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Principles of Nutrition provides a foundational understanding of the science behind human nutrition and its role in health and disease. The course explores the functions, sources, and requirements of essential nutrients including carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water. Students will examine digestion, absorption, and metabolism of nutrients, as well as the impact of nutritional choices across the lifespan. Emphasis is placed on current dietary guidelines, nutrition assessment, and the relationship between diet, lifestyle, and chronic disease risk. The course also introduces the skills necessary to evaluate nutritional information and apply evidence-based knowledge to personal and public health decisions.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 12th Edition by Ruth A. Roth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nutrient deficiency displays lesions at the corners of the mouth?
A)vitamin B
B)riboflavin
C)folic acid
D)iron
Answer: B
Q2) Osteoporosis is a dietary deficiency of calcium and vitamin D that causes bones to soften and may cause the spine to bend.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What biochemical analysis of blood samples may indicate kidney failure?
A)serum albumin level
B)serum transferrin level
C)creatinine excretion
D)blood urea nitrogen
Answer: D
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Q1) Examine the labels of five cans or packages of food products in your cabinet. Prepare a chart to compare the contents, per serving, of sodium, carbohydrates, calories, protein, fat, fiber, serving size, and sugar. What conclusions can you deduce from the chart?
Answer: The student should recognize the label information as being of value to the consumer. The percentage of Daily Values of each nutritional item is listed per serving. Maximum and minimal amounts of nutrients are also noted. Students should recognize the elevated sodium levels in processed foods, as well as the total carbohydrates and sugar content, which tend to be elevated in different types of foods. In the effort to make the consumer more aware of diet as a factor in good health, health claims that link nutrients to health conditions are on the label. Comparing manufacturers' data will make students more aware of the contents of some of the cheaper brands.
Q2) Italians consume a healthy mix of pasta, rice, beans, olives, fruits, vegetables, and seafood in their diets. However, they would benefit from adding lower-fat meats to improve their diets.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Which of the following factors does not contribute to one's basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
A)lean body mass
B)daily activity
C)heredity
D)climate
Answer: B
Q2) What additional symptoms that may occur should the client be made aware of? What are the complications of a hiatal hernia?
Answer: Chronic irritation from the acids may result in cancer. If the hernia is unmanageable with medical treatment, surgery may be performed.
Q3) Which hormone causes the release of sodium bicarbonate to neutralize the acidity of chyme?
A)gastrin
B)pepsin
C)secretin
D)cholecystokinin
Answer: C
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Q1) Which disaccharide is produced by enzymatic action during the digestion of starch in the body?
A)lactose
B)sucrose
C)maltose
D)glycogen
Q2) What role does glycogen play in carbohydrate metabolism?
Q3) Before carbohydrates are absorbed they are changed to ____.
A)glycogen
B)insulin
C)glucose
D)maltose
Q4) When the amount of glucose in the blood becomes excessively high, the condition is called ____.
A)lactose intolerance
B)hyperglycemia
C)hypoglycemia
D)renal failure
Q5) With the above food sources in mind, what nutrients are Jill and Henry not receiving?
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Q1) The Food and Nutrition Board's Committee on Diet and Health recommends that people reduce their fat intake to _____ of total calories.
A)25%
B)35%
C)20%
D)30%
Q2) What organ controls fat metabolism?
A)kidney
B)liver
C)gallbladder
D)pancreas
Q3) Discuss the cultural and emotional influences that play a role in this scenario.
Q4) Discuss the digestion of fats. Where does it occur? Explain the process. What additional substances produced by the body aid in the digestion of fats?
Q5) What indicators are clues to Reinay's weight-conscious habits?
Q6) Fats are soluble in water.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What impact does the lack of fiber in the diet have on cholesterol in the body?
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Q1) Since his younger sibling was born, Mario's diet has consisted mainly of grains. He lives in a remote area that makes it difficult for perishable foods to be transported in. What food sources are of highest quality and are likely to be transported to his country?
Q2) When completing a nursing care plan for Ariel, based on protein and metabolic needs, what are the desired outcomes/evaluation criteria for Ariel?
Q3) What is tofu made from?
A)corn
B)legumes
C)chickpeas
D)soy milk
Q4) Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins all contain the following elements: ____.
A)carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
B)carbon, hydrogen, and magnesium
C)carbon, nitrogen, and sulfur
D)nitrogen, carbon, and oxygen
Q5) Why does edema occur in this state of malnutrition?
Q6) Describe the conditions under which the body would use protein as a source of energy.
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Q1) Describe the types of people who are prone to vitamin deficiencies.
Q2) Deficiency of which vitamin can result in scurvy?
A)vitamin C
B)vitamin D
C)vitamin B12
D)vitamin A
Q3) Which vitamin is essential for maintaining a healthy immune system?
A)vitamin B12
B)vitamin A
C)alpha-tocopherol
D)cholecalciferol
Q4) Vitamin C is a fat-soluble vitamin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____ are an example of a precursor.
A)Pantothenic acids
B)Carotenoids
C)Coenzymes
D)Antioxidants
Q6) Describe why mineral oil should not be used as a laxative.
