Principles of Pharmacology Review Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Pharmacology introduces students to the fundamental concepts underlying drug action and interactions within the human body. Topics include the mechanisms of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, as well as the molecular basis of drug-receptor interactions. The course explores pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, therapeutic applications, adverse effects, and factors influencing drug response. Through case studies and clinical examples, students gain foundational knowledge essential for understanding the safe and effective use of medications in medical and healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock
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79 Chapters
773 Verified Questions
773 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Australia,there are some Schedule 3 medications that can be advertised in the popular media.One example of a medication to which this advertising policy applies is:
A) miconazole pessaries.
B) ampicillin capsules.
C) royal jelly preparations.
D) codeine tablets.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following acne preparations CANNOT be purchased as an over-the-counter preparation?
A) An isotretinoin preparation
B) A sulphur preparation
C) A resorcinol preparation
D) A benzoyl peroxide preparation
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Medicines and Poisons in Australia,in which drug schedule is a controlled drug classified?
A) Schedule 1.
B) Schedule 2.
C) Schedule 4.
D) Schedule 8.
Answer: D
Q2) In Victoria,midwives employed in hospitals are permitted to initiate administration of up to two pethidine injections to a woman in labour without a health professional's order.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Australian regulations require nursing staff to maintain a ward register for administration of controlled drugs and periodically check the balance of ampoules,tablets and volumes of liquid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paternalism occurs when:
A) health care professionals carry out a particular treatment deemed to be of benefit to the client and then neglect to document this treatment in the client's medical history.
B) health care professionals carry out a particular treatment deemed to be of benefit to the client and then neglect to inform the client about this treatment.
C) health care professionals do not carry out a particular treatment deemed to be of benefit to the client.
D) health care professionals carry out a particular treatment deemed to be of benefit to the client and then neglect to inform the chief executive officer of the institution.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is an instrument that is used to uphold the right of autonomy?
A) Therapeutic privilege
B) Non-voluntary euthanasia
C) Informed and valid consent
D) A not for resuscitation (NFR) order
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Q1) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
Q3) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Q1) Which of the following healthcare workers have some prescribing rights,are able to order context-specific pathology and radiology tests,and are able to make limited referrals?
A) assistant in nursing
B) registered nurse
C) nurse practitioner
D) nurse researcher
Q2) Which of the following health professionals maintain a person's airway,breathing and circulation in medical emergency situations,and are permitted to administer medicines for chronic and life-threatening conditions?
A) Pharmacist
B) Paramedic
C) Physiotherapist
D) Podiatrist
Q3) Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Storing biological products,for example insulin at 0-4°C,prevents:
A) proliferation.
B) pain on administration.
C) medication errors.
D) denaturation.
Q2) Is it problematic to administer heparin via intramuscular injection?
A) No, intramuscular and subcutaneous administration are both safe and effective.
B) No, as long as the dose is appropriate.
C) Yes, it can cause a haematoma to form.
D) Yes, limited blood flow to skeletal muscles causes reduced bioavailability of the drug.
Q3) There is a risk of damage to the large sciatic nerve when administering a drug by intramuscular injection into the gluteus muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nasal preparations are not absorbed systemically.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT representative of the 'quality use of' facet of the National Medicines Policy?
A) Only focusing on drug therapy
B) Choosing suitable medicines
C) Safe use of medicines
D) Effective use of medicines
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Australia's National Medicines Policy?
A) Timely access to the medicines that Australians need, at a cost individuals and the community can afford
B) Medicines meeting appropriate standards of quality, safety and efficacy
C) Quality use of medicines
D) Consumers and health professionals communicating effectively about medicines management
Q3) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many registered nurses are needed to check information for administration of drugs such as narcotic analgesics,digoxin and warfarin?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) More than five
Q2) The rights of drug administration are:
A) giving the right drug, in the right dose, to the right person, by the right route, at the right time.
B) giving the right drug, in the right dose, at the right time.
C) giving the right drug, in the right dose, by the right route.
D) giving the right drug, in the right dose, to the right person.
Q3) A health professional is required to practice within the policies and procedures of the health care agency and to follow the legal framework of government legislation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
Q3) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
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11
Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug
Reactions
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Q1) A common adverse drug reaction is hypertension.The drug therapy for treatment of hypertension may include the following EXCEPT:
A) -adrenoreceptor agonists.
B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
C) calcium antagonists.
D) -adrenoreceptor antagonists.
Q2) A conscious client with respiratory depression should be placed in a:
A) flat position.
B) semi-upright position.
C) side position.
D) prone position.
Q3) Which drug is the most common cause of an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Aspirin
B) Contrast media
C) Penicillin
D) Transfused blood
Q4) Aplastic anaemia caused by chloramphenicol is an example of type B adverse drug reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) When comparing absolute risk reduction to relative risk reduction,one must consider:
A) the incidence of an outcome event.
B) the incidence of a sentinel event.
C) That only the relative risk statistics are accurate.
D) that more weight is given to absolute risk data.
Q2) An example of a medication that has been scrutinised for risk-benefit analysis is: A) insulin.
B) warfarin.
C) alendronate.
D) prednisone.
