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Principles of Nutrition Question Bank - 825 Verified Questions

Page 1


Principles of Nutrition Question Bank

Course Introduction

Principles of Nutrition is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts of human nutrition, including the study of macronutrients, micronutrients, digestion, absorption, and metabolism. The course examines the role of nutrients in maintaining health, preventing disease, and supporting growth and development throughout the lifespan. Students will learn about dietary guidelines, nutrient requirements, food sources, and the impact of lifestyle choices on nutritional status. Emphasis is placed on understanding how nutrition influences overall well-being and how to apply evidence-based recommendations to make informed dietary choices.

Recommended Textbook

NUTR 1st Edition by Michelle McGuire

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15 Chapters

825 Verified Questions

825 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Why Does Nutrition Matter

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The scientific method consists of the following three basic steps:

A) making an observation, proposing a hypothesis, and collecting data.

B) making an observation, collecting data, and analyzing results.

C) proposing a hypothesis, analyzing results, and proposing a new hypothesis.

D) proposing an observation, making a hypothesis, and collecting results.

Answer: A

Q2) The macronutrient class that is important for structural aspects of the body (such as muscle and bone) and also helps to maintain the immune system is

A) carbohydrate.

B) protein.

C) lipid.

D) fat.

Answer: B

Q3) Vitamins are classified according to A) their solubility in water.

B) their alphabetical names.

C) the amounts required to sustain life.

Answer: A

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3

Chapter 2: Choosing Foods Wisely

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Sample Questions

Q1) Nutritional status is assessed using anthropometric, biochemical, clinical, and dietary methods.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is the estimated daily intake of a nutrient

A) that meets the needs of 50% of healthy individuals in a given life-stage and sex category.

B) that meets the needs of 97% of healthy individuals in a given life-stage and sex category.

C) that is established when not enough evidence is available to set an Adequate Intake (AI) level.

D) that should not be exceeded.

Answer: B

Q3) Diet recall is a dietary assessment method that utilizes a 3-day food record. A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Body Basics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Osmosis is the movement of a substance across a cell membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Carrier-mediated transport that requires energy is an example of A) an active transport mechanism.

B) a passive transport mechanism.

C) facilitated transport.

D) simple diffusion.

Answer: A

Q3) The mass of food that the tongue pushes to the pharynx in the first phase of swallowing is called

A) a bolus.

B) a moistened mass.

C) a digestion end product.

D) chyme.

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Carbohydrates

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Sample Questions

Q1) Dietary fiber is least abundant in fruits, vegetables, and whole-grain foods.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Dietary fiber is non-digestible by humans because

A) the enzymes required to digest fiber are depleted by digesting starches.

B) we lack the enzymes to break the types of bonds found in fiber.

C) we don't produce the acid necessary to break the types of bonds found in fiber.

Q3) Complex carbohydrates include all of the following except:

A) monosaccharides and disaccharides.

B) polysaccharides.

C) dietary fiber.

D) starch and glycogen.

Q4) The most abundant monosaccharide in the human body is A) galactose.

B) glucose.

C) fructose.

D) sucrose.

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6

Chapter 5: Protein

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Sample Questions

Q1) The shape of all proteins ranging from small, simple proteins to large, complex proteins is determined by

A) charge interactions.

B) moving outside the cell.

C) their amino acid sequences.

D) the addition of prosthetic groups.

Q2) Denaturation disrupts a protein's three-dimensional shape, and therefore causes the protein to lose its function.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Chemical digestion of proteins begins in the mouth.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Chemical digestion of protein begins in the stomach, where _____ denatures proteins and _____ begins to digest them into smaller pieces.

A) hydrochloric acid, pepsinogen

B) hydrochloric acid, pepsin

C) gastrin, hydrochloric acid

D) gastrin, pepsin

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Chapter 6: Lipids

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Sample Questions

Q1) High intakes of saturated fatty acids, trans fatty acids, and _____ are associated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease in certain people.

A) monounsaturated fatty acids

B) cholesterol

C) phytosterols

D) lecithin

Q2) Trans fatty acids are naturally abundant in avocados.

A)True

B)False

Q3) All lipoproteins have similar structural components but differ in size and density. A)True

B)False

Q4) Rather than cholesterol, plants produce cholesterol-like compounds called phytosterols. Phytosterols have been shown to A) substitute for cholesterol in the human body.

B) be readily absorbed in the human body.

C) lower blood cholesterol levels through unknown mechanisms.

D) be readily incorporated into cell membranes in the human body.

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Chapter 7: The Vitamins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Adequate folate intake during pregnancy can help to prevent A) neural tube defects.

B) preterm labor.

C) morning sickness.

Q2) All water soluble vitamins share 3 similarities: they dissolve in water, they are generally not toxic to the body, and

A) they are absorbed mainly in the small intestine and transported in the blood.

B) they are absorbed mainly in the stomach and transported in the blood.

C) they are absorbed mainly in the small intestine and transported in the lymph.

D) they are absorbed in the large intestine and transported in the blood.

Q3) Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea, and death are known as "the four Ds" associated with deficiency of what vitamin?

A) Thiamin

B) Riboflavin

C) Niacin

D) Pantothenic acid

Q4) Fortification and enrichment of foods are similar processes that A) add nutrients to foods during processing.

B) add nutrients to foods during harvesting.

C) add nutritional supplement information to the labels of certain foods.

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Chapter 8: Water and the Minerals

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Sample Questions

Q1) Complications of dehydration such as mental confusion and seizures are more concerning in children than the elderly.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Minerals that are components of antioxidant enzymes include all of the following except:

A) manganese.

