Principles of Nutrition Test Bank
Course Introduction
Principles of Nutrition introduces the foundational concepts of human nutrition, exploring the essential nutrients required for optimal health, their physiological functions, and the body's processes for digestion, absorption, and metabolism. The course examines the role of nutrition in growth, development, and disease prevention, with emphasis on dietary guidelines, nutrient requirements across the lifespan, and the evaluation of food choices. Students will also learn about current issues in nutrition, including food safety, weight management, and the relationship between diet and chronic diseases.
Recommended Textbook
NUTR 1st Edition by Michelle McGuire
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15 Chapters
825 Verified Questions
825 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Why Does Nutrition Matter
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Where was the study published?" is one of the questions that can be helpful in determining if a nutrition claim is hearsay or has a scientific basis. What type of publication is likely to be the most reliable source of nutrition information?
A) A local newspaper
B) A blog written by a food writer
C) A fitness publication
D) A peer-reviewed journal
Answer: D
Q2) Vitamins are classified according to
A) their solubility in water.
B) their alphabetical names.
C) the amounts required to sustain life.
Answer: A
Q3) Both organic and inorganic compounds contain carbon.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Choosing Foods Wisely
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Sample Questions
Q1) You can use _____ to find out how many servings of each food group would be needed to meet nutritional needs.
A) the USDA food patterns
B) the DRIs
C) the MyPlate food guide
D) All of the above
E) A and C
Answer: E
Q2) The 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans established four groups of key recommendations including:
A) Reduce calories to lose weight.
B) Reduce consumption of certain foods and food components.
C) Increase consumption of certain foods and food components.
D) All of the above
E) B and C
Answer: E
Q3) The EAR and RDA standards are identical.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Body Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The colon is the site of absorption of A) prebiotics.
B) probiotics.
C) water and electrolytes.
D) undigested matter.
Answer: C
Q2) Osmosis is the movement of a substance across a cell membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Nutrient absorption takes place in the epithelial cells that line the outer surface of villi. Nutrients are transferred from the cells to the blood or the lymphatic circulation via A) capillaries and lacteals contained in each large fold of the intestinal lining.
B) capillaries and lacteals contained in each villus.
C) capillaries and lacteal contained in each microvillus.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment of type 1 diabetes always requires insulin injections (or an insulin pump).
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most abundant monosaccharide in the human body is
A) galactose.
B) glucose.
C) fructose.
D) sucrose.
Q3) Dietary fiber is classified as a complex carbohydrate because
A) it is an energy storage molecule much like starch and glycogen.
B) it consists of a group of plant polysaccharides.
C) it is not digestible by human enzymes.
D) it uses the same types of chemical bonds as are found in starch.
Q4) Soluble fiber, in addition to reducing risk of heart disease, can A) reduce blood glucose levels.
B) increase blood glucose levels.
C) serve as a probiotic.
D) promote the growth of harmful bacteria in the large intestine.
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Chapter 5: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disruption of protein folding by mechanical shaking, heat, detergents, or acids is called
A) denaturation.
B) transamination.
C) translation.
D) refolding.
Q2) Alterations that change the sequence of information in a gene, leading to a change in the primary structure of a protein, are called
A) epigenetic modifications.
B) epigenetic changes.
C) transcriptional modifications.
D) mutations.
Q3) Alterations that modify a gene by changing its regulation but not the sequence of information are called A) mutations.
B) phenotypic changes.
C) transcriptional modifications.
D) epigenetic modifications.
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Chapter 6: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Triglyceride digestion begins in the mouth because of the activity of A) salivary amylase.
B) lingual lipase.
C) gastric lipase.
D) pancreatic lipase.
Q2) In an omega-3 fatty acid of any chain length the first double bond is
A) between the third and fourth carbons counting from the omega (methyl) end of the molecule.
B) between the third and fourth carbons counting from the alpha (carboxylic acid) end of the molecule.
C) between the sixth and seventh carbons counting from the omega (methyl) end of the molecule.
D) in a trans configuration.
Q3) Eicosanoids are hormone-like compounds produced from A) saturated fatty acids.
B) the essential fatty acids.
C) omega-3 fatty acids.
D) omega-6 fatty acids.
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8
Chapter 7: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency can result in a macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia. This is because
A) vitamin B<sub>12</sub> is directly required for red blood cell production.
B) vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency produces a secondary folate deficiency.
C) of an autoimmune attack on stomach cells producing intrinsic factor.
Q2) Vitamin C acts as an antioxidant because it can A) donate electrons or hydrogen ions to other substances.
B) inhibit oxidation.
C) participate in redox reactions.
D) neutralize free radicals.
E) All of the above
Q3) The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that all newborns in the United States receive a vitamin K injection for all of the following reasons except:
A) to prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding.
B) newborns do not have vitamin K-producing bacteria in their intestines.
C) human milk contains very little vitamin K.
D) vitamin K is lost as a result of bleeding during birth.
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Chapter 8: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evaporative cooling is a mechanism
A) that is effective only in humid environments.
B) for maintaining appropriate body temperature. C) that increases during dehydration.
D) that requires no water replacement.
Q2) Minerals that are components of antioxidant enzymes include all of the following except:
A) manganese. B) copper.
C) zinc.
D) molybdenum.
Q3) Low blood potassium concentrations can result in the condition called A) hypokalemia. B) hypoglycemia.
C) hyponatremia.