Q3) Another name for absolute risk is risk difference.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Relative risk refers to the ratio of the incidence of an adverse event occurring in individuals taking a medication as compared to individuals not taking a medication having the same adverse event.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
Q3) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Q1) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is,the drug is extensively bound to a tissue),its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False
Q2) By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption through a blood vessel wall?
A) Intramuscularly
B) Intradermally
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously
Q3) Highly lipophilic substances can cross the blood-brain barrier.Which of the following cannot cross the blood-brain barrier in normal circumstances?
A) Alcohol
B) Penicillin
C) Glucose
D) Antihistamines
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15
Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) To elicit a rapid systemic effect,the route that will enable the maximum bioavailability is:
A) intramuscular.
B) oral.
C) intravenous.
D) intradermal.
Q2) After a single dose of a drug with a half-life of 8 hours,how much of the drug remains after 16 hours?
A) 50 per cent
B) 12.5 per cent
C) 100 per cent
D) 25 per cent
Q3) Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:
A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Q4) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
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Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When suxamethonium and thiopentone are mixed in the same syringe,the drug-drug interaction that results is:
A) summation.
B) chemical drug incompatibility.
C) potentiation.
D) augmentation.
Q2) In which way can hepatic enzymes be altered by drug metabolism?
A) Can cause enhancement or inhibition of metabolism
B) Can interact with the external environment
C) Are only altered in conjunction with food
D) Are only considered with regard to synergistic effects between drugs
Q3) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.
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Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pharmacodynamics describes the physiological processes that act on a drug once it enters the body,or how the body handles the drug.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A drug mechanism that works to neutralise stomach acid is considered to be:
A) an action targeting ion channels.
B) a chemical action.
C) an agonist action.
D) a physical action.
Q3) In general,a medicine that acts by chemical or physical means can be identified by its dose,which is considerably higher than that required by medicines that act by interacting with a receptor or enzyme system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a drug acts through non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme,it:
A) can be overcome by giving more of the enzyme substrate.
B) is usually reversible.
C) binds to a distinct site away from the active site.
D) is lethal to the person receiving treatment.
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subacute toxicity tests are characterised by:
A) repeated drug doses over a period of days to reveal tissue targets for damage.
B) tissue targets for damage associated with high single drug doses.
C) repeated drug doses for a period of months in order to assess the toxic dose ranges.
D) the effects of the drug on fertility, implantation and the developing human.
Q2) The terms side effect and adverse effects are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Into which medicines in pregnancy category is a drug assigned that has caused or is suspected of causing fetal harm,but not malformations?
A) Category B
B) Category C
C) Category D
D) Category X
Q4) Only a few medicines are excreted in breast milk.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following factors is likely to result in higher plasma drug levels?
A) Taking a water-soluble drug during a meal
B) Administering a drug orally when a client is experiencing an episode of severe diarrhoea
C) Administering the narcotic analgesic morphine to a person with cirrhosis of the liver
D) Administering a drug that is subject to significant metabolism to a person whose occupation involves handling chemicals that induce microsomal enzymes.
Q2) One trial that clearly illustrated problems with gene therapy was among children with severe combined immunodeficiency. What was the serious secondary effect believed to be a result of this form of therapy?
A) Progression to HIV
B) Increased mortality from the initial diagnoses
C) Leukaemia
D) Heart failure
Q3) Two techniques used in gene therapy include in vitro and vector methods.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Q1) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Q1) In geriatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) arrange for all drugs to be dispensed to clients in childproof containers.
B) administer all drugs to all clients so that they can concentrate on resting and getting better.
C) encourage the client to learn about their medications prior to discharge.
D) use the deltoid muscle for intramuscular injection in a client with muscle wasting.
Q2) Which of the following would assist in medication adherence for the older person?
A) Simple medicine regimens
B) Use of medication aids
C) Improved communication
D) All of the above
Q3) Compared to neonates,do the elderly have greater or diminished drug effects due to variation in the volume of body fluid?
Q4) In paediatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) leave medications on the bedside locker for later administration.
B) use the vastus lateralis muscle for intramuscular injection.
C) prepare medicines for injection in front of the child.
D) advise the child that injections are painless.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?
A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate
Q2) Which of the following best characterizes the mode of action of cyanide poisoning?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Displaces essential trace elements and accumulates in tissues
C) Permanently disables the enzyme cholinesterase
D) Diminishes cellular energy
Q3) Which of the following best characterises the main principles associated with the emergency management of poisoning?
A) Life support, clinical assessment, decontamination and detoxification, neutralisation and elimination of the poison
B) The monitoring of adverse effects after ingestion of the poison
C) The identification of the chemical associated with the poisoning and administration of decontaminating agents
D) None of the above
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Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Q1) In order to facilitate the pooling of stomach contents and hinder their movement into the duodenum,an unconscious person undergoing gastric lavage needs to be positioned:
A) on their back.
B) on their right side.
C) on their left side.
D) in a semi-recumbent position
Q2) The passing of a patient's blood across a medium containing adsorbent beads is called:
A) haemoperfusion.
B) haemosiderosis.
C) haemodialysis.
D) haemolysis.
