Principles of Pharmacology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Pharmacology explores the fundamental concepts underlying the actions of drugs on biological systems. This course covers topics such as drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, as well as receptor interactions, dose-response relationships, and mechanisms of drug action. Students will gain an understanding of how pharmacological principles inform the therapeutic use, side effects, and toxicity of medications. Emphasis is placed on the molecular and cellular basis of drug activity and the factors that influence drug safety and efficacy in clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pharmacology for Health Professionals 5th Edition by Susan M. Turley
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25 Chapters
2155 Verified Questions
2155 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology and the History of Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) List and describe one of the incentives given to drug companies under the Orphan Drug Act to encourage them to develop drugs for rare diseases.
Answer: The Orphan Drug Act provided special financial incentives to a drug company including federal grants to offset drug development costs,a tax credit that allowed the drug manufacturer to deduct up to 75% of the cost of clinical trials,a streamlined process for obtaining FDA approval,and exclusive marketing rights for seven years.
Q2) We know from reading the newspaper that cocaine is available illegally as a street drug,but cocaine is also a Schedule II drug with legitimate medical uses.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Prescription drugs are defined as those drugs that ________.
A) meet clinical trial requirements and are approved by the FDA
B) are stronger than what is allowed for over-the-counter use
C) are not safe to use except under professional medical supervision
D) contain addictive properties that prevent over-the-counter use
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Drug Design, Testing, Manufacturing, and Marketing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When designing drugs,a computer can ________.
A) display the molecular structure of any drug in its database
B) identify chemicals that would probably not be successful in treating a particular disease, which saves time and money
C) rotate any molecule in three dimensions on the computer screen
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Q2) A drug company may evaluate thousands of different chemicals before finding one that moves successfully through all phases of testing and is finally approved by the FDA for release and marketing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Once a drug has been approved by the FDA,the drug can continue to be marketed indefinitely because it has received FDA approval.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Drug Forms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scored tablet can be easily and accurately divided into equal doses,depending on the number of score marks on the tablet.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The powdered form of a drug can be found in all of these,EXCEPT ________.
A) a canister
B) an ampule
C) a capsule
D) a vial
Answer: B
Q3) Describe the difference between an emulsion and an emulsifying agent.
Answer: Emulsions are solutions that contain fat globules dispersed uniformly throughout a water base.An emulsifying agent is added to a cream to keep the oil and water ingredients mixed together.
Q4) An ________ is a solution that contains the drug in a water and alcohol base with added sugar and flavoring.It is commonly used for pediatric and elderly patients who cannot swallow tablets or capsules.
Answer: elixir
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Chapter 4: Routes of Administration and the Drug Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are drugs that are given intravenously,EXCEPT ________.
A) chemotherapy drugs
B) peritoneal dialysis fluids for patients with kidney failure
C) diazepam (Valium) to control continuous epileptic seizures
D) thiopental (Pentothal) for the induction of general anesthesia
Q2) The topical route of administration of drugs always has a systemic effect on the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The intra-articular route of administration is used to administer a chemotherapy drug directly into the area of a cancerous tumor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which route of administration is used to put a chemotherapy drug directly into the area of a cancerous tumor?
A) intra-articular
B) umbilical artery
C) epidural
D) intra-arterial
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Chapter 5: Using Drugs Therapeutically
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs given by weight are measured in kilograms,milligrams,and micrograms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which system of drug measurement is used for nearly all drug doses?
A) apothecary
B) household
C) metric
D) ratio
Q3) Briefly explain the difference between the local effect of a drug and the systemic effect of a drug.
Q4) An idiosyncratic drug reaction is ________.
A) based on the patient's genetic makeup
B) a common side effect
C) based on an allergic reaction
D) all of the above
Q5) Muscarinic and nicotinic are two types of cholinergic receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The antibiotic drug ciprofloxacin can cause the unusual adverse reaction of ________ rupture.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Prescription
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Sample Questions
Q1) All states have passed laws that say that a physician must write a prescription that is legible and can be read.
A)True B)False
Q2) When a drug has been approved by the FDA to treat a specific disease,the physician cannot prescribe it to treat a different disease.
A)True B)False
Q3) The medicine cabinet in the bathroom is a good place to store drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For a patient seen in a physician's office,the prescription shows the quantity of the drug that is to be dispensed,and that total number equals the length of treatment multiplied by the ________.
A) number of doses to be taken each day
B) the number of hospital days
C) the patient's weight
D) the DEA number
Q5) The abbreviation Rx stands for the Latin word recipere,meaning ________.
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Chapter 7: Urinary Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Potassium-sparing diuretic drugs act to "spare" potassium by keeping it in the blood and not letting it enter the tubules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cranberries are effective against urinary tract infections because ________.
