Principles of Physics Practice Exam - 2135 Verified Questions by Quizplus

Chapter 5: Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion

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Q1) What is the average velocity of the vehicle during one revolution?

A)8.0 m/s

B)12 m/s

C)26 m/s

D)44 m/s

E)zero m/s

Q2) What is the minimum acceleration that the car must have at the top of the track if it is to remain in contact with the track?

A)4.9 m/s2, downward

B)4.9 m/s2, upward

C)9.8 m/s2, downward

D)9.8 m/s2, upward

E)19.6 m/s2, upward

Q3) Which statement is true concerning this vehicle?

A)The velocity of the vehicle is changing.

B)The vehicle is characterized by constant velocity.

C)The vehicle is characterized by constant acceleration.

D)The vehicle has a velocity vector that points along the radius of the circle.

E)The vehicle has an acceleration vector that is tangent to the circle at all times.

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Work and Energy

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Q1) A motorist driving a 1000-kg car wishes to increase her speed from 20 m/s to 30 m/s in 5 s. Determine the horsepower required to accomplish this increase. Neglect friction.

A)20 hp

B)30 hp

C)70 hp

D)80 hp

E)90 hp

Q2) What is the coefficient of kinetic friction, \(\mu\)k, of the surface from A to B?

A)0.11

B)0.26

C)0.33

D)0.47

E)0.52

Q3) Which one of the following choices is an example of a non-conservative force?

A)gravitational force

B)electrical force

C)kinetic frictional force

D)elastic spring force

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Impulse and Momentum

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Q1) A 0.2-kg steel ball is dropped straight down onto a hard, horizontal floor and bounces straight up. The ball's speed just before and just after impact with the floor is 10 m/s.

Determine the magnitude of the impulse delivered to the floor by the steel ball.

A)zero N . s

B)2 N . s

C)4 N . s

D)20 N . s

E)200 N . s

Q2) What, approximately, is the speed of the block at t = 11 seconds?

A)5.0 m/s

B)16 m/s

C)25 m/s

D)65 m/s

E)75 m/s

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Chapter 8: Rotational Kinematics

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Q1) What is the instantaneous tangential speed of the passengers 15 s after the acceleration begins?

A)0.067 m/s

B)0.50 m/s

C)1.4 m/s

D)7.5 m/s

E)11 m/s

Q2) A grindstone, initially at rest, is given a constant angular acceleration so that it makes 20.0 rev in the first 8.00 s. What is its angular acceleration?

A)0.313 rad/s2

B)0.625 rad/s2

C)2.50 rad/s2

D)1.97 rad/s2

E)3.93 rad/s2

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Chapter 9: Rotational Dynamics

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Q1) A certain merry-go-round is accelerated uniformly from rest and attains an angular speed of 1.2 rad/s in the first 18 seconds. If the net applied torque is 1200 N . m, what is the moment of inertia of the merry-go-round?

A)1400 kg . m2

B)18 000 kg . m2

C)9000 kg . m2

D)500 kg . m2

E)This cannot be determined since the radius is not specified.

Q2) A 60.0-kg skater begins a spin with an angular speed of 6.0 rad/s. By changing the position of her arms, the skater decreases her moment of inertia to one-half its initial value. What is the skater's final angular speed?

A)3.0 rad/s

B)4.5 rad/s

C)9.0 rad/s

D)12 rad/s

E)18 rad/s

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Chapter 10: Simple Harmonic Motion and Elasticity

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Q1) Which one of the following terms is used to describe a system in which the degree of damping is just enough to stop the system from oscillating?

A)critically damped

B)underdamped

C)slightly damped D)overdamped E)resonance

Q2) What is the stress on the wire?

A)5.0 × 102 N/m2

B)1.0 × 106 N/m2

C)1.0 × 108 N/m2

D)5.0 × 106 N/m2

E)5.0 × 108 N/m2

Q3) How much potential energy is stored in the spring in Figure B?