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Q1) Ms. James asks you to recommend the best food sources of calcium.
Q2) Describe the relationship between the electrolytes, potassium and sodium, and edema.
Q3) Educate Ms. James regarding measures to delay or reduce bone loss.
Q4) The adequate intake of fluoride remains the same from infancy throughout the life cycle because the bones and teeth are fully developed by early adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Minerals are present in all body tissues; however, they make up only 4% of body weight.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Ms. James does not like milk. Give her a list of some alternate foods that are high in calcium.
Q7) Which mineral's absorption is affected by an excessive use of antacids?
A)sodium
B)potassium
C)phosphorus
D)calcium
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Q1) Water is a _____ for nutrients and waste products.
A)solute
B)solvent
C)solution
D)none of the above
Q2) Which organ has the main role of helping electrolyte balance?
A)liver
B)stomach
C)heart
D)kidneys
Q3) What is the average daily adult requirement for water?
A)1,800 mL
B)5 mL for every calorie consumed
C)1 mL for every calorie consumed
D)at least 500 mL a day
Q4) Which of the following conditions may arise with a positive water balance?
A)hyperthyroidism
B)diabetes
C)low white blood cell count
D)congestive heart failure
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Q1) _____ is the condition when nausea persists and becomes so severe that it is life-threatening.
A)Parenteral gravidarum
B)Morning sickness
C)Hyperemesis gravidarum
D)Binge-purge gravidarum
Q2) The U.S. Public Health Service and the March of Dimes recommend that all women of childbearing age take a multivitamin or _____ of folic acid daily.
A)800 µg
B)800 mg
C)400 mg
D)400 µg
Q3) _____ is the craving for nonfood substances such as starch or clay.
A)Pico
B)Anemia
C)Pica
D)Picanemia
Q4) List the benefits of breastfeeding.
Q5) "Tell me why I should breastfeed."
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Q1) _____ is an inherited disease affecting the exocrine glands.
A)Cystic fibrosis
B)Galactosemia
C)Diabetes
D)HIV
Q2) The PKU test was positive and the physician diagnosed the infant with PKU. Ms. Newby states, "If the protein is only in milk products, it should not be too hard to watch the diet."
Q3) List nursing interventions that may be used to achieve nutritional goal attainment.
Q4) The physician has made a diagnosis of failure to thrive. The mother does not understand why the nurse and the doctor are so concerned about Lucia's weight. Tell Maryanne about the usual weight gain of infants.
Q5) State instructions for preparing formula for infant feeding.
Q6) What additional information does Maryanne need to know about solid food for infants?
Q7) An infant with galactosemia who is fed lactose-free formula will have all its nutritional needs met. As the infant grows to become an adult, what type of nutrient supplements will be needed?
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Q1) A child's relationship to food and basic eating habits develop early in childhood. Support this statement.
Q2) Which vitamin increases the utilization of iron in the body?
A)vitamins B
B)vitamin C
C)vitamin A
D)vitamin K
Q3) Eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa and bulimia are only seen in female adolescents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A good example of a nutritious snack for a child under the age of 4 would be _____.
A)grapes
B)peanuts and popcorn
C)hard candy
D)cheese and crackers
Q5) Discuss the parameters of the nutritional needs of Chandra, childhood type 2 diabetes, and the impact on her performance as an athlete.
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Q1) Louise's lack of appetite may lead to a medical condition associated with a lack of protein, as well as deficiencies in other nutrients. Discuss this.
Q2) All of the following are related to determining caloric requirements EXCEPT
A)amount of lean muscle mass
B)activity levels
C)BMI
D)food preferences
Q3) At what age does the caloric requirement in adults usually begin to decrease?
A)after the age of 20
B)after menses
C)after the age of 25
D)after retirement
Q4) Osteoporosis is becoming a common occurrence in the young to middle adulthood age groups. A healthy diet is very important in the care of this condition. A diet rich in what nutrients is thought to help prevent osteoporosis?
Q5) The middle period of life ranges from 40 to 65 years old. State the caloric need and the rationale for this age range.
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Q1) The most immediate consequence of overweight as perceived by the children themselves is social discrimination.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How much of the population consumes a diet low in vegetables, fruits, dairy, and oils?
A)50%
B)75%
C)10%
D)25%
Q3) Describe the risk factors associated with childhood obesity.
Q4) List foods to be avoided in a high-calorie diet.
Q5) Compare the physiology of a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGB) with that of an adjustable gastric band (AGB).
Q6) Discuss the use of weight loss medications. Who are they prescribed for and how do they work?
Q7) List nursing interventions in order of priority.
Q8) Discuss some of the reasons for the growing increase in childhood obesity.
Q9) List desired outcomes or evaluation criteria.
Q10) Discuss body mass index (BMI) in relation to health risks. Page 16
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the benefits of exercise.
Q2) What are the goals for medical nutrition therapy for diabetes?
Q3) This type of diabetes, formerly classified as juvenile-onset, occurs suddenly in children and young adults, requiring insulin injections and a carefully controlled diet.