D) hypotensinogen.
Q4) Mild iron deficiency during pregnancy poses no risk for the mother or the infant. A)True B)False
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Chapter 9: Energy Balance and Body Weight Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A good strategy for moderating one's diet in order to lose weight is to reduce intake of
A) nutrient-dense foods.
B) energy-dense foods.
C) high-fiber foods.
D) all fats.
Q2) In response to changes in body fat mass, the brain signals changes in food intake but not energy expenditure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ob/ob mouse is obese because it eats uncontrollably. By studying ob/ob mice, scientists discovered _____, a satiety signal that ob/ob mice cannot make because of a genetic mutation.
A) ghrelin
B) leptin
C) the soluble leptin receptor
D) the db gene product
Q4) Overweight and obese people can be physically fit.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Life Cycle Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major concern about early consumption of cow, goat, or soy milk or fruit juices during infancy is that
A) these fluids may displace the intake of iron-containing foods or formula.
B) these fluids are too iron rich.
C) the baby may refuse breast milk or formula.
D) these fluids may inhibit the growth of teeth.
Q2) The developmental origins of health and disease hypothesis states that A) optimal development during pregnancy leads to increased risk of chronic diseases later in life.
B) diseases that develop in the fetus will persist for the remainder of the baby's life.
C) diseases that develop in the fetus predispose the mother to developing chronic diseases later in life.
D) low-birth-weight infants may be predisposed to developing chronic diseases later in life.
Q3) Menopause is associated with increased bone loss.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Nutrition and Physical Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who wants to improve his or her aerobic capacity should
A) put an emphasis on strength training.
B) put an emphasis on endurance training.
C) put an emphasis on flexibility sessions.
D) put an emphasis on muscle hypertrophy.
Q2) The creatine phosphate system can supply all the energy needed for activities that take several minutes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Two main concerns for people who participate in athletics are
A) to consume adequate fluids and calories.
B) to maintain a low body mass or maintain weight.
C) to maximize fat stores to ensure ATP production
D) to optimize water consumption and obtain vitamins and minerals from supplements rather than food.
Q4) To improve cardiovascular fitness one should
A) lift weights.
B) work against resistance.
C) walk at a brisk pace.
D) improve muscle flexibility.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Disordered Eating
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eating disorders are most prevalent among adolescent girls and young adult women.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Binging is never a characteristic of anorexia nervosa.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nocturnal sleep-related eating disorder is distinguished from the night eating syndrome because
A) individuals with night eating syndrome are aware of their eating.
B) because there is no purging associated with night eating syndrome.
C) individuals experience food neophobia during night eating syndrome.
Q4) Binging can be a characteristic of anorexia, bulimia, binge-eating disorder, restrained eating, and nocturnal eating.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Eating disorders are most likely to develop in cultures where
A) food is abundant and fatness is appreciated.
B) food is abundant and thinness is valued.
C) food is abundant and healthy body weights are appreciated.
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Chapter 13: Alcohol, Health, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) In consequence of chronic heavy alcohol consumption, cross-tolerance may occur. This refers to
A) a tolerance for many different kinds of alcoholic beverages.
B) a lower responsiveness to certain medications that would normally be processed by the enzymes assisting in alcohol metabolism.
C) an increased responsiveness to other medications that would normally be processed by the enzymes assisting in alcohol metabolism.
D) a reduced tolerance for alcohol when other medications are being processed.
Q2) Inflammation of the liver that results from obstructed blood flow is called A) cirrhosis.
B) alcoholic hepatitis.
C) liver failure.
D) hepatic inflammatory disorder.
Q3) Heavy drinkers may have impaired nutritional status because A) they tend to overeat.
B) alcohol can interfere with digestion and absorption of various nutrients.
C) alcohol cannot be used in energy production.
D) they cannot cook due to impaired balance.
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15
Chapter 14: Keeping Food Safe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basis of the recommendation that consumers should not wash raw meat, poultry, or fish is that
A) washing raw meats increases the likelihood of cross-contamination.
B) washing raw meats washes away important nutrients.
C) washing raw meats reduces the complexity of the flavor profile.
D) washing raw meats changes the chemistry of cooking (temperatures and times).
Q2) In order to reduce the risk of developing a foodborne illness when traveling abroad, the traveler is advised to
A) drink only bottled water.
B) boil bottled water.
C) only consume fluids from fruits.
D) add ice to water to reduce bacterial growth.
Q3) Common symptoms of foodborne illnesses caused by preformed or enteric toxins include
A) poor coordination in the arms and legs.
B) ringing in the ears.
C) nausea and diarrhea.
D) an abdominal rash.
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16
Chapter 15: Food Security, Hunger, and Malnutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The impact of malnutrition in adults is lower work productivity overall, and this can affect the country's economic growth and standard of living. The most appropriate conclusion to draw from this situation is that
A) nourishing children will be essential in combating economic strife.
B) providing equal educational opportunities to women and girls will become essential to add to the work force.
C) providing workforce training will be critical in reversing the economic impact of malnutrition.
D) not only is poverty a cause of hunger, but hunger is a cause of poverty.
Q2) Food insecurity
A) only affects one's nutritional status.
B) is linked to feelings of alienation and distress.
C) does not lead to hunger.
D) simply means that a person must purchase fewer groceries until his or her next paycheck.
Q3) One of the greatest determinants of food insecurity is poverty.
A)True
B)False
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