A)0.245 J

B)0.490 J

C)4.90 J

D)9.80 J

E)zero J

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Fluids

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Q1) One of the largest barometers ever built was an oil-filled barometer constructed in Leicester, England in 1991. The oil had a height of 12.2 m. Assuming a pressure of 1.013 × 105 Pa, what was the density of the oil used in the barometer?

A)798 kg/m3

B)847 kg/m3

C)981 kg/m3

D)1150 kg/m3

E)1210 kg/m3

Q2) What is the total pressure at point C?

A)1.01 × 105 Pa

B)3.26 × 105 Pa

C)3.66 × 105 Pa

D)6.44 × 105 Pa

E)7.45 × 105 Pa

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Chapter 12: Temperature and Heat

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Q1) An aluminum tank of volume 0.0300 m3 is filled to the top with mercury at 20.0 °C. The tank is placed inside a chamber with an interior temperature of 70.0 °C. The coefficient of volume expansion for mercury is 1.82 × 10-4/C°; and the coefficient of linear expansion of aluminum is 23.0 × 10-6/C°. After the tank and its contents reach thermal equilibrium with the interior of the chamber, how much mercury has spilled?

A)2.52 × 10-5 m3

B)6.60 × 10-5 m3

C)1.69 × 10-4 m3

D)1.92 × 10-4 m3

E)2.00 × 10-4 m3

Q2) Complete the following statement: The term heat most accurately describes

A)the internal energy of an object.

B)a measure of how hot an object is.

C)the absolute temperature of an object.

D)the molecular motion inside of an object.

E)the flow of energy due to a temperature difference.

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Page 14

Chapter 13: The Transfer of Heat

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Q1) Assume that the sun is a sphere of radius 6.96 × 108 m and that its surface temperature is 5.8 × 103 K. If the sun radiates at a rate of 3.90 × 1026 W and is a perfect emitter, at what rate is energy emitted per square meter at the sun's surface?

A)5.6 × 107 W/m2

B)6.4 × 107 W/m2

C)5.6 × 1017 W/m2

D)12.8 × 107 W/m2

E)25.6 × 107 W/m2

Q2) The ends of a cylindrical steel rod are maintained at two different temperatures. The rod conducts heat from one end to the other at a rate of 10 cal/s. At what rate would a steel rod twice as long and twice the diameter conduct heat between the same two temperatures?

A)5 cal/s

B)10 cal/s

C)20 cal/s

D)40 cal/s

E)80 cal/s

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Chapter 14: The Ideal Gas Law and Kinetic Theory

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Q1) A canister containing 115 kg of an ideal gas has a volume of 6.5 m3. If the gas exerts a pressure of 4.0 × 105 Pa, what is the rms speed of the molecules?

A)260 m/s

B)180 m/s

C)310 m/s

D)390 m/s

E)420 m/s

Q2) Helium gas at 20 °C is confined within a rigid vessel. The gas is then heated until its pressure is doubled. What is the final temperature of the gas?

A)10 °C

B)20 °C

C)40 °C

D)313 °C

E)586 °C

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Chapter 15: Thermodynamics

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Q1) Under which one of the following conditions would a Carnot heat engine be 100% efficient?

A)The engine discharges heat at 0 K.

B)The engine uses no heat.

C)The engine does no work.

D)The engine can be operated in reverse.

E)The engine uses an ideal gas.

Q2) How much work is done on the gas as it is compressed isobarically from state C to state D?

A)zero joules

B)50 J

C)100 J

D)200 J

E)400 J

Q3) How much work is done on the gas in going from B to C?

A)2.5 × 106 J

B)5.5 × 106 J

C)4.5 × 106 J

D)6.5 × 106 J

E)8.0 × 106 J

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Chapter 16: Waves and Sound

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Q1) What is the wavelength of the wave?

A)0.005 m

B)0.010 m

C)0.015 m

D)0.020 m

E)0.025 m

Q2) During a typical workday (eight hours), the average sound intensity arriving at Larry's ear is 1.8 × 10-5 W/m2. If the area of Larry's ear through which the sound passes is 2.1 × 10-3 m2, what is the total energy entering each of Larry's ears during the workday?

