Principles of Physical Science Test
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Course Introduction
Principles of Physical Science introduces students to the foundational concepts and methods that underpin the study of the physical world. Topics include the scientific method, measurement and data analysis, motion and forces, energy and its transformations, properties of matter, basic thermodynamics, and principles of electricity and magnetism. Through theoretical discussions and practical experiments, students gain an understanding of how scientific principles explain natural phenomena and form the basis for advances in technology and engineering. The course helps develop problem-solving skills and lays the groundwork for further studies in physics, chemistry, and related scientific fields.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physical Science 5th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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Chapter 1: Patterns of Motion and Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) Burl and Paul have a total weight of 1300 N. The tensions in the ropes that support the scaffold they stand on add to 1700 N. The weight of the scaffold itself must be
A)400 N.
B)500 N.
C)600 N.
D)800 N.
Answer: A
Q2) The force of friction on a sliding object is 10 N. The applied force needed to maintain a constant velocity is
A)more than 10 N.
B)less than 10 N.
C)10 N.
Answer: C
Q3) When a ball increases in speed by the same amount each second, its acceleration A)also increases each second.
B)decreases each second.
C)is constant.
D)varies.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Newtons Laws of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a boulder and a pebble are dropped, why does the pebble pick up speed as quickly as the boulder, even though less gravity acts on it? In other words, why do they accelerate equally?
Answer: Acceleration depends not only on the force of gravity, but also on the masses. If the boulder is fifty times heavier than the pebble, it also has fifty times as much mass. So in accord with Newton's second law, fifty times as much force on fifty times as much mass gives the same acceleration as one-fiftieth the force on one-fiftieth the mass on the pebble. If air resistance affects motion, then the accelerations won't be equal.
Q2) A skydiver steps from a helicopter and falls for 5 s before reaching terminal velocity. During this 5-s interval, her acceleration
A)is constant.
B)increases.
C)decreases.
D)is zero.
E)none of the above
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Momentum and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ball is projected into the air with 900 J of kinetic energy that is transformed to potential energy at the top of its trajectory. When it returns to its original level after encountering air resistance, its kinetic energy is
A)less than 900 J.
B)more than 900 J.
C)900 J.
D)not enough information
Answer: A
Q2) A 5-kg fish swimming at a speed of 1 m/s swallows an absent-minded 1-kg fish at rest. The speed of the larger fish after lunch is
A)1/2 m/s.
B)2/5 m/s.
C)5/6 m/s.
D)6/5 m/s.
E)1 m/s.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Gravity, Projectiles, and Satellites
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Sample Questions
Q1) The circular orbit of a satellite orbiting the Earth is characterized by a constant A)speed.
B)acceleration.
C)radial distance.
D)all the above
E)none of the above
Q2) A hunter aims a rifle at an angle of 10° above the horizontal. The hunter fires a bullet while simultaneously dropping another bullet from the side of the rifle. Which bullet hits the ground first?
A)the dropped one
B)the fired one
C)both hit at the same time
Q3) If the mass of Earth somehow increased with no change in radius, your weight would A)increase also.
B)decrease.
C)remain the same.
Q4) How is stepping off a curb similar to taking a ride aboard the space shuttle?
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Chapter 5: Fluid Mechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider two tubes filled with water at the same height, one with fresh water and the other tube with salt water. The pressure is greater at the bottom of the tube with A)fresh water.
B)salt water.
C)both the same
D)depends on whether the tubes have the same cross-sectional area.
Q2) Suppose you stand on a weighing scale and all of a sudden the atmosphere vanishes. The reading on the scale would A)increase.
B)decrease.
C)remain the same.
Q3) A rising balloon is buoyed up with a force equal to the A)weight of air it displaces.
B)density of surrounding air.
C)atmospheric pressure.
D)weight of the balloon and its contents.
E)all of the above
Q4) We know that any body more dense than water will sink in water. Why?
Q5) Why will a helium-filled balloon rise in air while an air-filled balloon sinks?
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Chapter 6: Thermal Energy and Thermodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Write a short paragraph explaining why fish live through cold winters even when the ponds are frozen over.
Q2) What would be the temperature of 40.0 g of 22°C water mixed with 60.0 g of 80°C water?
A)28.4°C
B)30.2°C
C)50.6°C
D)56.8°C
Q3) As a system becomes more disordered, entropy A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains the same.
