Principles of Nutrition
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Nutrition introduces students to the fundamental concepts of human nutrition, including the function and sources of essential nutrients, the process of digestion, absorption, and metabolism, and the role of nutrition in promoting health and preventing disease. The course explores dietary guidelines, nutrient requirements across the lifespan, the impact of nutrition on chronic diseases, and the evaluation of nutritional information. Students will develop skills for making informed dietary choices and understanding the broader social, cultural, and scientific aspects of nutrition.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Nutrition 14th Edition by Eleanor Noss Whitney
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Chapter 1: An Overview of Nutrition
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Q1) In the scientific method, a tentative solution to a problem is called a ____.
A)theory
B)prediction
C)hypothesis
D)correlation
E)deduction
Answer: C
Q2) The three energy-yielding nutrients are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.
Answer: carbohydrate; fat; protein carbohydrate; protein; fat fat; protein; carbohydrate fat; carbohydrate; protein protein; carbohydrate; fat protein; fat; carbohydrate
Q3) Risk factors for chronic disease tend to ____________________ and tend to ____________________.
Answer: persist; cluster cluster; persist
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Chapter 2: Planning a Healthy Diet
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Q1) Discuss the reasons for why people become vegetarians.
Answer: The health benefits of a primarily vegetarian diet seem to have encouraged many people to eat more plant-based meals. The popular press sometimes refers to individuals who eat small amounts of meat, seafood, or poultry from time to time as "flexitarians."
People who choose to exclude meat and other animal-derived foods from their diets today do so for many of the same reasons the Greek philosopher Pythagoras cited in the sixth century B.C.: physical health, ecological responsibility, and philosophical concerns. They might also cite world hunger issues, economic reasons, ethical concerns, or religious beliefs as motivating factors.
Q2) Which nutrient would be supplied in much greater amounts from whole-grain bread versus enriched bread?
A)zinc
B)folate
C)riboflavin
D)thiamin
E)sodium
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Digestion, Absorption, and Transport
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Q1) What is the function of bile?
A)It emulsifies fats.
B)It initiates digestion of protein.
C)It enhances absorption of complex carbohydrates.
D)It protects the stomach and small intestine from the action of hydrochloric acid.
E)It stimulates the absorption of vitamins and minerals.
Answer: A
Q2) Certain types of fibers and complex proteins that are degraded by GI bacteria are called ____.
A)prebiotics
B)probiotics
C)postbiotics
D)symbiotics
E)abiotics
Answer: A
Q3) ____________________ is the potentially harmful internal washing of the large intestine with a powerful machine.
Answer: Colonic irrigation
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Chapter 4: The Carbohydrates: Sugars, Starches, and Fibers
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Q1) Give several examples of soluble and insoluble dietary fibers. List food sources of these fibers. Contrast the physical characteristics and features of these two types of fibers and their effects on gastrointestinal tract function.
Q2) Short chains of glucose units that result from starch breakdown are called ____.
A)sucrose
B)lignins
C)pectins
D)dextrins
E)lextrins
Q3) What is the reaction that links two monosaccharides together?
A)hydrolysis
B)absorption
C)disaccharide
D)condensation
E)oxygenation
Q4) ____________________ is made of a glucose molecule and a fructose molecule.
Q5) What is meant by the phrase "not all carbohydrates are created equal"?
Q7) Discuss the concepts of sugar cravings and addictions. Page 6
Q6) Compare and contrast the terms total fiber, dietary fiber, and functional fiber.
Q8) How is fiber thought to exert an influence over cancer of the colon?
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Chapter 5: The Lipids: Triglycerides, Phospholipids, and
Sterols
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Q1) Which food contains cholesterol?
A)Corn
B)Olives
C)Roasted turkey
D)Roasted peanuts
E)Boiled potatoes
Q2) According to the Dietary Guidelines, what should be the maximum total fat intake as a percentage of energy intake?
A)10
B)20
C)35
D)50
E)60
Q3) What is the chemical composition of fats?
A)Hexose polymers
B)Glycogen granules
C)Fatty acids and glycerol
D)Combinations of long-chain fatty acids
E)Esters of carbon and hydrogen
Q4) The best-known phospholipid is ____________________.