A)1.8 × 10-5 J

B)2.2 × 10-4 J

C)7.4 × 10-4 J

D)1.1 × 10-3 J

E)4.1 × 10-3 J

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Chapter 17: The Principle of Linear Superposition and

Interference Phenomena

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Q1) A cylindrical tube sustains standing waves at the following frequencies: 600 Hz, 800 Hz, and 1000 Hz. The tube does not sustain standing waves at 500 Hz, at 900 Hz, at any frequencies between 600 and 800 Hz, or at any frequencies between 800 and 1000 Hz. Determine the fundamental frequency of the tube and whether the tube is open at both ends or has only one end open.

A)50 Hz, both ends

B)100 Hz, one end

C)100 Hz, both ends

D)200 Hz, one end

E)200 Hz, both ends

Q2) For a diffraction horn loudspeaker, sound emerges through a rectangular opening. The opening of a diffraction horn has a width of 0.12 m. If the speaker emits a continuous tone with a wavelength of 0.09 m, at what angle does the first minimum occur?

A)47°

B)39°

C)23°

D)12°

E)66°

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Electric Forces and Electric Fields

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Q1) Which one of the following statements is true concerning the strength of the electric field between two oppositely charged parallel plates?

A)It is zero midway between the plates.

B)It is a maximum midway between the plates.

C)It is a maximum near the positively charged plate.

D)It is a maximum near the negatively charged plate.

E)It is constant between the plates except near the edges.

Q2) One mole of a substance contains 6.02 × 1023 protons and an equal number of electrons. If the protons could somehow be separated from the electrons and placed in very small, individual containers separated by a million meters, what would be the magnitude of the electrostatic force exerted by one box on the other?

A)8.7 × 103 N

B)9.5 × 104 N

C)2.2 × 105 N

D)8.4 × 107 N

E)1.6 × 108 N

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Chapter 19: Electric Potential Energy and the Electric

Potential

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Q1) Which one of the following statements best explains why it is possible to define an electrostatic potential in a region of space that contains an electrostatic field?

A)Work must be done to bring two positive charges closer together.

B)Like charges repel one another and unlike charges attract one another.

C)A positive charge will gain kinetic energy as it approaches a negative charge.

D)The work required to bring two charges together is independent of the path taken.

E)A negative charge will gain kinetic energy as it moves away from another negative charge.

Q2) A parallel plate capacitor is fully charged at a potential V. A dielectric with constant \(\kappa\) = 4 is inserted between the plates of the capacitor while the potential difference between the plates remains constant. Which one of the following statements is false concerning this situation?

A)The energy density remains unchanged.

B)The capacitance increases by a factor of four.

C)The stored energy increases by a factor of four.

D)The charge on the capacitor increases by a factor of four.

E)The electric field between the plates increases by a factor of four.

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Electric Circuits

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Q1) The current through a certain heater wire is found to be fairly independent of its temperature. If the current through the heater wire is doubled, the amount of energy delivered by the heater in a given time interval will

A)increase by a factor of two.

B)decrease by a factor of two.

C)increase by a factor of four.

D)decrease by a factor of four.

E)increase by a factor of eight.

Q2) The resistivity of a silver wire with a radius of 5.04 × 10-4 m is 1.59 × 10-8 \(\varOmega\). m. If the length of the wire is 3.00 m, what is the resistance of the wire?

A)0.0598 \(\varOmega\)

B)47.0 µ\(\varOmega\)

C)9.46 µ\(\varOmega\)

D)0.167 \(\varOmega\)

E)1.88 \(\varOmega\)

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Magnetic Forces and Magnetic Fields

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Q1) Which combination of units can be used to express the magnetic field?

A)kg . m2/C

B)kg . s/C2

C)N .m2/C

D)kg/(C . s)

E)kg . m/(C . s2)

Q2) Determine the magnitude of the total magnetic field at the center of the loop (due both to the loop and the solenoid) if the current in the loop is reversed in direction from that needed to make the total field equal to zero tesla.

A)2.5 × 10-4 T

B)3.0 × 10-4 T

C)4.4 × 10-4 T

D)6.7 × 10-4 T

E)8.2 × 10-4 T

Q3) What is the direction of the net magnetic force that acts on the loop?