Q3) The principle of management of clinical drug overdose that takes precedence over all others is:
A) life support.
B) patient assessment.
C) drug detoxification.
D) drug elimination.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
Q2) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
Q4) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is considered a banned substance by WADA?
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
C) Pseudoephedrine
D) Diuretics
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT usually given by sportspeople as a reason for drug doping?
A) To increase popularity amongst peers
B) To gain a competitive edge
C) To cope with stress
D) Dissatisfaction with current performance
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to detection of drug use in sport?
A) Individual differences in pharmacokinetics affect the results of drug tests.
B) Sportswomen can use some drugs on the WADA banned list that sportsmen cannot.
C) Peptide hormone misuse can be difficult to detect.
D) Low-dose anabolic-androgenic steroid use causes feminisation in men.
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Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Q1) Sympathetic stimulation would result in which one of the following sets of responses?
A) Increased gastric juice secretion and increased heart rate
B) Sweating, urinary retention, salivation and pupil dilation
C) Increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, defecation and erection of genitalia
D) Slowed heart rate, increased blood pressure, pupil constriction and pallor
Q2) What effect does the parasympathetic system have on the heart?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Decreases heart rate
C) Causes vasodilation
D) Increases the force of the heart
Q3) The parasympathetic division is activated in an emergency or stressful situation. A)True B)False
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a second messenger?
A) Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
B) Cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)
C) Calcium ion
D) All of the above
Q2) Which enzyme is responsible for the inactivation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)into 5-AMP?
A) Phosphodiesterase
B) Phospholipase
C) Adenylate cyclase
D) Cholinesterase
Q3) Which secondary messenger is associated with \(\alpha_{1}\) receptor activation?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and C
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Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are nicotinic receptors located?
A) Sweat glands
B) Lacrimal glands
C) Neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles
D) Digestive glands
Q2) Neuromuscular agents work on which receptors?
A) M<sub>1</sub>
B) M<sub>2</sub>
C) M<sub>3</sub>
D) Nicotinic
Q3) Which of the following agent is used for the management of malignant hyperthermia?
A) Atropine
B) Suxamethonium.
C) Tubocurarine.
D) Dantrolene
Q4) Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Q1) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
Q2) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
Q3) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are H<sub>1</sub> receptors found?
A) Stomach
B) Smooth muscles
C) Immune cells
D) All of the above
Q2) Antihistamines are used for the treatment of:
A) allergies.
B) anaphylactic reactions.
C) depression.
D) both A and B.
Q3) Which secondary messenger is associated with H<sub>1</sub> receptor activation?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q4) First-generation antihistamines have a longer duration of action.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Q1) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q2) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for:
A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
Q3) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for:
A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
Q4) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Q1) Endothelin receptor antagonists have been used for the treatment of:
A) pulmonary hypertension.
B) ischemic valve disease.
C) peripheral vascular disease.
D) none of the above.
Q2) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q4) Which secondary messenger is associated with endothelin receptors?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transmitter that is particularly associated with cognition,memory formation and skeletal muscle activation is:
A) dopamine.
B) noradrenaline.
C) acetylcholine.
D) serotonin.
Q2) The transmitter associated with emesis is:
A) dopamine.
B) serotonin.
C) noradrenaline.
D) acetylcholine.
Q3) Which part of the human brain is not considered part of the brainstem?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Midbrain
C) Pons
D) Cerebrum
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34
Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholestatic jaundice can occur with which phenothiazine antipsychotic agent,therefore requiring cessation of the agent?
A) Fluphenazine
B) Pericyazine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Pipothiazine
Q2) Which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic agent?
A) Trifluoperazine
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Haloperidol
D) Clozapine
Q3) Which of the following antipsychotic drug groups is associated with photosensitivity,therefore requiring protection from the sun?
A) The butyrophenones
B) The phenothiazines
C) The dibenzodiazepines
D) The thioxanthenes
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35
Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
Q2) Benzodiazepines can induce:
A) amnesia.
B) rage.
C) depression.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following benzodiazepine agents would be suitable for a plane journey where the traveller is having trouble getting to sleep?
A) Clobazam
B) Diazepam
C) Triazolam
D) Nitrazepam
Q4) Which benzodiazepine agent would be considered suitable for a person who has problems with early morning awakening?
A) Triazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Temazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Q1) In terms of the proposed sites of action of antidepressant drugs,which of the following would be expected to produce a therapeutic benefit?
A) The induction of monoamine oxidase activity
B) An increase in the synaptic levels of neurotransmitters serotonin and/or noradrenaline
C) A centrally acting \(\beta_{2}\) agonist
D) Depletion of amine transmitter levels in the presynaptic nerve terminal
Q2) The proposed action of tetracyclic antidepressant drugs is:
A) block transmitter reuptake.
B) block the amine reuptake pump on the presynaptic terminal.
C) inhibit monoamine oxidase.
D) selectively block postsynaptic 5-HT<sub>2</sub> receptors.
Q3) An adverse effect profile of antimuscarinic and antiadrenergic activity and potentially lethal cardiac dysrhythmias is characteristic of which antidepressant drug group?