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Chapter 6: Protein: Amino Acids
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Q1) In the metabolism of amino acids for energy, what is the fate of the amino group?
A)Excreted as urea
B)Burned for energy
C)Stored in the liver
D)Converted to glucose
E)Recycled in the liver
Q2) What is the actual ratio of calcium to protein intake (mg to g) for most U.S. women?
A)3:1
B)9:1
C)13:1
D)21:1
E)36:1
Q3) A variation in a single nucleotide of a DNA strand is called a(n) ____.
A)RNA switch
B)thymine substitution
C)environmental mutation
D)single nucleotide polymorphism
E)replication failure
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Chapter 7: Energy Metabolism
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Q1) What would be the best method of slowing alcohol absorption?
A)Not eating
B)Eating protein snacks
C)Drinking caffeinated drinks
D)Eating carbohydrate snacks
E)Fasting 6 to 8 hours before drinking
Q2) Describe the two major pathways for metabolism of alcohol in the liver. How does the liver adapt when forced to metabolize high quantities of alcohol on a daily basis?
Q3) Which statement describes a correct energy-yielding endpoint?
A)Carbohydrates yield glucose only when proteins are not available.
B)Proteins cannot yield fat stores.
C)Fatty acids yield amino acids.
D)Glycerol yields nonessential amino acids when nitrogen is present.
E)Fatty acids yield glucose.
Q4) List four of the liver's functions in the metabolism of each of these nutrients: carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.
Q5) When the body needs energy quickly, pyruvate is converted to ____________________; when the energy expenditure is slower, pyruvate is broken down into ____________________.
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Chapter 8: Energy Balance and Body Composition
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Q1) A high risk of weight-related health problems is seen in women whose waist circumference begins to exceed ____.
A)24 inches
B)28 inches
C)35 inches
D)42 inches
E)48 inches
Q2) To estimate the energy requirements of individuals, which factor is used in the calculation?
A)Weight
B)Fat intake
C)Surface area
D)Fatfold thickness
E)Bone density
Q3) Identify the BMI figures that denote underweight, healthy weight, overweight, and obese.
Q4) The nerve signals and chemical messengers associated with hunger originate and act primarily in the brain structure called the ____________________.
Q5) Compare basal metabolic rate with resting metabolic rate.
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Chapter 9: Weight Management: Overweight, Obesity, and Underweight
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Q1) What is the best meal-planning strategies for underweight people who desire to gain weight?
A)Eat only one large meal per day, just before bed.
B)Eat meaty appetizers rather than salads.
C)Refrain from between-meal snacking, especially energy drinks.
D)Decrease the amount of food consumed within the first 20 minutes of a meal.
E)Eat the same amount as before, but spread it out over the entire day.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of the rate of dietary fat oxidation?
A)It is lower in obese people.
B)It is independent of LPL activity.
C)It is higher in females than males.
D)It is independent of the body's set point.
E)It is consistent throughout the lifespan.
Q3) The major function of lipoprotein lipase is to
A)assist bile in the digestion of dietary lipids.
B)remove triglycerides from blood for storage.
C)trigger adipokine release from adipose tissue.
D)release triglycerides from storage within adipocytes.
E)stimulate the release of gherlin and leptin.
Q4) Why are fad diets so appealing?
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Chapter 10: The Water-Soluble Vitamins: B Vitamins and Vitamin C
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Q1) Which of the following vitamins has an RDA?
A)Biotin
B)Choline
C)Cobalamin
D)Pantothenic acid
E)Carnitine
Q2) Which of the following vitamins is usually found in a form that is bound to one or more pteroylglutamic acid molecules in food?
A)Folate
B)Thiamin
C)Vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
D)Ascorbic acid
E)Vitamin B
Q3) Research has shown that the risk for neural tube defects is lowered by taking supplements of A)niacin.
B)folate.
C)vitamin C.
D)vitamin B .
E)thiamin.
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Chapter 11: The Fat-Soluble Vitamins: A, D, E, and K
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Q1) Which of the following is a property of the tocopherols?
