anuria
Q3) A congenital condition of the large intestine in which nerves controlling rhythmic contractions are missing
A)Köhler bone disease
B)Spinal bifida occulta
C)Necrotizing enterocolitis
D)Hirschsprung disease
E)Osgood-Schlatter disease
F)Atresia (or clausura)
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Angiography and Interventional Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term describes a variation of the aorta in which the descending aorta is arched to the right?
A) Hyperarched aorta
B) Inverse aorta
C) Pseudocoarctation
D) Situs inversus
Q2) Lymphography is considered an obsolete radiographic procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The hepatic portal vein carries blood from the abdominal digestive track to the:
A) inferior vena cava.
B) spleen.
C) kidneys.
D) liver.
Q4) The contrast medium of choice for angiography is:
A) ionic iodinated.
B) tri-iodinated.
C) nonionic water-soluble iodinated.
D) oil-based iodinated.
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Chapter 18: Computed Tomography
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what vertebral level is the tapered,terminal part of the spinal cord found?
A) Lower border of T10
B) L4-5 joint space
C) Lower border of L1
D) S1-2
Q2) The two divisions of the central nervous system include the brain and:
A) meninges.
B) spinal cord.
C) spinal nerves.
D) neurons.
Q3) Another term for the insula is the central lobe.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The capability to create accurate reconstruction of patient data into alternative planes (coronal,sagittal,three-dimensional)is termed:
A) multiple image reconstruction.
B) maximum intensity projection.
C) algorithmic reconstruction.
D) multiplanar reconstruction.
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Chapter 19: Special Radiographic Procedures
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a valid radiographic criterion for hysterosalpingography?
A) Cannula or balloon catheter should be seen within the cervix.
B) Ovaries should be opacified and well demonstrated.
C) Contrast medium should be seen within the peritoneum.
D) The pelvic ring should be centered within the collimation field.
Q2) What size needle is used to introduce the contrast media during a shoulder arthrogram?
A) 2 inches, 16 gauge
B) 1 1/2 inches, 18 gauge
C) 2 inches, 25 gauge
D) 2 3/4- to 3 1/2-inch spinal needle
Q3) What is the most common injection site for a myelogram?
A) C1-2
B) T12
C) L4-5
D) L3-4
Q4) The technologist must follow standard precautions when handling bile.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Diagnostic and Therapeutic Modalities
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Q1) Regions of metastatic disease in the body have a(n)____ uptake of 18F-FDG.
A) increased
B) decreased
Q2) Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to the signal strength emitted from the tissues?
A) Spin density
B) T1 relaxation time
C) T2 relaxation time
D) Atomic number
Q3) Breathing must be suspended for projections of the breast.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All tissues within the same strength magnetic field respond at the same relaxation rates.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The quantity of hydrogen protons within structures being imaged by MRI has no effect on MRI contrast.
A)True
B)False
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