A) the fructose in them prevents bacteria from adhering to the bladder wall
B) they increase the acidity of the urine
C) they suppress the growth of bacteria because bacteria prefer an alkaline environment
D) all of the above
Q3) The loss of potassium due to a diuretic drug can cause the adverse effect of ________,a very low level of potassium in the blood.
Q4) Potassium chloride drugs come in all of the following drug forms,EXCEPT ________.
A) effervescent tablets
B) powder
C) ointment
D) liquid
Q5) The ending -asteride is common to generic ________ inhibitor drugs.
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Chapter 8: Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The final step in acid production in the gastric parietal cell involves a structure known as the proton pump.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following categories of drugs are used to treat Crohn's disease,EXCEPT
A) monoclonal antibody drugs
B) corticosteroid drugs
C) antispasmodic drugs
D) appetite suppressant drugs
Q3) GERD occurs when stomach acid flows back into the esophagus causing irritation,inflammation,and pain.The abbreviation GERD stands for ________.
Q4) Proton pump inhibitor drugs can be used to treat all of the following GI diseases,EXCEPT ________.
A) GERD
B) peptic ulcers
C) obesity
D) H. pylori infections
Q5) An ________ drug absorbs excess water from diarrhea stools.
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The category of salicylate drugs used to treat osteoarthritis includes aspirin,one of the oldest drugs known to man.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ is also known as degenerative joint disease.
A) Fibromyalgia
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Osteoarthritis
D) Osteoporosis
Q3) Two COX-2 inhibitor drugs were taken off the market because of an increased risk of heart attacks and strokes.Only one COX-2 inhibitor is currently on the market.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain why corticosteroid drugs come in a special arrangement of tablets whose number continually decreases each day for a week.
Q5) Salicylate drugs,such as aspirin,are irritating to the stomach.Describe two precautions that some drug companies have taken to reduce this irritation.
Q6) The abbreviation NSAID stands for ________.
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Chapter 10: Respiratory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the drug Nicoderm CQ,the CQ stands for Committed Quitters,a behavior modification program sponsored by the drug company.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Besides nicotine drugs and nicotine antagonist drugs,other drugs--such as the antidepressant drug bupropion (Zyban)and clonidine (Catapres)that is used to treat hypertension--are also used to persons to stop smoking.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A Twisthaler device uses a drug in the form of a ________ to treat asthma.
Q4) Expectorant drugs are prescribed for a nonproductive cough.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In some cities,patients with tuberculosis can be ordered to go to jail if they are noncompliant with taking their antitubercular drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The common ending at the end of generic monoclonal antibody drugs is -________.
Q7) The abbreviation MDRTB stands for ________.
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Chapter 11: Cardiovascular Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lifestyle changes are the first treatment recommended for which of the following diseases?
A) arrhythmias
B) hypertension
C) hyperlipidemia
D) B and C
Q2) Which of the following does NOT belong to the drug category of calcium channel blockers?
A) amlodipine (Norvasc)
B) nifedipine (Adalat, Procardia)
C) isradipine (DynaCirc)
D) prazosin (Minipress)
Q3) All of the following trade name drugs are used to treat an elevated level of cholesterol,EXCEPT ________.
A) Lipitor
B) Lopid
C) Lanoxin
D) Crestor
Q4) The abbreviation HTN stands for ________.
Q5) The abbreviation HTN stands for ________.
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Chapter 12: Hematologic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aspirin prolongs the clotting time by inhibiting thromboxane,a substance in the blood that causes platelet aggregation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most well-known antiplatelet drug that is inexpensive and can be purchased over-the-counter is the drug ________.
Q3) The generic platelet aggregation inhibitor drug clopidogrel is related to the well-known trade name drug ________.
A) Trental
B) Eliquis
C) Plavix
D) Coumadin
Q4) Hemophilia A is ________.
A) the most common type of hemophilia
B) caused by a lack of folic acid to build red blood cells
C) caused by the lack of clotting factor VIII
D) A and C
Q5) The ending -rudin is common to generic ________ inhibitor drugs.
Q6) The abbreviation DVT stands for ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Gynecologic and Obstetric Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amenorrhea and abnormally heavy menstruation are both treated with ________ drugs that act directly on the endometrium to restore a normal menstrual cycle.
A) analgesic
B) antibiotic
C) hormone replacement therapy
D) progestins
Q2) To induce labor,the hormone ________ (secreted by the posterior pituitary gland)and the drug Pitocin both work in the same way to bind to receptors on the smooth muscle of the uterus,causing the uterus to contract.