A)Easily destroyed by air and oxygen
B)Act as precursors for the menaquinones
C)May dissolve from foods into cooking water
D)Absorbed from the intestines into the portal circulation
E)Very resistant to degradation
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of vitamin D synthesis?
A)Tanning lamps and tanning booths do not stimulate vitamin D synthesis.
B)Sunscreens with sunburn protection factors of 2 and above prevent synthesis of vitamin D.
C)The ultraviolet rays of the sun are able to easily pierce heavy clouds and smog to promote vitamin D synthesis.
D)Dark-skinned people require longer sunlight exposure than light-skinned people to synthesize equivalent amounts of vitamin D
E)The risks of skin cancer often outweigh the benefits of sun exposure for very light-skinned people.
Q3) List the different forms of vitamin E found in the diet as well as their vitamin E activity in the body. What are the major food sources of vitamin E?
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Chapter 12: Water and 123 the Major Minerals
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Q1) The concentration of electrolyte charges is measured in A)solute minerals.
B)milliequivalents.
C)ionic dissociates.
D)total atomic masses.
E)millijoules.
Q2) List the signs of dehydration as loss of body water progresses from slight to severe.
Q3) The development of osteoporosis in men typically occurs at what age in relation to the appearance of osteoporosis in women?
A)5 years earlier
B)About the same time
C)5 years later
D)10 years later
E)15 years later
Q4) As much as ____________________ percent of the sodium in people's diets comes from salt added to foods by manufacturers; about ____________________ percent comes from salt added during cooking and at the table; and only ____________________ percent comes from the natural content in foods.
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Chapter 13: The Trace Minerals
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Q1) Which of the following is an important function of selenium?
A)Helps blood to clot
B)Inhibits the formation of free radicals
C)Stabilizes the alcohol content of beer
D)Acts as a cross-linking agent in collagen
E)Is an important natural food preservative
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of the trace minerals?
A)A deficiency sign common to many trace minerals is dermatitis
B)The amounts in foods are dependent, in part, on soil composition
C)Deficiencies are more difficult to recognize in children than in adults
D)The amount of all trace minerals in the average person totals approximately 100 grams
E)Deficiencies of trace minerals are virtually unknown, although toxicities are well documented.
Q3) What component of tea is responsible for its effect on iron absorption?
A)Tannic acid
B)Lactic acid
C)Citric acid
D)Ascorbic acid
E)Acetic acid
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Chapter 14: Fitness: Physical Activity, Nutrients, and Body
Adaptations
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Q1) What dietary nutrients are most effective at raising muscle glycogen concentrations?
A)Fats
B)Proteins
C)Carbohydrates
D)Chromium and iron
E)Sodium and potassium
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of fuel use by muscles?
A)At rest, about 90% of the fuel is derived from glucose.
B)At rest, about 90% of the fuel is derived from fat.
C)Muscles always use a mixture of fuels at rest or during physical activity.
D)During physical activity, amino acids contribute most of the fuel.
E)During the first 10 seconds of physical activity, the lactic acid system is the predominant source of energy.
Q3) Hyponatremia refers to low blood levels of A)water.
B)sodium.
C)glucose.
D)potassium.
E)calcium.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Life Cycle Nutrition: Pregnancy and Lactation
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Q1) What is the name of the condition characterized by high blood pressureand protein in the urine of a pregnant woman?
A)Preeclampsia
B)Gestational diabetes
C)Teratogenic hypertension
D)Pregnancy-induced blood pressure crisis
E)Malignant renal hypertension syndrome
Q2) Provide examples of the effects of environmental contaminants on pregnancy outcomes.
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of gestational diabetes?
A)It predicts risk of diabetes for the infant.
B)It leads to type 2 diabetes in some women.
C)It occurs in over one-half of normal weight women.
D)It occurs more often in women with a history of having premature births.
E)It may be dangerous for the woman but has little impact on the developing fetus.
Q4) Discuss the effects of tobacco use in the pregnant woman and its effects on health of the newborn.
Q5) Define gestational diabetes and list risk factors. How is it managed?