Q4) Consider a sample of water at 20°C. If the temperature is slightly increased, the water A)expands. B)contracts.
C)remains the same.
Q5) Distinguish between the concepts of thermal energy, temperature, and heat.
Q6) Explain what is meant by saying a thermometer measures its own temperature.
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Chapter 7: Heat Transfer and Change of Phase
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Sample Questions
Q1) Newton's law of cooling applies to objects that are A)cooling.
B)warming.
C)both
D)none of the above
Q2) In the mountains, water boils at
A)a higher temperature than at sea level.
B)a lower temperature than at sea level.
C)the same temperature as at sea level.
Q3) If you were caught in freezing weather with only a candle for warmth, you would be warmer in
A)an igloo.
B)a tent.
C)a wooden house.
Q4) Why does a hot dog pant?
Q5) A hot dog pants
A)to help evaporation occur in its mouth and bronchial tract.
B)to bring more oxygen into its lungs.
C)for no particular reason-some things just happen.
D)to impress dogs of the opposite sex.
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Chapter 8: Static and Current Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) An electron is pushed into an electric field where it acquires a 1-V electric potential. If two electrons are pushed the same distance into the same electric field, the electric potential of both electrons is
A)0.25 V.
B)0.5 V.
C)1 V.
D)2 V.
E)4 V.
Q2) The source of electrons lighting an incandescent ac light bulb is
A)the power company.
B)the electric outlet.
C)atoms in the light bulb filament.
D)the wire leading to the lamp.
E)the source voltage.
Q3) A balloon will stick to a wooden wall if the balloon is charged
A)negatively.
B)positively.
C)either
D)neither
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Magnetism and Electromagnetic Induction
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Sample Questions
Q1) An iron nail is more strongly attracted to the A)north pole of a magnet.
B)south pole of a magnet.
C)north or south pole-no difference.
Q2) A device that transforms mechanical energy to electrical energy is a A)generator.
B)motor.
C)transformer.
D)magnet.
E)none of the above
Q3) Every magnet contains at least A)one pole.
B)two poles.
C)two or more poles.
Q4) Several paper clips dangle from the north pole of a magnet. The induced pole in the bottom of the lowermost paper clip is a A)north pole.
B)south pole.
C)north or south pole-no difference.
Q5) Distinguish between a common bar magnet and an electromagnet.
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Chapter 10: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does a sonic boom irritate people on the ground below a supersonic aircraft and not passengers inside the aircraft?
Q2) You dip your finger repeatedly into water and make waves. If you dip your finger more frequently, the wavelength of the waves A)shortens.
B)lengthens.
C)remains the same.
Q3) Suppose you sound a 1056-Hz tuning fork when you strike a note on the piano and hear 2 beats/second. You tighten the piano string very slightly and now hear 3 beats/second. What is the frequency of the piano string?
A)1053 Hz
B)1054 Hz
C)1056 Hz
D)1058 Hz
E)1059 Hz
Q4) If you double the frequency of a vibrating object, its period A)doubles.
B)is half.
C)is one quarter.
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Chapter 11: Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an electric charge is rapidly shaken up and down, A)sound is emitted.
B)light is emitted.
C)electron excitation occurs.
D)an electromagnetic wave is produced.
Q2) Describe a model for explaining how light is transmitted through glass.
Q3) Light shines on a pane of green glass and a pane of clear glass. The temperature will be higher in the A)clear glass.
B)green glass.
C)neither
Q4) The sky is the deepest blue
A)just before a rainstorm.
B)during a rainstorm.
C)just after a rainstorm.
D)when the air is humid.
E)just before sunset.
Q5) What accounts for the additional few minutes of sunlight we experience daily, before sunrise and after sunset?
Q6) Why is ultraviolet light not transmitted by glass?
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Chapter 12: Atoms and the Periodic Table
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many electrons are there in the third shell of sodium, Na (atomic number 11)?
A)none
B)one
C)two
D)three
Q2) Which of the following elements will most likely be shiny and flexible?
A)rhodium (Rh)
B)hydrogen (H)
C)helenium (Se)
D)iodine (I)
E)silicon (Si)
Q3) Which of the following statements is false?
A)The atomic spectrum of helium is different from the atomic spectrum of neon.
B)Electromagnetic radiation often behaves like a wave.