Q3) Women in labor may be given a uterine stimulant drug if they are experiencing
A) dysmenorrhea
B) uterine inertia
C) dilation and effacement of the cervix
D) a vaginal yeast infection
Q4) The numbers next to these trade name drugs tell you that Ortho-Novum 10/11 is a ________ oral contraceptive drug and Ortho-Novum 7/7/7 is a ________ oral contraceptive drug.
Q5) The abbreviation BCP stands for ________.
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Chapter 14: Endocrine Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The meglitinide oral antidiabetic drugs increases the sensitivity of the cell to insulin produced by the pancreas and suppresses the release of stored glucose from the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The abbreviation rDNA means that an insulin drug was created by ________ DNA technology.
Q3) Anabolic steroid drugs are classified as Schedule ________ drugs.
Q4) To make NPH intermediate-acting insulin,protamine and zinc are added.Protamine was originally taken from the semen of a river trout.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Insulin plays a role in glucose (sugar)________.
A) secretion
B) excretion
C) metabolism
D) all of the above
Q6) On an insulin drug label,U-100 means 100 units/mL.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Neurologic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Joey Childress,age eight,has absence seizures (petit mal)and is being treated with an antiseizure drug.He most likely is taking ________.
A) diazepam (Valium)
B) ethosuximide (Zarontin)
C) gabapentin (Neurontin)
D) carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Q2) Sulfonamide drugs are used to treat bacterial infections,although the sulfonamide drug Zonegran is only used as an anticonvulsant drug to treat epilepsy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The medical word ________ means nerve pain.
Q4) ________ drugs that are used to induce sleep and treat insomnia get their name from the Greek word hypnos that means sleep.
Q5) Melatonin,a hormone secreted by the ________ gland,regulates the 24-hour wake-sleep cycle.
Q6) The advertisement for the trade name drug ________ shows a large,pale moth that only comes out at night flying in a bedroom window and putting a person to sleep.
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Chapter 16: Psychiatric Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about duloxetine (Cymbalta)is FALSE?
A) It is a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) drug.
B) It is used to treat depression, diabetic neuropathy, and fibromyalgia.
C) It is used to treat withdrawal from heroin and cocaine.
D) It comes in the form of a delayed-release capsule.
Q2) Benzodiazepine antianxiety Schedule IV drugs such as alprazolam (Xana)and clonazepam (Klonopin)are the most effective in treating panic disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What mental illness is the drug haloperidol (Haldol)used to treat?
A) anxiety
B) psychosis
C) neurosis
D) ADHD
Q4) Although just slightly different in chemical structure,tetracyclic antidepressant drugs have a much stronger antidepressant effect than tricyclic antidepressant drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Panic disorder is also known as panic ________.
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Chapter 17: Dermatologic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the antiviral drug that is used both topically and orally to treat herpes simplex virus type 1 and herpes simplex virus type 2 infections?
A) acyclovir (Zovirax)
B) crotamiton (Eurax)
C) benzocaine (Dermoplast)
D) ciclopirox (Loprox, Penlac Nail Lacquer)
Q2) Severe psoriasis is treated with a psoralen drug in combination with ________ light.
Q3) Topical anesthetic drugs provide brief periods of anesthesia to a limited depth in the skin by blocking the movement of sodium ions across the cell membrane and affecting nerve impulses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Topical drugs for ________ contain enzymes that dissolve necrotic tissue and scar tissue and allow new tissue to begin to form at the base of a burn,skin ulcer,or wound.
Q5) Acitretin (Soriatane)is an oral vitamin A-type drug used to treat psoriasis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Ophthalmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) NSAIDs are used after cataract or corneal surgery to treat the pain and ________ associated with surgery.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a topical corticosteroid drug used to treat eye inflammation?
A) dexamethasone (Maxidex)
B) diclofenac (Voltaren)
C) fluorometholone (Flarex)
D) prednisolone (Omnipred, Pred Forte)
Q3) When a foreign substance,such as pollen or animal dander enters the eye,antibodies from the immune system are active and ________ is released.
A) acetylcholine
B) epinephrine
C) histamine
D) all of the above
Q4) Anesthetic ophthalmic drugs are administered topically.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ________ plant was the original source of the mydriatic drugs atropine and scopolamine.
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Chapter 19: Ears, Nose, and Throat Entdrugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pairs does NOT contain two trade name decongestant drugs?
A) Afrin and Duration
B) Dimetapp and Triaminic
C) Sudafed and Otrivin
D) Astelin and Tavist Allergy
Q2) Decongestant drugs are commonly prescribed for colds and allergies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Antitussive drugs are prescribed ________.
A) for nonproductive coughs
B) for productive coughs
C) to relieve congestion and inflammation
D) to dry mucous membrane secretions
Q4) Describe how to administer and how not to administer the oral suspension of a topical antiyeast drug to treat an infant with oral candidiasis.