A) Non-selective MAO inhibitors
B) Tricyclic antidepressants
C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
D) Tetracyclic antidepressants
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive glutamine repeats in the protein coded by the HTT gene is associated with:
A) motor neurone disease.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) Huntington's disease.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
Q2) Mr Penson was being treated with drugs for Parkinson's disease and noted an increase in his libido.What drug may have caused this?
A) The dopamine precursor, levodopa
B) The antimuscarinic, benzhexol
C) Amantadine
D) The MAO-B inhibitor, selegiline
Q3) Neuroleptic drug-induced Parkinsonian symptoms are often treated with:
A) an antimuscarinic agent.
B) a serotonin receptor agonist.
C) an antiemetic agent.
D) an increase in neuroleptic dose.
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38
Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antiseizure drugs requires visual fields to be tested before commencing therapy and at regular intervals during therapy?
A) Valproic acid
B) Phenytoin
C) Vigabatrin
D) Lamotrigine
Q2) Which of the following drug mechanisms of action is desirable in the management of seizures?
A) The stabilisation of the nerve membrane
B) Inhibiting the action of glutamate
C) The enhancement of GABA activity
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following antiseizure medications is associated with severe skin reactions?
A) Valproic acid
B) Phenytoin
C) Vigabatrin
D) Lamotrigine
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Behaviour associated with ADD in children includes:
A) forgetfulness.
B) daydreaming.
C) lack of interest.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
Q3) In order to promote maximum benefit for the treatment of narcolepsy,modafinil should be taken as a daily dose:
A) in the morning, or as two divided doses in the morning and at noon.
B) in the mid-afternoon.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The opioid receptors most involved in mediating analgesia are:
A) delta and epsilon.
B) kappa and delta.
C) mu and epsilon.
D) mu and kappa.
Q2) Which of the following narcotics has a prolonged duration of action?
A) Pethidine
B) Methadone
C) Codeine
D) Fentanyl
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of oxycodone?
A) It has less of a hepatic first pass than morphine.
B) It has a shorter half-life than morphine.
C) It comes as a suppository formulation, which is useful for overnight analgesia.
D) It comes as a scored tablet formulation, which can be crushed and given with water to clients who have difficulties in swallowing tablets whole.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combined use of salicylates and corticosteroids may lead to ________ and should therefore be avoided.
A) tinnitus
B) renal failure
C) peptic ulceration
D) liver failure
Q2) Which enzyme is the target for inhibition by the NSAIDs?
A) Cyclo-oxygenase
B) Phospholipase A
C) Adenylate cyclase
D) 5-Lipoxygenase
Q3) The propionic acid derivatives ibuprofen and naproxen are useful for children suffering from inflammatory disease because they:
A) are not metabolised in the liver.
B) do not cause gastrointestinal problems.
C) are available as oral liquids so that the exact dose can be administered.
D) do not affect platelet aggregation.
Q4) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.
Q5) Which individuals may be more susceptible to paracetamol overdose? Why?
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Sample Questions
Q1) First-line therapy for an acute migraine attack includes:
A) triptans.
B) paracetamol.
C) ergotamine.
D) tricyclic antidepressants.
Q2) Analgesic agents that are effective in treating mild to moderate acute migraine headaches include:
A) ibuprofen and indomethacin.
B) aspirin and paracetamol.
C) piroxicam and sulindac.
D) propranolol and ketamine.
Q3) In treating an acute migraine attack,sumatriptan should not be given with ergotamine because the combination may lead to:
A) excessive bronchoconstriction.
B) excessive vasoconstriction.
C) gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) excessive diuresis.
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43
Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
Q2) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
Q3) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
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Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
Q2) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
Q3) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) In considering therapy with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors,it is important for the client to have regular:
A) liver function tests.
B) renal function tests.
C) blood clotting tests.
D) respiratory function tests.
Q2) Which of the following are not considered good strategies to combat high cholesterol levels and reduce the need for medications?
A)Increasing salt intake
B)Using low- or no-fat dairy products
C)Exercising
D)Increasing consumption of fruits and vegetables
Q3) Long-term statin therapy has been linked to an increased incidence of: A) stroke.
B) heart disease.
C) cataract development.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a second dose of diuretic is required,this is usually administered:
A) mid-morning.
B) midday or early afternoon.
C) early evening.
D) at bedtime.
Q2) \(\beta\)-blockers should not be used in clients with the following conditions
EXCEPT:
A) complicated hypertension.
B) cardiac tamponade.
C) second-degree heart block.
D) sick sinus syndrome.
Q3) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
Q4) Which of the following antihypertensive agents may be considered during pregnancy?
A) -blockers
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) ACE inhibitors
D) Angiotensin II receptor antagonists
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) To avoid tolerance associated with continuous use of nitrate patches,the patient should be advised to:
A) only apply the patches in the morning and evening.
B) only apply the patches when the angina symptoms become apparent.
C) have a nitrate-free period from the patches for about 12 hours each day.
D) only apply the patches at bedtime.
Q2) Which two factors can be the root cause of angina pectoris?