A)type 2
B)type 1
C)gestational
D)pre-diabetes
Q4) Diabetes is a metabolic disease caused by improper functioning of the liver that results in inadequate production of insulin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the goal or expected outcome for diet therapy for a diabetic client?
Q6) How is fiber considered a therapeutic tool in the meal plan for a client with diabetes?
A)slows the release of insulin from the pancreas
B)inhibits fat absorption
C)lowers blood glucose
D)eliminates the need for exogenous insulin in clients with type 1 diabetes
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Q1) James is discharged on day five, in good condition with a plan to decrease cholesterol in his diet. He returns for a checkup in 3 months to find out his cholesterol level is 625. The physician plans to order a cholesterol-lowering drug: simvastatin (Zocor) or atorvastatin (Lipitor). Research these drugs for potential food-drug interactions. Identify the interactions.
Q2) In severe cases of edema, it is possible for a client to adhere to a diet that is totally salt-free.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the general term for vascular disease in which arteries "harden"?
A)atherosclerosis
B)arteriosclerosis
C)cardiovascular disease
D)myocardial infarction
Q4) Discuss the use of sodium and salt by the general population. Include consumption, recommended dietary amount (RDA), and food sources.
Q5) The dietitian calculated Ed's recommended body weight. What type of diet may be ordered for Ed?
Q6) Discuss potential causes and risk factors for cardiovascular disease.
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Q1) Describe the function and the action of the kidneys.
Q2) Discuss the most common types of stones and the dietary therapies of each.
Q3) Vitamin D may be added and phosphorus limited in a renal client's diet in order to prevent _____ (softening of the bones due to excessive loss of calcium).
A)osteomalacia
B)osteoporosis
C)gynecomastia
D)periodontal disease
Q4) A typical renal daily diet is sometimes referred to as "80-3-3," meaning what?
A)80% protein, 3% fats, 3% carbohydrates
B)80 g of carbohydrates, 3 g of fat, 3 g of protein
C)80 g of protein, 3 g of sugar, 3 g of fat
D)80 g of protein, 3 g of sodium, 3 g of potassium
Q5) State nursing interventions for Hazel.
Q6) A client on hemodialysis requires how much protein per kilogram of body weight?
A)1.5 g of protein
B)2 g of protein
C)1.2 g of protein
D)1.8 g of protein
Q7) Hazel's dietary intake is inadequate. How can you get her to eat more?
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Q1) After the bowel has been allowed to rest and heal and the acute phase of diverticulitis is over, a _____ diet is given.
A)low-residue
B)high-fiber
C)low-fiber
D)full liquid
Q2) Acute esophagitis is caused by _____.
A)ingesting an irritating agent
B)intubation
C)hiatal hernia
D)peptic ulcer
Q3) How many grams of fiber would someone following a low-residue diet consume each day?
A)5-10
B)15-20
C)25-35
D)20-25
Q4) How have food manufacturers marketed the gluten-free diet? For what conditions should the gluten-free diet really be used?
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Q1) Describe the role of nutrition for a cancerous condition.
Q2) What nutritional conditions result from use of radiation?
Q3) In protecting against cancer, what is the most important principle of nutrition? Explain.
Q4) What nutritional conditions result from use of chemotherapy?
Q5) Lymphomas develop from white blood cells and affect bone marrow and the spleen.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Families with a genetic predisposition to cancer should take certain precautions. List those.
Q7) What is the most common type of skin cancer?
A) melanoma
B) squamous cell
C) basal cell
D) neoplasm
Q8) What part of the body does squamous cell carcinoma affect and what usually causes it?
Q10) Describe the nutritional needs of the cancer client. Page 22
Q9) Some foods contain substances that may protect against cancer. List those.
Q11) Anorexia is a major problem for cancer clients. List ways to encourage eating.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another name for a disease-causing agent is ____.
A)pathogen
B)antibody
C)antigen
D)invader
Q2) Which of the following bacteria is believed to be one of the most prevalent causes of diarrhea?
A)Campylobacter jejuni
B)Clostridium botulinum
C)Listeria monocytogenes
D)Salmonella
Q3) Which of the following could cause typhoid fever?
A)Salmonella
B)Listeria monocytogenes
C)Shigella
D)Staphylococcus aureus
Q4) An altered reaction to a specific food that does not involve the immune system is called a(n) allergy.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) In preparation for gastrointestinal surgery, a high-residue diet may be ordered for a few days prior to surgery in order to aid in cleansing the colon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Give a nursing diagnosis statement in relation to nutrition.
Q3) One of the major complications of tube feedings is aspiration. Define aspiration and nursing measures to prevent the occurrence.
Q4) Name the term for the provision of nutrients intravenously.
A)parenteral nutrition
B)internal nutrition
C)enteral nutrition
D)gastrointestinal nutrition
Q5) Describe the hypermetabolic state associated with a burn.
Q6) If clients are unable to feed themselves, how should the "feeder" place food in the client's mouth?
A)on the tip of the tongue
B)on the center of the tongue
C)toward the back of the mouth
D)toward the front of the mouth

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