Principles of Microbiology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Principles of Microbiology introduces students to the fundamental concepts and techniques of microbiology, focusing on the structure, function, and diversity of microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course explores microbial genetics, metabolism, growth, and the role of microbes in health, disease, and the environment. Emphasis is placed on understanding host-pathogen interactions, mechanisms of microbial control, and the importance of microorganisms in biotechnology, industry, and public health. Laboratory components typically complement theoretical knowledge by providing hands-on experience in culturing, identifying, and studying microorganisms using standard microbiological methods.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 3rd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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22 Chapters
1953 Verified Questions
1953 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) ATP is best described as ________.
A)an enzyme
B)a double helix
C)an electron carrier
D)the energy molecule of cells
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) The scientist(s)who proposed organisms be assigned to one of three domains is(are)________.
A)Robert Koch and Louis Pasteur
B)Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
C)Carl Woese and George Fox
D)Robert Whittaker
E)Francesco Redi
Answer: C
Q3) Microbes have been found existing in salty,acidic lakes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of microscope shows cells against a bright background but also differentiates intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities?
A)Bright field
B)Dark field
C)Phase contrast
D)Differential interference
E)Electron
Answer: C
Q2) The diameter of field for a 4x lens is measured at 4.6 mm. How many bacterial cells,each measuring 4 m,could be lined up along the diameter?
A)1,150 cells
B)1.15 cells
C)18.4 cells
D)115 cells
E)1840 cells
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bacterial chromosome ________.
A)is located in the cell membrane
B)contains all the cell's plasmids
C)is part of the nucleoid
D)forms a single linear strand of DNA
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: C
Q2) The ________ stain is used to stain and differentiate Mycobacterium and Nocardia from other bacteria.
A)acid-fast
B)methylene blue
C)Gram
D)negative
E)basic
Answer: A
Q3) Pili used for conjugation are only found on gram-negative bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most fungi obtain nutrients from dead plants and animals.These fungi are called
A)saprobes
B)parasites
C)substrates
D)nonseptate
E)dimorphic
Q2) Scientists believe that the modern eukaryotic cell evolved 3.5 billion years ago when a photosynthetic bacteria and an aerobic bacteria fused together.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Filamentous fungi are called ________.
A)pseudohyphae
B)septa
C)molds
D)dimorphic
E)mycelium
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Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Multiplication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adeno-associated virus (AAV)is a prion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A negative-sense RNA virus ________.
A)is ready for immediate translation
B)must synthesize a negative RNA copy of its genome
C)must synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome
D)is a special form of tRNA used by viruses
E)always codes for RNA polymerase
Q3) Host range is limited by ________.
A)type of nucleic acid in the virus
B)age of the host cell
C)type of host cell receptors on cell membrane
D)size of the host cell
E)All of the choices are correct
Q4) An ideal antiviral drug would be one that killed the host cell,effectively preventing the virus from replicating.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The direct cell count,using a cytometer,can calculate viable cell numbers from a sample.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because a hypertonic environment forces water to move out of a cell,it is said to have high osmotic ________.
A)pressure
B)diffusion
C)tension
D)leverage
Q3) The term obligate refers to ________.
A)the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions
B)existing in a very narrow niche
C)using chemicals for energy production
D)using light for energy production
E)using oxygen for metabolism
Q4) In a commensal relationship,the commensal benefits but the cohabitant is neither harmed nor benefited.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organism sample is further tested and found to grow in the absence of oxygen.Which of three main pathways of catabolism may this organism utilize to produce energy under these circumstances?
A)Aerobic respiration and fermentation
B)Anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration
C)Fermentation and anaerobic respiration
D)Aerobic respiration,anaerobic respiration,and fermentation
Q2) Enzymes that are only produced when substrate is present are termed ________.
A)exoenzymes
B)endoenzymes
C)constitutive enzymes
D)induced enzymes
E)conjugated enzymes
Q3) Each of the following is true of enzymes except ________.
A)they can be used over and over
B)they may or may not require cofactors
C)their active site is specific to the substrate
D)they increase the initial energy required for a reaction to start
E)All of the choices are true of enzymes
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to ________.