A)Vasospasm and atherosclerotic plaque
B)Vasodilation and atherosclerotic plaque
C)Vasospasm and hypolipidaemia
D)Vasodilation and hypolipidaemia
Q3) Which of the following nitrate formulations is not used to prevent angina symptoms?
A) Oral isosorbide dinitrate controlled-release tablets
B) Oral isosorbide mononitrate controlled-release tablets
C) Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate
D) Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The benefits of enoxaparin over heparin include that it:
A) is less likely to cause thrombocytopaenia and is more effective in reducing mortality and myocardial infarction in unstable angina.
B) has a longer half-life requiring less frequent monitoring and is safer in pregnancy.
C) A and B.
D) neither A nor B.
Q2) When using aspirin as an antiplatelet agent,how many days before any planned surgery or dental procedures should it be stopped?
A) 2 days
B) 7 days
C) 14 days
D) 21 days
Q3) The antiplatelet agent abciximab is structurally related to A) calcium channel blockers.
B) a bacterial enzyme.
C) the ADP receptor.
D) a vaccine.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these diuretics promotes potassium retention?
A) Spironolactone
B) Frusemide
C) Chlorothiazide
D) Ethacrynic acid
Q2) Which of the following diuretic agents is not recommended to be given with an ACE inhibitor?
A) Chlorothiazide
B) Frusemide
C) Ethacrynic acid
D) Spironolactone
Q3) A mannitol infusion bag appears to crystallise.What should the health professional know about this phenomenon?
A)The bag should be discarded immediately.
B)This is normal if the temperature of the bag is too high-the bag should be chilled.
C)This is normal if the temperature of the bag is too low-the bag should be warmed.
D)The infusion should proceed with no action taken.
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50
Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adverse effects such as an unproductive cough and taste disturbances may occur from which category of medicine frequently used for treatment of heart failure?
A) Diuretics
B) Aldosterone antagonists
C) Cardiac glycosides
D) ACE inhibitors
Q2) According to guidelines developed by the National Heart Foundation and Cardiac Society of Australia and New Zealand,what is the first medication to consider for heart failure?
A) -blockers
B)Calcium channel blockers
C)ACE inhibitors
D)Aldosterone antagonist
Q3) Milrinone is an example of what type of cardiac drug?
A) -blockers
B)Calcium channel blockers
C)ACE inhibitors
D)Inotropic vasodilators
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Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug listed below is an example of a class III antidysrhythmic?
A)Dopamine
B)Amiodarone
C)Dobutamine
D)Atropine
Q2) Which electrolyte is not responsible for maintaining a normal heart rhythm?
A)Calcium
B)Potassium
C)Sodium
D)Magnesium
Q3) Which one of the following mechanisms describes the general action of antidysrhythmic agents?
A) Impeding the movement of ions across cardiac cell membranes
B) Enhancing cardiac automaticity
C) Shortening the cardiac action potential
D) Enhancing impulse conduction in the heart
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infusing a hypotonic solution will have which of the following cellular effects?
A) There will be no net shift of fluid.
B) Fluid will shift from the intracellular space to dilute the extracellular space, causing cell shrinkage.
C) Sodium will move from the extracellular space into the intracellular space.
D) Fluid will shift from the extracellular space to a more concentrated intracellular space, causing cell swelling.
Q2) Mild hypokalaemia should be treated in what manner?
A)Dietary supplementation
B)Oral potassium supplementation
C)Slow-release oral potassium
D)Parenteral potassium
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an isotonic solution?
A) 4% glucose with 0.18% sodium chloride
B) 0.45% sodium chloride
C) 10% glucose
D) 25% mannitol
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Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) To reduce the gastric irritation associated with oral iron therapy,the person should be advised to take the preparation:
A) as a suppository.
B) with or immediately after meals.
C) at bedtime.
D) with an antacid.
Q2) Which of the follow is standard therapy in non-myeloid anaemia?
A) Ferrous sulfate
B) Folic acid
C) Erythropoietin
D) Parenteral B<sub>12</sub>
Q3) Which one of the following is considered a cause of anaemia?
A) Vitamin D<sub>3</sub> deficiency
B) Exposure to anabolic steroids
C) Chronic renal failure
D) Elemental iron overload
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following antiasthma agents acts directly on intracellular cAMP levels?
A) Muscarinic antagonists
B) Methylxanthines
C) agonists
D) Leukotriene receptor antagonists
Q2) The extrinsic form of asthma is characterised by:
A) an autonomic nervous system imbalance.
B) a tendency to develop in older individuals.
C) the release of chemical mediators from immune cells in lung tissue.
D) the dominance of the parasympathetic stimulation of the airways.
Q3) Inhaled corticosteroids should be considered as part of the medication regime for asthma if the person is using their \(\beta_{2}\) agonists more than:
A) one time each month.
B) three times each month.
C) three to four times each week.
D) two times each month.
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Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking: A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
Q2) Hyoscine is contraindicated in patients with: A) glaucoma.
B) depression.
C) heart failure.
D) diabetes.
Q3) Which substances are responsible for the symptoms of upper respiratory illnesses?
A)Prostaglandins and mast cells
B)Prostaglandins and histamine
C)Antihistamines and mast cells
D)Antihistamines and leukotrienes
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Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Omeprazole is an example of a:
A) proton pump inhibitor.