C)An atomic spectrum is an element's fingerprint.
D)An atom emits electromagnetic radiation when an electron moves from a lower energy level to a higher energy level.
E)Light that is high in energy has a high frequency.
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14
Chapter 13: The Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) How come an animal's carbon-14 levels do not start to decrease until it dies?
A)because it constantly replenishes its carbon-14 supply by eating plants with carbon-14 in them
B)because it constantly replenishes its carbon-14 supply by breathing air with carbon-14 in it
C)because it is constantly being bombarded with cosmic rays
D)carbon-14 only starts to decay after the animal dies
E)the carbon-14 levels do not decrease because the carbon-13 in its skin protects it from cosmic rays
Q2) Which of the following sources of radiation provides most of our yearly exposure?
A)background radiation
B)smoke detectors
C)living near nuclear power plants
D)televisions (cathode ray tubes)
E)dental and medical X-rays
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Chapter 14: Elements of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
A)water boiling and being converted into steam
B)water being electrolyzed and being converted in hydrogen and oxygen
C)iron metal reacting with oxygen to form rust
D)a candy bar being digested by a student
E)charcoal being converted into ash
Q2) How many different elements are in the compound
C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>?
A)3
B)6
C)24
D)All of the elements are the same.
Q3) Which statement best describes a compound?
A)a material that is made up of a combination of atoms bonded together
B)a mixture of more than one element
C)a mixture of atoms
D)a material that is made up of a single type of atom
E)none of the above
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16
Chapter 15: How Atoms Bond and Molecules Attract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following molecules has the highest boiling point?
A)BH<sub>3</sub>
B)NH<sub>3</sub>
C)CH<sub>4</sub>
D)All of the above should have the same boiling point.
Q2) How many nonbonding pairs of electrons are in the following molecule? H-H
A)1 pair
B)6 pairs
C)0 pairs
D)8 pairs
E)none of the above
Q3) Barium ions carry a 2+ charge, and nitrogen ions carry a 3-charge. What would be the chemical formula for the ionic compound barium nitride?
A)Ba<sub>3</sub>N<sub>2</sub>
B)Ba<sub>2</sub>N<sub>3</sub>
C)Ba<sub>3</sub>N<sub>4</sub>
D)Ba<sub>2</sub>N<sub>2</sub>
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Chapter 16: Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would you classify the following material? coffee (with milk)
A)a suspension
B)a heterogeneous mixture
C)a solution
D)an element
E)a compound
Q2) Which of the following material phases cannot form a solution?
A)solids
B)liquids
C)gases
D)All of the above can form solutions.
E)None of the above can form solutions.
Q3) Where does most of the solid mass of raw sewage end up after being collected at a treatment facility?
A)It is injected into the water table.
B)It is buried in landfills.
C)It is sold to farmers for fertilizer.
D)It is tapped for the generation of methane gas.
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Chapter 17: How Chemicals React
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the number of moles of H<sub>2</sub>O produced if you combust one mole of CH<sub>4</sub> according to the following balanced equation? CH<sub>4</sub> + 2 O<sub>2</sub> CO<sub>2</sub> + 2 H<sub>2</sub>O
A)2 moles
B)4 moles
C)6 moles
D)8 moles
E)1 mole
Q2) What can you deduce about the activation energy of a reaction that takes billions of years to go to completion? How about a reaction that takes only fractions of a second?
A)The activation energy of both these reactions must be very low.
B)The activation energy of both these reactions must be very high.
C)The slow reaction must have a high activation energy while the fast reaction must have a low activation energy.
D)The slow reaction must have a low activation energy while the fast reaction must have a high activation energy.
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Chapter 18: Two Classes of Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens to the pH of soda water as it loses its carbonation?
A)It does not change since the carbonation has nothing to do with pH.
B)It decreases as it loses the carbon dioxide molecules which form the carbonic acid in the soda.
C)It increases as it loses the carbon dioxide molecules which form the carbonic acid in the soda.
D)It decreases as the soda becomes more concentrated through the loss of the carbon dioxide gases.
Q2) Which of the following materials is most likely to undergo reduction?
A)Na
B)Na<sup>+</sup>
C)Cl<sub>2</sub>
D)Cl<sup>-</sup>
E)both A and B
Q3) What is the purpose of a salt-bridge?