A)each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar
B)a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine
C)one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction
D)an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene on the DNA template strand?
A)Ribosomal RNA
B)Messenger RNA
C)Transfer RNA
D)Primer RNA
E)Ribozymes
Q4) Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores on inanimate objects is ________.
A)disinfection
B)sterilization
C)antisepsis
D)sanitization
E)degermation
Q2) The alcohol wipe before an injection is an example of ________.
A)antisepsis
B)disinfection
C)sterilization
D)decontamination
E)virilization
Q3) Chlorine compounds remain stable and effective in the presence of excess organic matter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polymyxin B is a large molecule with a hydrophobic tail that can disrupt phospholipids,making it particularly effective against ________.
A)gram-negative cells since they have both an outer and inner membrane
B)gram-positive cells since the peptidoglycan is easily dissolved by detergent-like molecules
C)fungi since the drug can traverse the complex chitin cell wall to dissolve the cell membrane
D)both gram-positive and gram-negative cells since they both have a membrane
Q2) Drug toxicity occurs when an antimicrobial drug acts as antigen and stimulates an allergic response.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ketoconazole,fluconazole,clotrimazole,miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat ________ infections.
A)bacterial
B)fungal
C)protozoan
D)helminthic
E)viral
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fetus can get an infection when a pathogen in the mother's blood is capable of crossing the placenta to the fetal circulation and tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not an antiphagocytic factor?
A)Secretion of slime
B)Production of leukocidins
C)Adhering to the host
D)Secretion of a capsule
E)Ability to survive intracellularly
Q3) While one person's microbiome differs when compared to another person,one individual's microbiome is uniform throughout the body; for example,the organisms on the left hand will be the same as the organisms on the right.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Latency is a dormant state of an infectious agent.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse examines the child's tonsils while preparing to swab them with the culture swab.A white pustule coating is noted to be covering the tonsils.What is this pus composed of?
A)Waste from red blood cells
B)Live bacteria
C)Fibrin threads
D)White blood cells and debris from phagocytosis
Q2) Which of the following is not a component of the second line of defense?
A)Keratin
B)Complement
C)Inflammation
D)Phagocytosis
E)Fever
Q3) The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as ________.
A)lymph nodes
B)thymus
C)spleen
D)GALT
E)tonsils
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Live,attenuated vaccines ________.
A)include the Sabin polio vaccine
B)include the measles,mumps,rubella vaccine (MMR)
C)contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person
D)require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of IgM except ________.
A)has 10 antigen binding sites
B)contains a central J chain
C)is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell
D)can serve as a B-cell receptor
E)is a dimer
Q3) Vaccinating a child against a dangerous pathogen not only protects that child from disease,but it also protects society as a whole,since herd immunity in the population is maintained.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What involves determination of donor HLA antigens compared to those of the recipient's tissue?
A)Skin graft
B)Blood transfusion
C)Organ transplantation
D)Both skin graft and organ transplantation
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen?
A)Degranulation
B)Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C)Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D)Histamine acts on smooth muscle
E)Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Q3) Which of the following is not a theory to explain the origin of autoimmune diseases?
A)Sequestered antigen theory
B)Clonal selection theory
C)Theory of immune deficiency
D)Viral infection theory
E)All of the choices are possible theories.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The benefit of "lab on a chip" technology over standard microarrays is that
A)lab on a chip technology has miniaturized testing to carry out analyses using minute amounts of reagents,whereas microarrays still require larger volumes of reagents in comparison
B)lab on a chip technology requires little technical training compared to analyses using microarrays
C)lab on a chip technology is invaluable for developing countries,where the reagents,refrigeration and trained personnel required for microarrays are limited
D)All of the choices are benefits of "lab on a chip" technology.
Q2) An outbreak of hepatitis A originating in a popular chain of restaurants serving fresh produce necessitated the rapid analysis of the viral genome in order to trace its source. The genome was scanned and analyzed multiple times to reduce errors. This is an example of ________.
A)whole genome sequencing
B)PFGE
C)FISH
D)microarrays
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Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of cellulitis?