B) H<sub>2</sub> antagonist.
C) prostaglandin analogue.
D) cytoprotective.
Q2) Which of the following can cause an increase in stomach acid secretion? Select all that apply.
A) Chocolate
B) Smoking
C) Citrus
D) Mild alcoholic drinks
E) Acetaminophen
Q3) How should histamine H<sub>2</sub>-receptor antagonists be administered in relation to food?
A) They should be administered with food.
B) They should be administered immediately following food.
C) They can be administered with or without food.
D) They should be administered two hours before food.
Q4) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
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Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pectin is an example of what type of antidiarrheal?
A) Absorbent
B) Adsorbent
C) Opioid derivative
D) Belladonna alkaloid
Q2) Outline the potential benefits of peppermint oil in the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome.
Q3) Constipation may be best avoided in many cases by increasing dietary levels of:
A) alcohol.
B) lipids.
C) fibre.
D) meat.
Q4) Treatment with the anti-inflammatory bowel drug sulfasalazine can cause:
A) insomnia.
B) dizziness.
C) male infertility.
D) vitamin A deficiency.
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Q1) Which of the following antiemetic agents requires the person to take appropriate measures to protect themselves from sunlight?
A) Prochlorperazine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Domperidone
D) Ondansetron
Q2) It is important to advise a person who is pregnant about the possible teratogenetic effects of antiemetics during the:
A) first trimester of pregnancy.
B) second trimester of pregnancy.
C) third trimester of pregnancy.
D) labour period.
Q3) Some antiemetics can cause extrapyramidal side effects such as oculogyric crisis.Which of the following medications would best treat those side effects?
A) An antimuscarinic, benztropine
B) A benzodiazapine, diazepam
C) An antipsychotic, olanzapine
D) A hypnotic, midazolam
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Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a suitable strategy to manage a large return of gastric aspirate in a person receiving nasogastric feeding?
A) Lower the head of the person's bed.
B) Use a hyperosmolar feed.
C) Select a feed with a higher fat content.
D) Decrease the rate of infusion.
Q2) What is a suitable strategy to manage a large return of gastric aspirate in a person receiving nasogastric feeding?
A) Lower the head of the person's bed.
B) Use a hyperosmolar feed.
C) Select a feed with a higher fat content.
D) Decrease the rate of infusion.
Q3) Which of the following is the most common complication of parenteral nutrition?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Subcutaneous emphysema
C) Cardiac perforation
D) Infection
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using desmopressin for renal function testing,effectiveness of treatment is determined by:
A) measuring blood levels of antidiuretic hormone.
B) measuring blood levels of potassium.
C) monitoring fluid balance.
D) measuring urinary levels of sodium.
Q2) What is the indication for clomiphene?
A) Contraception
B) Ovulatory failure
C) Treatment of ovarian cancers
D) Treatment of growth disorders
Q3) Which one of the following statements about oxytocin is correct?
A) There are no clinical uses for oxytocin.
B) Oxytocin is believed to have strong serotonergic and \(\alpha\)-adrenergic activity.
C) The anterior pituitary lobe secretes oxytocin.
D) Oxytocin promotes breast milk let-down and facilitates placental delivery.
Q4) Bromocriptine is no longer recommended for inhibition of postpartum lactation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following physiological responses is not associated with thyroid hormones?
A) The facilitation of normal musculoskeletal growth
B) Glucose storage in the liver
C) The normal development of the nervous system
D) Normal lactation
Q2) The clinical effects of thionamides for hyperthyroid states do not become apparent until stores of thyroid hormones become depleted,which takes about ________ days after the start of therapy.
A) 2 to 3
B) 5 to 7
C) 7 to 14
D) 21 to 28
Q3) Generally,L-thyroxine is preferable to liothyronine as therapy in hypothyroid states because:
A) it has a longer duration of action.
B) it is less cardiotoxic.
C) levels are easier to monitor.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Q1) The pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with:
A) hyperinsulinaemia.
B) an autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
C) cellular insulin resistance
D) pregnancy.
Q2) An ideal glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA<sub>1c</sub>)level is ________ per cent or less.
A) 7.0
B) 8.0
C) 9.0
D) 10.0
Q3) Which of the oral hypoglycaemic drug groups acts by inducing the release of endogenous insulin?
A) The thiazolidinediones
B) The glucosidase inhibitors
C) The sulfonylureas
D) The biguanides
Q4) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Q1) A typical adverse effect profile of systemic corticosteroid therapy includes:
A) hyperkalaemia, gynaecomastia, skin rashes and menstrual disruption.
B) hot flushes, thromboembolism, leg cramps and gastrointestinal disturbances.
C) nausea, breast tenderness, hypotension and hypoglycaemia.
D) fluid retention, altered mood, altered blood pressure, hypokalaemia, hyperglycaemia and impaired wound healing.
Q2) Which one of the following effects is not associated with adrenocorticoid hormones?