Q5) What is the memory tip that helps you remember that the corticosteroid drug Rhinocort is used in the nose?
Q6) The abbreviation DM stands for ________.
Q7) During an allergic reaction,histamine is released from ________ cells.
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Chapter 20: Analgesic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combination drug Cafergot used to treat migraine headaches contains
A) a beta-blocker drug and aspirin
B) ergotamine and caffeine
C) a narcotic and a nonnarcotic drug
D) morphine and an antidepressant
Q2) Antidepressant drugs have been found helpful in preventing migraine headaches.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ergotamine drugs ________.
A) are used to prevent and treat migraine headaches
B) constrict the arteries in the brain
C) are derived from a fungus
D) all of the above
Q4) In preventing or treating migraine headaches,ergotamine drugs stimulate all of the following receptors,EXCEPT ________.
A) dopamine
B) epinephrine
C) norepinephrine
D) serotonin
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Anti-Infective Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) A viral infection cannot be treated with an antibiotic drug.
B) The American Academy of Pediatrics states that educating parents is the single most important issue in reducing the overuse of antibiotic drugs.
C) So far, only a few bacteria have developed resistance to antibiotic drugs.
D) Antibiotic drugs have been widely prescribed for conditions that did not need antibiotic drugs, and traces of antibiotic drugs given to animals show up in the meat.
Q2) Which category of drugs used to treat HIV binds directly to the enzyme reverse transcriptase?
A) fusion inhibitor drugs
B) non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs
C) aminoglycoside drugs
D) protease inhibitor drugs
Q3) Briefly explain how penicillin antibiotic drugs work and why they are not harmful to human cells.
Q4) Some resistant bacteria produce the enzyme beta lactamase,which is also known as ________.
Q5) Sulfonamide drugs are also known as ________ drugs.
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Chapter 22: Chemotherapy Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The generic drugs vinblastine,vincristine,and vinorelbine all belong to the category of ________ alkaloid chemotherapy drugs.
Q2) The well-known generic chemotherapy antibiotic drug doxorubicin is related to the trade name drug ________.
A) it has no trade name associated with it.
B) Adriamycin
C) Leukeran
D) Myleran
Q3) Interleukin stimulates lymphocytes to attack cancer cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Monoclonal antibody drugs selectively bind to specific antigens on the surface of cancer cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Chemotherapy antibiotic drugs are used to treat cancer and are also used to bacterial infections as regular antibiotic drugs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Vaccines
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Sample Questions
Q1) The abbreviation MMR and the trade name drug M-M-R II are both related to the ________ vaccine.
Q2) All of the following,EXCEPT ________,provide short-term (temporary)immunity against a disease that the patient has already been exposed to and does not have their own antibodies for.
A) hepatitis immune globulin
B) rabies immune globulin
C) influenza vaccine
D) tetanus immune globulin
Q3) Diphtheria is a bacterial disease that causes a gray membrane across the throat that can cause suffocation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Immunoglobulin A is found in ________.
A) tears and saliva
B) antigens
C) mucous membranes of the nose, lungs, and intestines
D) A and C
Q5) Another name for the varicella virus is ________.
Q6) Why were vaccines developed?
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Anesthetic Drugs
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Q1) The drugs diazepam,lorazepam (Ativan),and midazalom are ________ drugs given preoperatively to relieve anxiety and provide sedation.
Q2) Drugs for the induction of anesthesia are ________.
A) given intravenously
B) provide a rapid loss of consciousness
C) are used to relax the abdominal muscles
D) A and B
Q3) While most of the narcotic drugs given preoperatively to relieve pain and provide sedation are Schedule II drugs,but which is a Schedule IV narcotic drug?
A) meperidine (Demerol)
B) morphine (Duramorph)
C) oxymorphone (Opana)
D) pentazocine (Talwin)
Q4) Antihistamine drugs are given preoperatively to decrease anxiety,provide sedation,as well as to dry up oral secretions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The abbreviation MPF stands for methylparabens ________.
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Chapter 25: Emergency Drugs, Intravenous Fluids, and Blood Products
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 0.9 percent solution of sodium chloride is also known as ________.
A) Ringer's lactate
B) D5W
C) TPN
D) normal saline
Q2) Plasma needs to be typed and cross-matched prior to administration because of the risk associated with transfusion reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ipecac syrup can only be given to a patient who is conscious.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is the intravenous fluid half normal saline written as 0.45% instead of as 0.5%?
Q5) The abbreviation ________ stands for the federal organization that is responsible for the safety of blood and blood products in the United States.
Q6) Histamine is released in massive amounts during anaphylaxis.
A)True
B)False
Page 27
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