A)Caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes
B)Occurs in the epidermis
C)Causes pain,tenderness,swelling,and warmth
D)Lymphangitis may occur
E)Treated with cephalexin
Q2) The smallpox vaccine uses the ________ virus.
A)smallpox
B)herpes simplex
C)vaccinia
D)herpes virus 6
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Tears are produced in the ________ and drain into the ________.
A)lacrimal gland; lacrimal duct
B)lacrimal duct; sclera
C)cornea; conjunctiva
D)conjunctiva; lacrimal duct
E)lacrimal gland; sclera
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Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neonatal meningitis is most commonly transmitted by ________.
A)breast feeding
B)hospital personnel
C)transplacental infection
D)exposure in birth canal
E)exposure from other infants
Q2) Subacute encephalitis may be caused by ________.
A)Toxoplasma gondii
B)prions
C)herpes simplex virus
D)persistent measles virus
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The RN updates the patient's son on the plan of treatment.What is the most appropriate antibiotic to treat this illness?
A)Vanomycin
B)Cefotaxime
C)Acyclovir
D)No antibiotic therapy is indicated.
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of septicemia?
A)Fever and shaking chills
B)Respiratory acidosis
C)Endotoxic shock
D)Parenteral or endogenous transfer
E)Drop in blood pressure
Q2) Rifampin is the drug of choice for malaria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Plague includes ________.
A)septicemic form; called Black Death
B)bubonic form; buboes develop
C)pneumonic form; sputum highly contagious
D)disease control; control of rodent population
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems are both circulatory in nature.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment for diphtheria requires only penicillin or erythromycin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The main contributing factor to the evolution of MDR-TB is ________.
A)the slow growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis requires antibiotic therapy for months rather than days,which is hard to sustain in some populations; cutting the regimen short allows the resistant bacteria to flourish
B)the organisms that develop multidrug resistance have a different cell wall composition to the drug-susceptible organisms
C)certain species of Mycobacterium tuberculosis are able to undergo bacterial transformation at a faster rate than other species,resulting in the transfer of resistance genes
D)the abundance of antibiotics available in the United States and other developed countries makes it a particular problem for resistant strains to emerge in those parts of the world
Q3) A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires' disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatitis B infection ________.
A)has an incubation of 2 to 7 weeks
B)can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route
C)increases risk for hepatocellular cancer
D)is responsible for most cases of posttransfusion hepatitis
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) General symptoms of helminth infection include all of the following except
A)eggs,larvae,or adult worms found in feces
B)increased sensitivity to helminth antigens
C)intense abdominal pain
D)increased eosinophil count
E)vague nausea
Q3) What organism is the leading cause of HUS in the United States?
A)Shigella dysenteriae
B)Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli
C)Shiga-toxin-producing Escherichia coli
D)Clostridium difficile
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leptospirosis ________.
A)has only humans as a reservoir
B)is communicable
C)can be contracted from the environment
D)is strictly transmitted by sexual contact
E)is contracted by the fecal-oral route
Q2) Evaluate the following statements and determine which is incorrect regarding the development of genital warts.
A)Warts caused by human papillomavirus can be inconspicuous,whereas warts caused by the poxvirus are large and unsightly,a condition called condyloma acuminata.
B)Two types of virus,HPV and a poxvirus can cause genital warts although HPV infection has more serious consequences.
C)Genital warts caused by the human papillomavirus range from being inconspicuous or extensive,whereas those from the poxvirus do not vary.
D)Regardless of the viral cause of genital warts,the condition is not treatable,although the warts can be removed.
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Chapter 22: One Health: the Interconnected Health of the Environment,
humans, and Other Animals
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Q1) As wastewater moves through the wastewater treatment process,its biological oxygen demand increases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The greater the amount of organic matter in wastewater,the ________ its biological oxygen demand.
A)higher
B)lower
Q3) The presence of coliforms necessarily indicates the presence of fecal matter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) HIV did not begin to spread throughout the African continent until the 1970s.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the secondary phase of water treatment,organic matter undergoes biodegradation by a diverse mix of bacteria,algae,and protozoa.
A)True
B)False
24
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