B) copper.

C) zinc.

D) molybdenum.

Q3) Aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone help to regulate fluid balance through identical mechanisms.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In response to renin,

A) angiotensin II is converted to angiotensin I.

B) aldosterone cleaves angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I.

C) angiotensin II stimulates the adrenal glands to secrete aldosterone.

D) aldosterone stimulates the adrenal glands to secrete angiotensin II.

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Chapter 9: Energy Balance and Body Weight Regulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which method uses differences in the ability of lean and adipose tissues to conduct currents to estimate body composition?

A) Underwater weighing

B) Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)

C) Bioelectrical impedance

D) Skinfold thickness

Q2) Obesity increases one's risk of developing type 2 diabetes, stroke, and heart disease.

A)True

B)False

Q3) According to the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, which BMI category represents overweight?

A) < 18.5

B) 18.5-24.9

C) 25.0-29.9

D) 30

Q4) Hypertrophic growth of adipose tissue describes the process of A) formation of new adipocytes.

B) adipocytes accumulating triglycerides so that their size increases.

C) degradation of triglycerides within adipocytes.

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Chapter 10: Life Cycle Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) The developmental origins of health and disease hypothesis states that A) optimal development during pregnancy leads to increased risk of chronic diseases later in life.

B) diseases that develop in the fetus will persist for the remainder of the baby's life.

C) diseases that develop in the fetus predispose the mother to developing chronic diseases later in life.

D) low-birth-weight infants may be predisposed to developing chronic diseases later in life.

Q2) Age-related changes in GI function that can result in diminished nutritional status include all of the following except:

A) changes in swallowing.

B) reduced peristalsis.

C) changes in GI. motility leading to constipation.

D) increased production of gastric juices.

Q3) Menopause is associated with increased bone loss.

A)True

B)False

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Nutrition and Physical Activity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The rationale for the increased protein recommendations for athletes is

A) the ability to utilize more protein for energy production.

B) the need to build, maintain, and repair muscle tissue.

C) the enhanced mental focus associated with increased protein intake.

D) the need for protein only for muscle growth.

Q2) While the protein RDA for a healthy adult protein is 0.8 g per kg body weight per day, some experts believe that athletes should consume more. These experts contend that endurance athletes should consume _____ g protein per kg per day and strength training athletes should consume _____ g protein per kg per day.

A) 0.2-0.4, 0.6-0.7

B) 1.2-1.4, 1.6-1.7

C) 2.2-2.4, 2.6-2.7

D) 3.2-3.4, 4.6-3.7

Q3) A measure of the circulatory and respiratory systems' ability to supply oxygen and nutrients to working muscles during sustained physical activity is called

A) physical fitness.

B) muscular strength.

C) cardiovascular fitness.

D) VO<sub>2</sub> max.

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Disordered Eating

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Sample Questions

Q1) Causes of eating disorders are not well defined, but may include

A) media images of people who are too thin or unrealistically muscular.

B) the need to conform to social pressures related to appearance.

C) family dynamics that create a need for control in one's life.

D) All of the above

Q2) Irrational fear or avoidance of new foods is termed A) food dislike.

B) dietary confusion.

C) food neophobia.

D) bingeing.

Q3) Stress fractures in young women runners with amenorrhea could be a sign of A) overtraining.

B) the female athlete triad.

C) bad shoes.

D) heavy body weight.

Q4) Someone with the female athlete triad is likely to be experiencing A) bone growth.

B) heavy menstrual cycles.

C) amenorrhea

D) weight gain.

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Alcohol, Health, and Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) Liver disorders associated with chronic alcohol consumption include fatty liver. This results from the accumulation of _____ in the liver.

A) dietary fats

B) fatty acids

C) triglycerides

D) cholesterol

Q2) While moderate alcohol is associated with reduced risk of cardiovascular disease, long-term heavy alcohol consumption is associated with harmful cardiovascular consequences such as

A) hypertension.

B) stroke.

C) arrhythmia.

D) All of the above

Q3) Proof is a measure of the alcohol content of distilled liquor. If a beverage is 90 proof, then its alcohol by volume is

A) 9 percent.

B) 45 percent.

C) 90 percent.

D) 180 percent.

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Keeping Food Safe

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Sample Questions

Q1) . The Public Health Security and Bioterrorism Preparedness and Response Act was passed into law in 2002 to address

A) the concerns about contamination of imported foods because of less stringent production practices.

B) the need for more education about foods to avoid while traveling.

C) the prohibitive restrictions on food importation into the United States.

D) the possibility that the food supply might be targeted by a terrorist group in order to harm many people.

Q2) Pesticides and herbicides are examples of noninfectious substances that may cause foodborne illnesses.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Food preservation techniques such as salting, smoking, fermentation, freezing, and irradiation serve the purpose of

A) reducing storage space needed because of shrinkage of the foods.

B) eliminating the need for refrigeration of the foods.

C) killing bacteria in food.

D) preparing the food to be prepared and consumed immediately.

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Chapter 15: Food Security, Hunger, and Malnutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) Children who are malnourished will experience the greatest benefits of intervention, in terms of growth and development, if treated

A) before their second birthday.

B) before their third birthday.

C) before their fourth birthday.

D) before their fifth birthday.

Q2) The Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children encourages mothers to purchase nutrient-dense foods rather than breastfeed.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following best explains why mothers in food-insecure households experience hunger before their children do?

A) The mothers are constantly seeking food and therefore are too tired to eat.

B) The children demand food from their mothers.

C) The mothers consume less food themselves in order to shield their children from hunger.

D) The mothers consume more food than their children, but are too weak to properly metabolize it.

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