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Principles of Nutrition introduces students to the fundamental concepts of human nutrition and its role in health and well-being. The course covers the digestion, absorption, and metabolism of macronutrients and micronutrients, explores the functions of nutrients within the body, and examines dietary guidelines for maintaining optimal health. Students learn to analyze nutritional needs across the lifespan, evaluate the impact of lifestyle and cultural factors on eating behaviors, and discuss the relationship between nutrition and chronic disease prevention. This foundational course equips learners with the knowledge to make informed dietary choices and critically assess nutrition information in the media and society.
Recommended Textbook
NUTR 1st Edition by Michelle McGuire
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15 Chapters
825 Verified Questions
825 Flashcards
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55 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A poor diet is part of the cause of chronic degenerative diseases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) If an investigator designs an intervention study with a control group, that group will receive a _____ instead of the study treatment.
A) panacea
B) placebo
C) half-dose
D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q3) As a society develops into a more industrialized economy, the accompanying shift from under-nutrition to over-nutrition is referred to as the
A) French paradox.
B) nutrition transition.
C) nutrition conundrum.
D) industrialization of nutrition.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that influence a person's nutritional needs include all of the following except:
A) age.
B) sex.
C) activity level.
D) income.
E) genetics.
Answer: D
Q2) Measures of height, weight, head circumference, and body composition are examples of biochemical assessment tools.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Malnutrition is a state of poor nutritional status caused by inadequate intake of nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digestion refers to
A) the chemical breakdown of foods that happens in the mouth, esophagus, and stomach.
B) the breakdown of foods into a form that can be absorbed.
C) the transfer of nutrients from the small intestine into the blood.
D) the process of solid waste elimination.
Answer: B
Q2) Prebiotic foods
A) contain live bacterial cultures.
B) are usually fiber rich and can stimulate the growth of bacteria in the large intestine.
C) provide precursors to bacteria to initiate colonization of the colon.
D) are low-fiber foods like yogurt.
Answer: B
Q3) The symptoms of gastroesophogeal reflux disease (GERD) can be relieved by
A) consuming large meals.
B) avoiding certain types of food, such as fried foods.
C) consuming caffeinated beverages.
D) avoiding treatment.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refined grains serve as abundant carbohydrate sources. However, during processing, the bran is removed from the grain kernel, resulting in
A) a loss of vitamins.
B) a loss of oils.
C) a loss of fiber.
D) a loss of protein.
Q2) A carbohydrate is an organic compound made up of one or more sugar molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Glycolysis is
A) the pathway that combines two 3-carbon pyruvate molecules to form the 6-carbon glucose molecule.
B) the anabolic pathway used to derive energy form glucose.
C) the catabolic pathway used to derive energy from glucose.
D) an oxygen-requiring, aerobic pathway.
Q4) Type 2 diabetes
A) is the least common form of diabetes.
B) occurs during childhood or adolescence.
C) is caused by insulin resistance.
D) is thought to be an autoimmune disorder.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whole proteins can be absorbed through a healthy intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The primary structure of a protein is
A) the final structure of the protein.
B) the linear arrangement of amino acids in a single peptide chain.
C) determined by cell signaling events.
D) altered during protein folding.
Q3) HCl is important for protein digestion for two reasons: 1) it denatures proteins in the stomach, and 2)
A) it stimulates gastrin release from the stomach.
B) it converts pepsinogen into pepsin.
C) it converts pepsin into pepsinogen.
D) it maintains the acid environment necessary in the small intestine for protein digestion.
Q4) The human body can recycle and reuse most of its amino acids from disassembled proteins through protein turnover.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All lipoproteins have similar structural components but differ in size and density.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fatty acids are the most abundant lipid molecules in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What hormone instructs the gallbladder to release bile into the duodenum?
A) Gastrin
B) Cholecystokinin
C) Secretin
D) Bile-releasing hormone
Q4) Micelles are
A) small droplets of bile released into the duodenum from the gallbladder.
B) small droplets of dietary cholesterol that move rapidly through the intestinal tract.
C) small droplets of fat resulting from emulsification of large droplets that come from the stomach.
D) small droplets of triglycerides that have reformed from the fatty acids and diglycerides produced by lipase activity.
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Q1) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> is found abundantly in plant foods.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The condition of niacin deficiency is called A) beriberi.
B) scurvy.
C) pellagra.
D) ariboflavinosis.
Q3) The condition of thiamin deficiency is called A) beriberi.
B) scurvy.
C) pellagra.
D) anemia.
Q4) Milk is packaged in opaque containers to protect the destruction of what vitamin by light?
A) Thiamin
B) Niacin
C) Riboflavin
D) Biotin
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Sample Questions
Q1) In some people, increasing salt intake is associated with _____ because the high-salt diet induces _____ blood volume.
A) hypotension, decreased
B) hyponatremia, increased
C) hypertension, increased
D) hypertension, decreased
Q2) In response to renin,
A) angiotensin II is converted to angiotensin I.
B) aldosterone cleaves angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I.
C) angiotensin II stimulates the adrenal glands to secrete aldosterone.