A)to allow ions to migrate between solutions
B)to allow people to cross over salt water
C)to allow electrons to migrate through solutions
D)to allow salt to form in the oxidation-reduction reactions
E)none of the above
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Chapter 19: Organic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why might a high-formula-mass alcohol be insoluble in water?
A)A high formula mass alcohol would be too attracted to itself to be soluble in water.
B)The bulk of a high formula mass alcohol likely consists of nonpolar hydrocarbons.
C)Such an alcohol would likely be in a solid phase.
D)In order for two substance to be soluble in each other their molecules need to be of comparable mass.
Q2) Which of the following compounds is likely to have the best water solubility?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>C H<sub>2</sub>OH
D)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>C H<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
Q3) Suggest an explanation for why aspirin has a sour taste.
A)It is the acidic nature of aspirin that gives rise to its sour taste.
B)The sour flavor is added to help prevent overdosing.
C)Aspirin is made sour as a mandated child safety feature.
D)It is the basic nature of aspirin that gives rise to its sour taste.
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Chapter 20: Rocks and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) In contact metamorphism, we generally find
A)water-rich, high-temperature rocks at the contact border.
B)dry, high-temperature rocks at the contact border.
C)water-rich, low-temperature rocks at the contact border.
D)dry, low-temperature rocks at the contact border.
Q2) The three sources that brought young Earth to its melting point were
A)impact heating, convection heating, radiometric heating.
B)impact heating, gravitational contraction heating, radioactive decay heating.
C)impact heating, convection heating, radioactive decay heating.
D)collisional heating, contraction heating, radiometric heating.
Q3) The last minerals to crystallize from a cooling magma have the
A)lowest melting point and the highest percentage of silica.
B)lowest melting point and the lowest percentage of silica.
C)highest melting point and the highest percentage of silica.
D)highest melting point and the lowest percentage of silica.
Q4) Pebbles of granite are very common in a conglomerate, whereas pebbles of marble are relatively uncommon. Why is this? What are the properties of the different minerals in these rocks?
Q5) What is partial melting?
Q6) List the seven physical properties for identifying minerals.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Plate Tectonics and Earths Interior
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Q1) The Richter scale measures an earthquake's A)frequency.
B)magnitude.
C)damage.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Wegener's theory of continental drift
A)was first considered a monumental breakthrough in science.
B)was not accepted by the scientific community of the early 1900's.
C)proved that heat flows convectively below Earth's surface .
D)has been proved wrong.
Q3) Tsunami are correctly referred to as
A)seismic sea waves.
B)tidal waves
C)energy waves.
D)mega waves.
Q4) An anticline is a fold in which the limbs bend
A)downward.
B)upward.
Q5) How can the location and the strength of an earthquake be determined?
Q6) Distinguish between anticlines and synclines.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Shaping Earths Surface
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Q1) Precipitation exceeds evaporation over the A)continents.
B)polar ice caps.
C)oceans.
D)equator.
Q2) As water is withdrawn from a well, the water table around the well A)subsides.
B)drops, making a cone of depression around the well. C)dries up.
D)rises.
Q3) Identify the locations of Earth's water, both oceanic and fresh.
Q4) The water table is found at the top of the A)contact between an aquifer and an underlying, impermeable rock.
B)zone of aeration.
C)zone of saturation.
D)permeability zone.
Q5) Where and how do deltas form?
Q6) In what three ways does flowing water erode a stream channel?
Q7) Rainwater becomes acidic as it falls through the air. How does this affect areas of Karst topography?
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Chapter 23: Geologic Timereading the Rock Record
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Q1) What are some of the uncertainties in obtaining radiometric carbon dates?
Q2) Why is it believed that large parts of the United States were once covered by shallow seas?
Q3) To date a rock thought to be many millions of years old, you should NOT use the decay of A)uranium to lead. B)potassium to argon. C)carbon-14.
Q4) The isotope most useful for dating rocks from the late Pleistocene is A)uranium-238. B)uranium-235. C)potassium-40. D)carbon-14.
Q5) What spectacular development in organisms marks the beginning of the Paleozoic era?
Q6) What is the evidence that a meteorite impact caused the great extinction at the end of the Mesozoic?
Q7) Similar reptiles were present on all continents during the Mesozoic era, but mammals of the Cenozoic era are often different on the different continents. Explain.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Oceans, Atmosphere, and Climatic Effects
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Q1) The most common depositional shoreline feature is a A)beach.