Q6) Discuss the term "critical periods" in relation to pregnancy.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Life Cycle Nutrition: Infancy, Childhood, and Adolescence
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Q1) Discuss the role of peer pressure in shaping food preferences of adolescents.
Q2) A true ____________________ occurs when fractions of a food protein or other large molecule are absorbed into the blood and elicit an immunologic response.
Q3) Which of the following defines nursing bottle tooth decay?
A)Caries development resulting from frequent use of non-sterile bottles and nipples.
B)Bacterial attack of teeth due to severe tooth misalignment from sucking on oversized bottle nipples.
C)Marked tooth decay of an infant due to prolonged exposure to carbohydrate-rich fluids from a bottle.
D)Tooth decay resulting from constant exposure to food due to inability of the infant to swallow normally.
E)Tooth decay resulting from the rubbing of the nipple against the teeth and consequent thinning of enamel.
Q4) Discuss the special nutritional needs of the preterm infant and ways to meet these needs.
Q5) Discuss the short- and long-term consequences of iron deficiency in children on behavior and on school performance.
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Chapter 17: Life Cycle Nutrition: Adulthood and the Later Years
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Q1) What organ is affected by macular degeneration?
A)Bone
B)Eyes
C)Liver
D)Kidneys
E)Spinal cord
Q2) Your father was recently prescribed an anticoagulant medicine and was surprised that the doctor advised him to maintain consumption of consistent amounts of green leafy vegetables every day. You inform your father that
A)these vegetables significantly reduce absorption of the drug.
B)these vegetables significantly increase absorption of the drug.
C)variable intake of green leafy vegetables will affect activity of monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
D)inconsistent intakes of green leafy vegetables will interfere with the regular action of the drug.
E)he is confused - green leafy vegetable intake is unrelated to anticoagulant action.
Q3) List 5 common signs of dementia, and define senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles.
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Chapter 18: Diet and Health
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Q1) A desirable HDL cholesterol is
A)20-30 mg/dl.
B)30-40 mg/dl.
C)40-50 mg/dl.
D)50-60 mg/dl.
E)>60 mg/dl.
Q2) What disease accounts for the majority of deaths in U.S. women?
A)Diabetes
B)Lung cancer
C)Breast cancer
D)Coronary heart disease
E)Stroke
Q3) List ways that malnutrition affects immunity.
Q4) The most common form of cardiovascular disease is ____________________.
Q5) Type 2 diabetes usually develops after people reach the age of A)21.
B)30.
C)40.
D)55.
E)65.
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Chapter 19: Consumer Concerns About Foods and Water
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Q1) What term is used to describe the highest level of a pesticide that is allowed in a food when the pesticide is used according to label directions?
A)Toxicity level
B)Tolerance level
C)Risk concentration
D)Optimum concentration
E)Adverse concentration
Q2) The Minamata, Japan incident, in which more than 100 individuals, including infants, became ill, many died, and survivors suffered blindness, deafness, lack of coordination, and intellectual deterioration, was caused through the contamination of fish by
Q3) List four appropriate uses for nutrient additives to foods.
Q4) What is meant by potable water?
A)Water fit for drinking
B)Water that must be boiled before drinking
C)Water that must be chlorinated before drinking
D)Water suitable only for use on lawns and gardens
E)Water to which fluoride has been added
Q5) What is cross-contamination and how can it be minimized?
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Chapter 20: Hunger and the Global Environment
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Q1) What are the characteristics associated with acute and chronic malnutrition in children?
Q2) Approximately what percentage of all energy use in the U.S. is devoted to the food industry?
A)5
B)10
C)20
D)30
E)40
Q3) Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty and population growth?
A)As economic status improves, population growth rises.
B)As economic status improves, population growth diminishes.
C)Lack of natural resources, not poverty, is the most important contributor to overpopulation.
D)Extreme poverty tends to greatly suppress population growth.
E)Economic status and population growth are unrelated in the developing world.
Q4) List 3 ways the food industry could substantially reduce fossil fuel use and still remain sustainable.
Q5) Discuss the effects of water misuse in agricultural production.
Page 23
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