A)+x direction

B)-x direction

C)+y direction

D)-y direction

E)30° with respect to the +x direction

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Chapter 22: Electromagnetic Induction

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Q1) What is the magnitude of the average induced emf in the loop if the magnitude of the magnetic field is doubled in 0.4 s?

A)0.43 V

B)0.65 V

C)0.014 V

D)0.027 V

E)0.038 V

Q2) At what rate is energy dissipated by the resistor?

A)130 W

B)96 W

C)32 W

D)49 W

E)8.0 W

Q3) Determine the magnitude of the induced emf in the loop.

A)2.0 V

B)4.0 V

C)8.0 V

D)14 V

E)16 V

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Chapter 23: Alternating Current Circuits

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Q1) The current in a certain ac circuit is independent of the frequency at a given voltage. Which combination of elements is most likely to comprise the circuit?

A)resistors only

B)inductors only

C)capacitors only

D)a combination of inductors and resistors

E)a combination of inductors and capacitors

Q2) What is the inductance of the inductor in a series RCL circuit with a resonant frequency of 640 Hz if the only other element in the circuit is a 1.2-µF capacitor?

A)52 mH

B)74 mH

C)0.12 H

D)2.1 H

E)13 H

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Chapter 24: Electromagnetic Waves

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Q1) A distant space probe is programmed to emit a radio signal toward Earth at regular time intervals. One such pulse arrives on Earth 6.92 s after it is emitted from the probe. What is the approximate distance from the Earth to the probe?

A)8.76 × 109 m

B)7.40 × 1010 m

C)6.94 × 109 m

D)2.08 × 109 m

E)3.50 × 1010 m

Q2) What is the direction of electromagnetic energy transport?

A)the positive x direction

B)the negative x direction

C)the positive y direction

D)the negative y direction

E)the negative z direction

Q3) To which region of the electromagnetic spectrum does this wave belong?

A)X-rays

B)gamma rays

C)visible light

D)infrared radiation

E)radio waves

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Chapter 25: The Refl Ection of Light: Mirrors

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Q1) Which one of the following phrases most accurately describes paraxial rays?

A)rays that pass through the principal focus

B)any rays that are parallel to the principal axis

C)rays that come to a focus on the principal axis

D)rays close to the principal axis and parallel to it

E)rays close to the principal axis, but not necessarily parallel to it

Q2) A 6.0-ft tall football player stands in front of a plane mirror. How tall must the mirror be so that the football player can see his full-sized image?

A)2.0 ft

B)2.5 ft

C)3.0 ft

D)3.5 ft

E)6.0 ft

Q3) The focal length of a spherical concave mirror is 25 cm. What is its radius of curvature?

A)5 cm

B)10 cm

C)25 cm

D)40 cm

E)50 cm

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Chapter 26: The Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

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Q1) Where is the final image located relative to the lens on the right?

A)0.08 m to the left of the lens

B)0.12 m to the left of the lens

C)0.08 m to the right of the lens

D)0.12 m to the right of the lens

E)0.36 m to the right of the lens

Q2) Determine the largest value of the angle \(\alpha\) so that the ray is totally reflected at the face ac if the prism is immersed in a liquid with refractive index 1.12.

A)21°

B)34°

C)69°

D)78°

E)Total internal reflection will not occur for any value of \(\alpha\).

Q3) Determine the approximate distance between the object and the image.

A)7 cm

B)10 cm

C)18 cm

D)24 cm

E)45 cm

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Chapter 27: Interference and the Wave Nature of Light

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Q1) A spy satellite is in orbit at a distance of 1.0 × 106 m above the ground. It carries a telescope that can resolve the two rails of a railroad track that are 1.4 m apart using light of wavelength 600 nm. Which one of the following statements best describes the diameter of the lens in the telescope?

A)It is less than 0.14 m.

B)It is greater than 0.14 m and less than 0.23 m.

C)It is greater than 0.23 m and less than 0.35 m.

D)It is greater than 0.35 m and less than 0.52 m.