A) An increase in blood glucose levels
B) Sodium and water retention
C) The enhancement of immune processes
D) The distribution of body hair
Q3) During spironolactone therapy,the blood levels of ________ should be monitored.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) urea
D) calcium
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Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Q1) Hormone replacement therapy comprising an oestrogen-progestogen combination for menopausal and postmenopausal women has been found to:
A) be inappropriate for the short-term relief associated with the clinical manifestations of the menopause.
B) lower the risk of cardiovascular disease in postmenopausal women.
C) reduce the relative risk of osteoporosis and colon cancer but increase the risk of breast cancer and thromboembolism for postmenopausal women receiving therapy.
D) be safer than the use of a selective oestrogen receptor modulator in the management of osteoporosis.
Q2) The AAS nandrolone may be used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.
Q3) To ensure maximum efficacy for postcoital contraception,it needs to be administered within 12 hours of sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
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65
Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Q1) Vitamin D deficiency may occur due to:
A) hypercalcaemia.
B) use of selective oestrogen receptor modulators.
C) inadequate sun exposure.
D) use of calcipotriol.
Q2) The mechanism of action of the bisphosphonates is to:
A) release calcium from bones.
B) inhibit bone breakdown and resorption.
C) increase the sensitivity of the calcium-sensing receptors on parathyroid gland cells.
D) raise the blood levels of oestrogen.
Q3) Osteonecrosis of the jaw is a serious adverse effect of which drug class?
A) Bisphosphonates
B) Calcimimetic agents
C) Monoclonal antibodies
D) Calcitonin
Q4) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
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Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Q1) When commencing a uricosuric agent such as probenecid,the person should be advised to:
A) cease all other medications to reduce drug interactions.
B) ensure adequate fluid intake to reduce kidney stone formation.
C) avoid direct sunlight.
D) avoid urine alkalising preparations.
Q2) To minimise the increased incidence of acute gouty attacks at the start of allopurinol treatment,________ should be given concurrently for the first two months of treatment.
A) colchicine or an NSAID
B) probenecid
C) an intra-articular injection of methylprednisolone
D) a urinary alkaliser such as sodium bicarbonate
Q3) Which one of the following drugs or drug groups acts to increase the excretion of uric acid?
A) The corticosteroids
B) Colchicine
C) Probenecid
D) Allopurinol
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Page 67
Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Q1) Which of the following medications should not be used with the stimulant anorectic phentermine?
A) Amoxycillin
B) Tramadol
C) Paracetamol
D) Metformin
Q2) Describe some nonpharmacological strategies for weight loss.
Q3) In humans,there are two feeding centres located in the:
A) brain stem.
B) thalamus.
C) hypothalamus.
D) pons.
Q4) For maximum benefit from the anorectic agent orlistat,the dose should be taken:
A) with three main meals daily.
B) with the morning meal.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
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68
Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Q1) If a microbe has developed resistance to a certain antimicrobial preparation,the prescriber should:
A) increase the frequency of the dose of the antimicrobial.
B) increase the dose of the antimicrobial.
C) determine which antimicrobial the microbe may be sensitive to.
D) prescribe topical preparations only.
Q2) Individuals with antibiotic-associated colitis should be treated with: A) codeine.
B) cholestyramine.
C) loperamide.
D) tetracycline.
Q3) It is recommended that surgical prophylaxis with antibiotics is not undertaken with a:
A) mastectomy.
B) coronary bypass surgery.
C) splenectomy.
D) large bowel resection.
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69
Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Q1) The actions of the sulfonamides and trimethoprim:
A) are considered bactericidal.
B) are identical, as they interrupt the process at the same point.
C) interfere with nucleic acid synthesis.
D) are not influenced by folic acid stores.
Q2) During treatment with selected sulfonamides,a client may experience diarrhoea.This usually indicates:
A) a change in the balance of gut flora.
B) gastrointestinal tract bleeding.
C) drug crystallisation.
D) an allergic reaction.
Q3) Trimethoprim is best taken as a single daily dose:
A) in the morning.
B) at midday.
C) in the mid-afternoon.
D) at bedtime.
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) Quinolones are contraindicated in pregnant women and children for what reason?
A) They are ototoxic at small doses
B) They can permanently discolour teeth
C) They can damage developing joints permanently
D) They are only useful for Gram positive bacterium
Q2) When a person commences therapy with tetracycline,they should be advised to:
A) cease therapy when they feel better.
B) avoid ingestion just before bedtime.
C) take it with meals.
D) regard abdominal pain as a tolerable side effect and not to bother their health professional about it.
Q3) The aminoglycosides are particularly toxic to what areas? Select all that apply.
A) Kidneys
B) Liver
C) Eighth cranial nerve
D) Neuromuscular junction
E) Temporal mandibular joint
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Q1) In the context of antituberculotic drug action,a bactericidal drug:
A) kills all tuberculosis bacteria.
B) targets dividing bacteria.
C) kills persistent dormant bacteria.
D) targets bacteria in the lungs.
Q2) Which of the following factors would cause favourable conditions for tuberculosis to spread?
A) Social inequity
B) Overcrowding
C) Exposure to livestock/wildlife that may be infected
D) All of the above
Q3) Which tests should be regularly undertaken during rifampicin therapy?
A) Monitor the full blood count and liver function during the course of therapy.