B)wave-cut platform.
C)barrier island.
D)seamount.
Q2) The climate of northwestern Europe is greatly affected by the A)Kuroshio current.
B)Gulf Stream.
C)trade winds.
D)jet stream.
Q3) Irregularities in Earth's surface influence wind patterns. At night, winds blow from a region
A)over the ocean toward land.
B)above land toward the ocean.
C)of high pressure to a region of lower pressure.
D)of high pressure (ex: land)to a region of lower pressure (ex: ocean).
Q4) What is the significance of the ozone layer?
Q5) What is the most common depositional feature created by the work of the oceans?
Q6) What is the Gulf Stream?
Q7) Why are temperature fluctuations greater over land than water?
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Chapter 25: Driving Forces of Weather
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Q1) Warm humid air is characteristic of a
A)maritime polar air mass.
B)continental polar air mass.
C)maritime tropical air mass.
D)continental tropical air mass.
Q2) For rain to precipitate requires
A)condensation nuclei, updrafts, and thick clouds.
B)sufficient vertical cloud development.
C)wind.
D)droplet bombardment.
Q3) When liquid water freezes, it
A)loses energy.
B)gives off energy.
C)gains energy.
D)radiates energy.
Q4) Saturation and condensation are more likely to occur on a A)cold day.
B)warm day.
C)windy day.
D)balmy day.
27
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Chapter 26: The Solar System
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Q1) The ecliptic
A)occurs during a solar or lunar eclipse.
B)is the average distance between the Sun and Earth.
C)is the plane of Earth's orbit.
D)refers to the gases from which our solar system formed.
Q2) What aspect of the Sun's behavior wraps and distorts the solar magnetic field?
A)The differential spin between the equatorial and polar regions
B)Sunspot activity due to differential heat dispersion
C)Plasma fluxes within the core
D)The cycle of the reversal of the magnetic poles
Q3) Only one side of the Moon faces Earth. Is this because the Moon spins about its axis, or doesn't spin about its axis? Defend your answer.
Q4) At about what frequency is Earth struck by a meteorite large enough (about 10 km in diameter)to cause mass extinctions?
A)About every 1 million years
B)About every 10 million years
C)About every 100 million years
D)This has yet to occur on Earth
Q5) What is the evidence that the Sun is a relatively new star in the universe?
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Chapter 27: Stars and Galaxies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Luminosity is
A)the total amount of light energy that star emits into space.
B)the stars apparent brightness.
C)the stars particular color spectrum output.
D)the stars total infrared output.
Q2) Compared to most stellar objects, quasars are more
A)distant.
B)energetic.
C)puzzling.
D)all of these
E)none of these
Q3) Supernovae are one of the most extreme events in the known universe. They are caused by
A)the implosion of a white dwarf, which has run out of all its fuel.
B)a supermassive supergiant star undergoing a massive nuclear chain reaction.
C)the collapse of a supermassive supergiant star.
D)Any of the above.
Q4) What happens to a star when the fusion cycle gets to the element iron?
Q5) How does the mass of a giant star compare with the mass of the black hole it may become? How do the densities compare?
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Chapter 28: The Structure of Space and Time
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Technically, its not mass that causes the curvature of spacetime, but A)mass density.
B)energy density.
C)thermal mass.
D)thermal mass fluctuations.
Q2) A clock on the surface of a shrinking star will run progressively A)slower.
B)faster.
C)no difference
Q3) Astronomers who subscribe to the Big Bang theory believe the Big Bang occurred
A)about 14 billion years ago.
B)at the beginning of time.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q4) The Big Bang occurred
A)at the tip of your nose.
B)at the center of each galaxy.
C)at some undetermined yet vastly distant point.
D)within an unusually large supernova.
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Chapter 29: Prologue: the Nature of Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The synthesis of a large collection of information that contains well-tested and verified hypotheses about certain aspects of the world is known as a scientific A)fact.
B)hypothesis.
C)law or principle.
D)theory.
E)none of the above
Q2) The statement, "There are regions beneath the Earth's crust that will always be beyond the reach of scientific investigation," is A)a fact.
B)speculation.
C)a scientific statement.
D)a theory.
Q3) In science, an educated guess is a A)hypothesis.
B)theory.
C)both
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