E)It is greater than 0.52 m.

Q2) Light of 600.0 nm is incident upon a single slit. The resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen that is 0.50 m from the slit. The distance between the first and third minima of the diffraction pattern is 0.80 mm. Which range of values listed below contains the width of the slit?

A)0.1 mm to 0.4 mm

B)0.4 mm to 0.8 mm

C)0.8 mm to 1.2 mm

D)1.2 mm to 1.6 mm

E)1.6 mm to 2.0 mm

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Chapter 28: Special Relativity

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Q1) Determine the kinetic energy of particle B (relative to frame S).

A)109 MeV

B)140 MeV

C)206 MeV

D)249 MeV

E)314 MeV

Q2) Two spaceships are observed from earth to be approaching each other along a straight line. Ship A moves at 0.40c relative to the earth observer, while ship B moves at 0.60c relative to the same observer. What speed does the captain of ship A report for the speed of ship B?

A)0.19c

B)0.75c

C)0.81c

D)0.92c

E)0.96c

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Chapter 29: Particles and Waves

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Q1) A beam of electrons is incident on a single slit that has a width of 1.00 × 10-6 m and a diffraction pattern is observed on a screen located 15.0 m from the slit. The momentum of an individual electron in the beam is 5.91 × 10-24 kg . m/s. What is the width of the central maximum fringe?

A)5.87 × 10-5 m

B)1.33 × 10-4 m

C)6.67 × 10-4 m

D)3.37 × 10-3 m

E)7.50 × 10-3 m

Q2) Which type of wave motion does not involve photons?

A)gamma rays

B)microwaves

C)radio waves

D)infrared radiation

E)sound waves

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Chapter 30: The Nature of the Atom

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Q1) To which model of atomic structure does the Pauli exclusion principle apply?

A)the nuclear atom

B)the quantum mechanical atom

C)the billiard ball atom

D)the plum-pudding model

E)the planetary model

Q2) Which one of the following statements concerning the plum-pudding model of the atom is false?

A)There is no nucleus at the center of the plum-pudding model atom.

B)The plum-pudding model was proven correct in experiments by Ernest Rutherford.

C)The plum-pudding model was proposed by Joseph J. Thomson.

D)Positive charge is spread uniformly throughout the plum-pudding model atom.

E)Negative electrons are dispersed uniformly within the positively charged "pudding" within the plum-pudding model atom.

Q3) What shell is this electron occupying?

A)K shell

B)L shell

C)M shell

D)N shell

E)O shell

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Chapter 31: Nuclear Physics and Radioactivity

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Q1) In a certain \(\gamma\) decay process, an excited neon atom emits a \(\gamma\)-ray that has an energy of 1.630 MeV. The neon atom in the ground state has a mass of 19.992 435 u. What is the mass of the excited neon atom?

A)17.498 658 u

B)18.746 422 u

C)19.994 185 u

D)19.999 685 u

E)20.003 185 u

Q2) In a beta decay process, not all of the released energy is carried by the beta particle. Who proposed the existence of the neutrino in 1930 to account for the missing energy?

A)Niels Bohr

B)Erwin Schrödinger

C)Werner Heisenberg

D)Wolfgang Pauli

E)Enrico Fermi

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Chapter 32: Ionizing Radiation, Nuclear Energy, and Elementary Particles

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Q1) A particular nuclear fission reaction produces 1.50 × 102 MeV per fission. How many fissions per second are required to generate 3.00 × 108 W of power?

A)2.00 × 1016

B)5.25 × 1017

C)3.20 × 1018

D)1.25 × 1019

E)6.02 × 1023

Q2) Which one of the following names is not one that is used to name quarks?

A)charm

B)top

C)strange

D)exotic

E)down

Q3) What is the importance of thermal neutrons in nuclear processes?

A)Thermal neutron capture results in uranium fission.

B)Thermal neutrons are released in radioactive decay.

C)Thermal neutrons are necessary in the fusion of deuterium.

D)Thermal neutrons are commonly released in fusion reactions.

E)Thermal neutrons are sources of gamma rays.

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