B) Monitor electrolyte levels and cardiac function during the course of therapy.
C) Monitor renal function and exercise tolerance during the course of therapy.
D) Monitor hearing and eye function during the course of therapy.
Q4) Treatment for tuberculosis consists of a bactericidal phase and a sterilising phase.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) An example of a disinfectant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q2) Cetrimide inhibits bacterial growth because of its ________ properties.
A) detergent
B) oxidising
C) alkylating
D) reducing
Q3) An example of a sterilant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.
Q4) An example of an antiseptic is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Q1) ________ should be assessed before and following a long-term course of therapy using chloroquine or its derivatives.
A) Liver enzyme levels
B) Visual acuity
C) Cardiac enzyme levels
D) Urea and creatinine levels
Q2) Tapeworms are:
A) cestodes.
B) nematodes.
C) cathodes.
D) trematodes.
Q3) It has been estimated that the carrier rate of Entamoeba hystolitica in poorly sanitised areas is:
A) 50 per cent.
B) 20 per cent.
C) 10 per cent.
D) 75 per cent.
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74
Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Q1) The antiviral agents called neuraminidase inhibitors are useful in treating _________ infection.
A) HIV/AIDS
B) respiratory syncytial virus
C) herpes
D) influenza
Q2) Which illnesses can be treated with acyclovir?
A) Herpes simplex I
B) Herpes zoster
C) Varicella
D) All of the above
Q3) The only recognised use of foscarnet is treatment of CMV:
A) in otherwise healthy patients.
B) in pregnant patients.
C) in paediatric patients.
D) secondary to HIV.
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Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Q1) ________,which occur in about one-third of individuals on voriconazole,should be regularly monitored.Which changes are reversible when voriconazole therapy is completed?
A) Hearing and vestibular changes
B) Vision changes
C) Muscle strength changes
D) Taste changes
Q2) The antifungal amphotericin can be used:
A) topically, intravenously and in lozenge form.
B) intramuscularly, intrathecally and transdermally.
C) intramuscularly and intravenously.
D) topically and orally.
Q3) Tinea cruris is also known as:
A) athlete's foot.
B) ringworm.
C) onychomycosis.
D) jockstrap itch.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Q1) Interferon is indicated in the treatment of the following EXCEPT:
A) myasthenia gravis.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) selected leukemias.
D) genital warts.
Q2) Which types of white blood cells are involved in allergic reactions? Select all that apply.
A) Monocytes
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Neutrophils
Q3) The desired therapeutic effect of colony stimulating factors are to increase the:
A) rate of colonisation of bacteria within a suspension.
B) numbers of circulating leukocytes.
C) heart rate.
D) rate of platelet aggregation.
Q4) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Q1) Why would erythropoietin be given to a patient undergoing cancer treatment?
A) To counteract anaemia
B) To minimise nausea
C) To control pain
D)To protect against bone loss
Q2) Which of the following drug groups directly targets the intracellular cascade of reactions leading to proliferation and survival of cancerous cells?
A) S-phase inhibitors
B) Monoclonal antibodies
C) Radioactive samarium
D) Protein kinase inhibitors
Q3) Tretinoin is closely related to which vitamin?
A) Vitamin D
B) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin B
D) Vitamin A
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Q1) Dandruff can be caused in part by a fungal infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the newer treatments for psoriasis is:
A) coal tar.
B) UV light treatment.
C) methotrexate.
D) ustekinumab.
Q3) Acne rosacea is best treated with topical:
A) erythromycin.
B) clindamycin.
C) metronidazole.
D) clotrimazole.
Q4) Which non-drug product is considered the mainstay of eczema treatment?
A) Colloidal oatmeal
B) Coal tar
C) Emollients
D) Baking soda
Q5) Discuss the effects of UV rays on the skin.
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drug groups can be used as mydriatic agents?
A) -blockers
B) Prostaglandin analogues
C) Muscarinic agonists
D) -adrenergic agonists
Q2) Systemic absorption of eye drops can be prevented by:
A) waiting at least 10 minutes between administering drops.
B) tilting the head back during instillation.
C) closing the eye very slowly following instillation.
D) applying pressure to the tear duct immediately after instillation.
Q3) Visual accommodation results from:
A) sympathetic stimulation of the iris.
B) parasympathetic stimulation of the ciliary processes.
C) sympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal apparatus.
D) parasympathetic stimulation of the ciliary muscle.
Q4) Which one of the following drugs is used as an ocular astringent?
A) Polyvinyl alcohol
B) Zinc sulfate
C) Chlorhexidine acetate
D) Rose bengal
Page 80
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Q1) Red clover can be used in which conditions? Select all that apply.
A) Whooping cough
B) Osteoporosis
C) Menopause
D) Pregnancy
Q2) Powdered ginger is less effective than ginger ale.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Red clover should be avoided in individuals with:
A) asthma.
B) breast cancer.
C) epilepsy.
D) clotting deficiency.
Q4) Aloe vera has been used for:
A) burns.
B) constipation.
C) general skin care.
D) all of the above.
Q5) List some Common herbal medicines that are unsafe for use in pregnancy.
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