D) aldosterone stimulates the adrenal glands to secrete angiotensin II.
Q3) Iodine is essential for proper growth and development, but zinc is not.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Condensation reactions are those
A) that require water in order to break a chemical bond.
B) that produce water when chemical bonds are formed.
C) that release water from inside cells into the intercellular fluid.
D) that require water when chemical bonds are formed.
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Q1) During pregnancy, a period of rapid growth and development, one would desire a
A) low energy intake.
B) low energy expenditure.
C) positive energy balance.
D) negative energy balance.
Q2) Exercise is defined as
A) planned, structured, and repetitive bodily movement intended to improve or maintain physical fitness.
B) any bodily movement that results in energy expenditure.
C) coordinated whole-body movements that require energy expenditure in both upper and lower extremities.
D) intensive activity lasting at least 75 minutes per day.
Q3) The hypothalamus is the region of the brain that regulates hunger and satiety.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As a rule, total body fat exists
A) mainly in the lower portion of the body (thighs, hips, buttocks).
B) as a layer of fat beneath the skin.
C) as visceral adipose tissue and subcutaneous adipose tissue.
D) around the organs in the torso.
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Q1) During pregnancy, the placenta is the organ that exchanges oxygen between the mother and baby.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) recommendations are separated according to life stage because
A) children eat less than adults, so their nutritional needs are lower than those of adults.
B) older adults consume less food than younger adults, justifying a reduction in all of their nutritional recommendations.
C) growth and developmental stages affect a person's body size and composition, justifying changes in nutritional recommendations.
D) nutritional needs are highest during times of growth and senescence.
Q3) Gestational length refers to
A) the time from conception to birth.
B) the number of weeks between the mother's last menstrual cycle and birth.
C) the duration of the second and third trimesters.
D) the length of the child at birth.
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Q1) Recommended durations of physical activity can be achieved by exercising one day per week and activities thus do not need to be repeated on a daily basis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Maximal oxygen consumption or VO<sub>2</sub> max
A) is a measure of the cardiovascular system's capacity to deliver oxygen to muscles.
B) cannot be changed because it is genetically determined.
C) when high results in early fatigue.
D) is only important in anaerobic activities.
Q3) A measure one's ability to exercise for an extended period of time without becoming fatigued is called
A) endurance.
B) flexibility.
C) strength.
D) physical fitness.
Q4) Water is adequate as a fluid source when a workout lasts less than an hour.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stress fractures in young women runners with amenorrhea could be a sign of A) overtraining.
B) the female athlete triad.
C) bad shoes.
D) heavy body weight.
Q2) Tooth decay can be a sign of bulimia nervosa because A) of malnutrition.
B) the acidity of gastric juice damages enamel.
C) binging on sweets can be bad for your teeth.
D) poor personal hygiene is a characteristic of someone with bulimia.
Q3) _____ is an eating disorder characterized by repeated cycles of binging and purging.
A) Anorexia nervosa
B) Bulimia nervosa
C) Binge eating
D) None of the above
Q4) Eating disorders are most prevalent among adolescent girls and young adult women.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Who among the following categories should completely avoid drinking alcohol?
A) Pregnant women
B) Lactating women
C) People operating machinery
D) All of the above
Q2) Inflammation of the liver that results from obstructed blood flow is called
A) cirrhosis.
B) alcoholic hepatitis.
C) liver failure.
D) hepatic inflammatory disorder.
Q3) Scar tissue accumulation in the liver
A) is not damaging because cells can still function normally.
B) is called cirrhosis.
C) is part of normal aging, but is accelerated by alcohol.
D) leads to the development of fatty liver.
Q4) Alcohol can cause a temporary loss of inhibition, making a person feel relaxed and outgoing.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Acrylamide, melamine, and bisphenol A are similar because all three
A) have been used to make pet foods.
B) are bacterial toxins.
C) are produced by heating starchy foods to very high temperatures.
D) are components of food packaging or dishes.
Q2) Consumption of shellfish contaminated with marine toxin can cause all of the following symptoms except:
A) drowsiness.
B) hot-cold inversion.
C) nausea and diarrhea.
D) burning and tingling sensations.
Q3) Infection with which pathogen(s) causes bloody diarrhea?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Salmonella
C) Escherichia coli O157:H7
D) B and C
Q4) When traveling, the only concern travelers should have is with the water contamination.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The federally funded National School Lunch and School Breakfast Programs
A) have no guidelines to use when deciding what to serve.
B) are new programs with limited enrollment since they began in 1999.
C) provide quality day care for children.
D) provide meals to children either free of charge or at reduced cost.
Q2) Undernourished children tend to be in the lowest height-for-age percentiles compared with a well-nourished reference group.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Political unrest, reduced land availability for growing crops, population growth, and gender inequality are
A) all contributors to food insecurity in the United States.
B) all contributors to global food insecurity.
C) issues that are expected to be resolved within the next year.
D) not related to food access and security.
Q4) The region with the highest percentage of hungry people in the world is
A) Asia.
B) sub-Saharan Africa.
C) South America.
D) Central America.

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